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Worksheets

CCNA Prep 1

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an example of what?

a)

Data encapsulation

b)

OSI model

c)

Same-layer interaction

d)

All of these answers are correct

2.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model defines end-to-end forwarding of packets?

a)

The Network layer

b)

The Transport layer

c)

The Data Link layer

d)

The Application layer

3.

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data-link layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)

a)

UDP

b)

802.11

c)

IP

d)

SMTP

e)

Ethernet

4.

Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data-link layer headers and trailers?

a)

Packet

b)

Segment

c)

Chunk

d)

Frame

e)

Data

5.

The general topic of how, on one computer, two adjacent layers in a networking architectural model work together, with the lower layer providing services to the higher layer

a)

adjacent-layer interaction

b)

OSI Networking

c)

Dual-Stack

d)

de-encapsulation

6.

On a computer that receives data over a network, the process in which the device interprets the lower-layer headers and, when finished with each header, removes the header, revealing the next-higher-layer PDU.

a)

de-encapsulation

b)

encapsulation

c)

routing

d)

framing

7.

The placement of data from a higher-layer protocol behind the header (and in some cases, between a header and trailer) of the next-lower-layer protocol.

a)

de-encapsulation

b)

encapsulation

c)

trunking

d)

virtual private network

8.

A term referring to a data-link header and trailer, plus the data encapsulated between the header and trailer.

a)

segment

b)

packet

c)

frame

d)

data

9.

A generic term referring to any set of protocols and standards collected into a comprehensive grouping that, when followed by the devices in a network, allows all the devices to communicate.

a)

dual-stack

b)

routing table

c)

networking model

d)

border gateway protocol

10.

A logical grouping of bytes that includes the network layer header and encapsulated data, but specifically does not include any headers and trailers below the network layer.

a)

byte

b)

frame

c)

packet

d)

segment

11.

Which PDU exists at the physical level?

a)

bit

b)

packet

c)

frame

d)

segment

12.

Which PDU exists at the data-link level?

a)

bit

b)

packet

c)

frame

d)

segment

13.

Which PDU exists at the network level?

a)

bit

b)

packet

c)

frame

d)

segment

14.

The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an example of what?

a)

OSI model

b)

Data encapsulation

c)

Same-layer interaction

d)

All of these answers are correct.

15.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model defines end-to-end forwarding of packets?

a)

The Application layer

b)

The Data Link layer

c)

The Network layer

d)

The Transport layer

16.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model provides application software with an interface to the network in ways that simplify the interface so that the application can ask the network to deliver data to some destination address?

a)

The Application layer

b)

The Data Link layer

c)

The Network layer

d)

The Transport layer

17.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model deals with error recovery, segmentation of large application data blocks for transport, and the reassembly of segmented application data?

a)

The Application layer

b)

The Data Link layer

c)

The Network layer

d)

The Transport layer

18.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model defines how to deliver data over a particular instance of a particular type of data link, for instance, over a single Ethernet LAN, serial WAN, or Ethernet WAN link?

a)

The Application layer

b)

The Data Link layer

c)

The Network layer

d)

The Transport layer

19.

Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data-link layer headers and trailers?

a)

Data

b)

Chunk

c)

Packet

d)

Frame

e)

Segment

20.

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data-link layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)

a)

SMTP

b)

UDP

c)

802.11

d)

Ethernet

e)

TCP

21.

The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1, and the receiving computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what?

a)

Adjacent-layer interaction

b)

OSI model

c)

Data encapsulation

d)

Same-layer interaction

e)

All of these answers are correct.

22.

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)

a)

IP

b)

TCP

c)

Ethernet

d)

UDP

e)

SMTP

23.

Which of the following terms represents L3PDU in the OSI model, which includes the network layer header and its encapsulated data?

a)

Frame

b)

Segment

c)

Packet

d)

Data

24.

The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received correctly is an example of what?

a)

OSI model

b)

Adjacent-layer interaction

c)

Same-layer interaction

d)

All of these answers are correct.

25.

Which of the following represents the correct boot sequence for a Cisco switch?"

a)

POST, boot loader, low-level CPU initialization, initialize the flash file system, default IOS

b)

boot loader, low-level CPU initialization, boot loader, initialize the flash file system, default IOS

c)

POST, low-level CPU initialization, boot loader, initialize the flash file system, default IOS

d)

default IOS, POST, low-level CPU initialization, initialize the flash file system, boot loader,

e)

initialize the flash file system, POST, low-level CPU initialization, boot loader, default IOS

26.

Where is the POST program stored in a Cisco switch?

a)

flash file

b)

RAM

c)

ROM

d)

BIOS

27.

What function is performed by the CPU registers in a Cisco switch?

a)

tests the CPU, DRAM, and the portion of the flash device that makes up the flash file system

b)

gives control of the switch over to the IOS

c)

controls where physical memory is mapped, the quantity of memory, and its speed

d)

checks the CPU subsystem

28.

What is the startup-config file called on a Cisco switch?

a)

BOOT environmental variable

b)

bootsystem.txt

c)

loader.sys

d)

config.text

29.

What does an amber System LED indicate?

a)

The unit is receiving power and functioning properly

b)

The unit is not powered on

c)

The unit is receiving power but not functioning properly

d)

the unit is disabled

30.

What does a blinking amber RPS LED indicate?

a)

The unit is connected and ready to provide backup power

b)

The unit is connected but is unavailable because it is providing power to another device

c)

The unit is in standby mode, or in a fault condition

d)

The internal power supply in the switch has failed, and the RPS is providing power

31.

What is the status of the port if the Port LED is off?

a)

There is no link or the port is administratively shut down.

b)

a link is present

c)

there is activity and the port is sending or receiving data

d)

link-fault

e)

the port is blocked

32.

What is the status of the port if the Port LED is green?

a)

There is no link or the port is administratively shut down.

b)

a link is present

c)

there is activity and the port is sending or receiving data

d)

link-fault

e)

the port is blocked

33.

What is the status of the port if the Port LED is blinking green?

a)

There is no link or the port is administratively shut down.

b)

a link is present

c)

there is activity and the port is sending or receiving data

d)

link-fault

e)

the port is blocked

34.

What is the status of the port if the Port LED is amber?

a)

There is no link or the port is administratively shut down.

b)

a link is present

c)

there is activity and the port is sending or receiving data

d)

link-fault

e)

the port is blocked

35.

What is the status of the port if the Port LED is alternating green-amber?

a)

There is no link or the port is administratively shut down.

b)

a link is present

c)

there is activity and the port is sending or receiving data

d)

link-fault

e)

the port is blocked

36.

What is the port speed if the Port LED is off?

a)

10 Mbps

b)

100 Mbps

c)

1 Gbps

d)

10 Gbps

37.

What term specifically refers to devices on the network that are assigned a number for communication purposes?

a)

end-user

b)

client

c)

host

d)

server

38.

In what type of network does a computer serve as both client and server?

a)

VPN

b)

client-server

c)

peer-to-peer

d)

encrypted

39.

Which of the following are advantages of a peer-to-peer network?

a)

East to set up

b)

Less Complex

c)

centralized administration

d)

Lower cost

e)

used for simple tasks such as file transfer and printer sharing

40.

Which of the following are disadvantages of a peer-to-peer network?

a)

no centralized administration

b)

suitable for enterprise networks

c)

not scalable

d)

less secure

e)

slower performance

41.

Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?

a)

intermediary devices

b)

servers

c)

hosts

d)

media

42.

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

a)

wireless

b)

ADSL

c)

Fiber-optic cable

d)

copper cable

43.

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)

hoists

b)

routers

c)

servers

d)

switches

44.

What type of diagram illustrates the physical location of intermediary devices and cable installation?

a)

Logical Topology

b)

Physical Topology

c)

Visio map

d)

IP map

45.

What type of diagram illustrates devices, ports, and the addressing scheme of the network?

a)

Logical Topology

b)

Physical Topology

c)

Visio map

d)

IP map

46.

Which connection physically connects the end device to the network?

a)

Port

b)

Interface

c)

NIC

d)

Switch

47.

Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks?

a)

Port

b)

Interface

c)

NIC

d)

Switch

48.

Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

49.

Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to the organization’s data?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

50.

Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provider?

a)

Extranet

b)

Intranet

c)

LAN

d)

WAN

51.

What is the command to assign the name “Sw-Floor-2” to a switch?

a)

hostname Sw-Floor-2

b)

host name Sw-Floor-2

c)

name Sw-Floor-2

d)

host Sw-Floor-2

52.

How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?

a)

enable class

b)

secret class

c)

enable secret class

d)

service password-encryption

53.

Which command enables password authentication for user EXEC mode access on a switch?

a)

enable secret

b)

login

c)

secret

d)

service password-encryption

54.

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access on a switch?

a)

enable secret

b)

login

c)

secret

d)

service password-encryption

55.

Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?

a)

banner $ Keep out $

b)

banner motd $ Keep out $

c)

display $ Keep out $

d)

login banner $ Keep out $

56.

What are two system files that store the device configuration?

a)

startup-config

b)

running-config

c)

flash

d)

config.bat

57.

Which configuration file contains all the commands that will be used by the device upon startup or reboot and is stored in NVRAM?

a)

startup-config

b)

running-config

c)

flash

d)

config.bat

58.

Which configuration file reflects the current configuration and is stored in RAM?

a)

startup-config

b)

running-config

c)

flash

d)

config.bat

59.

What three elements do all communication methods have in common?

a)

Message source

b)

Response Timeout

c)

Message Destination

d)

Channel

e)

Accessmethod

60.

What is the process of managing the rate of data transmission?

a)

Response Timeout

b)

Access method

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Message Destination

e)

Flow Control

61.

What are the network protocols hosts use on the network to specify how long to wait for responses and what action to take if a response timeout occurs?

a)

Response Timeout

b)

Access method

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Message Destination

e)

Flow Control

62.

What are the network protocols hosts use on the network to determine when someone can send a message?

a)

Response Timeout

b)

Access method

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Message Destination

e)

Flow Control

63.

What is the process of converting information into the proper form for transmission?

a)

Encapsulation

b)

Encoding

c)

Formatting

d)

Sequencing

64.

What is the process of placing one message format inside another message format?

a)

Encapsulation

b)

Encoding

c)

Formatting

d)

Sequencing

65.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?

a)

Encapsulation

b)

Encoding

c)

Formatting

d)

Sequencing

66.

Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three.)

a)

Flow control

b)

Sequence numbers

c)

Access method

d)

Retransmit time

e)

Response timeout

67.

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?

a)

Unicast

b)

Multicast

c)

Broadcast

d)

Aircast

e)

Simulcast

68.

Which of the following protocols operate at the network access layer?

a)

ARP

b)

Ethernet

c)

WLAN

d)

OSPF

e)

NAT

69.

Which of the following protocols operate at the internet layer?

a)

IPv4/IPv6

b)

BGP

c)

OSPF

d)

ICMPv4/ICMPv6

e)

NAT

70.

Which of the following protocols operate at the transport layer?

a)

TCP

b)

BGP

c)

UDP

d)

ICMPv4/ICMPv6

e)

NAT

71.

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?

a)

Unicast

b)

Multicast

c)

Broadcast

d)

Aircast

e)

Simulcast

72.

Which of the following are common causes of LAN traffic congestion?

a)

Too many hosts in a collision or broadcast domain

b)

Too much multicast traffic

c)

Low bandwidth

d)

Adding hubs for connectivity to the network

e)

Broadcast storms

73.

What is a collision domain?

a)

a group of hosts whose data can be involved in collisions if they transmit at the same time.

b)

a collection of network devices that receive broadcast traffic from each other

c)

devices next to one another on an equipment rack

d)

End clients that belong to the same network

74.

What is a broadcast domain?

a)

a group of hosts whose data can be involved in collisions if they transmit at the same time.

b)

a collection of network devices that receive broadcast traffic from each other

c)

devices next to one another on an equipment rack

d)

End clients that belong to the same network

75.

What are the layers of the Cisco Three-Layer Hierarchical Model?

a)

Core Layer, Distribution Layer, Access Layer

b)

Distribution Layer, Access Layer, Routing layer

c)

Access Layer, Switching layer, Routing layer

d)

Endpoint Layer, , Access Layer, Server Layer

76.

What is the function of the Core Layer in the Cisco Three-Layer Hierarchical Model?

a)

The prime purpose of this layer is to manage routers and control collision domains

b)

The prime purpose of this layer is to switch traffic as fast as possible. This layer is responsible for reliably and quickly transporting large amounts of traffic.

c)

This layer is the communication point between the access layer and the core. The primary functions of this layer are to provide routing, filtering, and WAN access and to determine how packets can access the core.

d)

This layer controls user and workgroup access to internetwork resources and is sometimes referred to as the desktop layer.

77.

What is the function of the Distribution Layer in the Cisco Three-Layer Hierarchical Model?

a)

The prime purpose of this layer is to manage routers and control collision domains

b)

The prime purpose of this layer is to switch traffic as fast as possible. This layer is responsible for reliably and quickly transporting large amounts of traffic.

c)

This layer is the communication point between the access layer and the core. The primary functions of this layer are to provide routing, filtering, and WAN access and to determine how packets can access the core.

d)

This layer controls user and workgroup access to internetwork resources and is sometimes referred to as the desktop layer.

78.

What is the function of the Access Layer in the Cisco Three-Layer Hierarchical Model?

a)

The prime purpose of this layer is to manage routers and control collision domains

b)

The prime purpose of this layer is to switch traffic as fast as possible. This layer is responsible for reliably and quickly transporting large amounts of traffic.

c)

This layer is the communication point between the access layer and the core. The primary functions of this layer are to provide routing, filtering, and WAN access and to determine how packets can access the core.

d)

This layer controls user and workgroup access to internetwork resources and is sometimes referred to as the desktop layer.

79.

What is a collapsed core network design?

a)

The distribution is merged with the core layer.

b)

The distribution is merged with the access layer

c)

The access is merged with the core layer

d)

The core and distribution layers are eliminated and a new routing layer is added

80.

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data-link layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)

a)

Ethernet

b)

IP

c)

UDP

d)

802.11

e)

TCP

81.

The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an example of what?

a)

Same-layer interaction

b)

All of these answers are correct.

c)

OSI model

d)

Data encapsulation

82.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model defines end-to-end forwarding of packets?

a)

The Application layer

b)

The Network layer

c)

The Data Link layer

d)

The Transport layer

83.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model defines provides application software with an interface to the network in ways that simplify the interface so that the application can ask the network to deliver data to some destination address?

a)

The Application layer

b)

The Network layer

c)

The Data Link layer

d)

The Transport layer

84.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model deals with error recovery, segmentation of large application data blocks for transport, and the reassembly of segmented application data?

a)

The Application layer

b)

The Network layer

c)

The Data Link layer

d)

The Transport layer

85.

Which layer of the TCP/IP Model defines how to deliver data over a particular instance of a particular type of data link, for instance, over a single Ethernet LAN, serial WAN, or Ethernet WAN link?

a)

The Application layer

b)

The Network layer

c)

The Data Link layer

d)

The Transport layer

86.

Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data-link layer headers and trailers?

a)

Chunk

b)

Packet

c)

Data

d)

Frame

e)

Segment

87.

Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside the network layer header?

a)

Chunk

b)

Packet

c)

Data

d)

Frame

e)

Segment

88.

Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside the transport layer header?

a)

Chunk

b)

Packet

c)

Data

d)

Frame

e)

Segment

89.

The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1, and the receiving computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what?

a)

All of these answers are correct.

b)

OSI model

c)

Same-layer interaction

d)

Adjacent-layer interaction

e)

Data encapsulation

90.

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)

a)

TCP

b)

Ethernet

c)

HTTP

d)

UDP

e)

IP

91.

The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received correctly is an example of what?

a)

OSI model

b)

Same-layer interaction

c)

All of these answers are correct.

d)

Adjacent-layer interaction

92.

Which OSI encapsulation term can be used instead of the term frame?

a)

Layer 7 PDU

b)

Layer 1 PDU

c)

Layer 2 PDU

d)

Layer 3 PDU

e)

Layer 5 PDU

93.

Which of the following Ethernet standards defines Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling?

a)

100BASE-T

b)

1000BASE-T

c)

10GBASE-T

d)

None of the other answers is correct.

94.

Refer to the diagram; the new connection that is going between Campus 1 and Campus 2 routers is required to provide at least 500 Mbps of bandwidth; the routers are located 3000 meters away from each other. Which standard of Ethernet should be used in this situation?

a)

802.3u

b)

802.3an

c)

802.3ab

d)

802.3z

95.

Which standard of Ethernet supports a Gigabit Ethernet connection using fiber-optic cabling?

a)

802.3u

b)

802.3an

c)

802.3ab

d)

802.3z

96.

Which of the following is an advantage of using multimode fiber for an Ethernet link instead of UTP or single-mode fiber?

a)

To make use of an existing stock of LED-based SFP/SFP+ modules.

b)

To make use of an existing stock of laser-based SFP/SFP+ modules.

c)

To extend the link beyond 100 meters while keeping initial costs as low as possible.

d)

To achieve the longest distance possible for that single link.

97.

Each answer lists two types of devices used in a 100BASE-T network. If these devices were connected with UTP Ethernet cables, which pairs of devices would require a straight-through cable? (Choose three answers.)

a)

Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch

b)

PC and router

c)

PC and switch

d)

Hub and switch

e)

Router and hub

98.

This diagram refers to which type of fiber cable?

a)

GBIC

b)

SFP

c)

Single mode

d)

Multimode

99.

Which of the following is true about Ethernet crossover cables for Fast Ethernet?

a)

The cable can be up to 1000 meters long to cross over between buildings.

b)

Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 4 on the other end of the cable.

c)

Pins 1 and 2 are reversed on the other end of the cable.

d)

Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable.

e)

None of the other answers is correct.

100.

Which of the following statements are true about the wires inside the cable and the RJ-45 pins to which they are connected? (Select 3 answers)

a)

The cable from SW2 to R1 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

b)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

c)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 1 on the other.

d)

The cable from SW2 to R1 connects pin 2 on one end to pin 2 on the other.

e)

The cable from SW1 to SW2 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

101.

Which of the following describe a MAC address? Select 2 answers

a)

32 bits

b)

Layer 3 address

c)

Layer 1 address

d)

48 bits

e)

Layer 2 address

102.

In the LAN for a small office, some user devices connect to the LAN using a cable, while others connect using wireless technology (and no cable). Which of the following is true regarding the use of Ethernet in this LAN?

a)

Only the devices that use cables are using Ethernet.

b)

None of the devices are using Ethernet.

c)

Only the devices that use wireless are using Ethernet.

d)

Both the devices using cables and those using wireless are using Ethernet.

103.

Which of the following statements are true about the wires inside the cable and the RJ-45 pins to which they are connected?

a)

The cable from SW2 to R1 connects pin 6 on one end to pin 6 on the other.

b)

The cable from SW1 to SW2 connects pin 2 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

c)

The cable from SW2 to R1 connects pin 3 on one end to pin 6 on the other.

d)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 2 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

e)

The cable from SW1 to SW2 connects pin 6 on one end to pin 2 on the other.

104.

Which of the following is true about the Ethernet FCS field?

a)

It is used for encryption.

b)

It is 2 bytes long.

c)

Ethernet uses FCS for error recovery.

d)

It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header.

105.

Which of the following are true about the format of Ethernet addresses? (Choose three answers.)

a)

The part of the address that holds this manufacturer’s code is called the OUI.

b)

Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 2 bytes of the address.

c)

The part of the address that holds this manufacturer’s code is called the MAC.

d)

Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 3 bytes of the address.

e)

Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first half of the address.

106.

Which of the following is true about the CSMA/CD algorithm?

a)

The algorithm never allows collisions to occur.

b)

Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover.

c)

The algorithm works with only two devices on the same Ethernet.

d)

None of the other answers is correct.

107.

Which of the following terms describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to send one frame that is delivered to multiple devices on the LAN? (Choose two answers.)

a)

Multicast address

b)

Unicast address

c)

Burned-in address

d)

Broadcast address

108.

Which of the following are true about a LAN-connected TCP/IP host and its IP routing (forwarding) choices?

a)

The host never sends packets to its default gateway.

b)

The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in the same subnet as the host.

c)

The host always sends packets to its default gateway.

d)

The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the host.

109.

By default, what does a router compare with its routing table?

a)

Source IP address

b)

Destination IP address

c)

Destination MAC address

d)

Frame Check Sequence

110.

Which of the following data-link layer protocols are used to encapsulate data on leased lines?

a)

LACP

b)

HDLC

c)

PAGP

d)

PPP

111.

Which of the following are EtherChannel protocols?

a)

LACP

b)

HDLC

c)

PAGP

d)

PPP

112.

A company implements a TCP/IP network, with PC1 sitting on an Ethernet LAN. Which of the following protocols and features requires PC1 to learn information from some other server device?

a)

ARP

b)

ping

c)

DNS

d)

None of these answers is correct.

113.

What is the purpose of the FCS field in an HDLC frame?

a)

Specifies the destination IP address for the frame

b)

Identifies the destination L2 address for the frame

c)

Used for identifying the type of L3 payload being carried in the frame

d)

Used for error detection

e)

Used to indicate to the receiving device that a new frame is arriving

114.

How does the receiver of an HDLC frame know what has been encapsulated within that frame?

a)

From the IP address (IPv4, IPv6, and so on)

b)

HDLC only encapsulates IPv4

c)

Based on the FCS field

d)

The Type field in the header

e)

Based on the Flag field

115.

Imagine a network with two routers that are connected with a point-to-point HDLC serial link. Each router has an Ethernet, with PC1 sharing the Ethernet with Router1 and PC2 sharing the Ethernet with Router2. When PC1 sends data to PC2, which of the following is true?

a)

Router1 removes the Ethernet, IP, and TCP headers and rebuilds the appropriate headers before forwarding the packet to Router2.

b)

Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, which is exactly re-created by Router2 before forwarding data to PC2.

c)

Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, never to be used again.

d)

Router1 encapsulates the Ethernet frame inside an HDLC header and sends the frame to Router2, which extracts the Ethernet frame for forwarding to PC2.

116.

Which of the following are functions of a routing protocol? (Choose two answers.)

a)

Learning routes for subnets directly connected to the router

b)

Learning routes and putting those routes into the routing table for routes advertised to the router by its neighboring routers

c)

Advertising known routes to neighboring routers

d)

Forwarding IP packets based on a packet’s destination IP address

117.

Two routers, R1 and R2, connect using an Ethernet over MPLS service. The service provides point-to-point service between these two routers only, as a Layer 2 Ethernet service. Which of the following are the most likely to be true about this WAN? (Choose two answers.)

a)

R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to R2.

b)

R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an Ethernet header/trailer.

c)

R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an HDLC header/trailer.

d)

R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to a device at the WAN service provider's point of presence.

118.

Which of the following does a router normally use when making a decision about routing TCP/IP packets?

a)

Destination IP address

b)

Destination MAC address

c)

Source IP address

d)

Destination MAC and IP addresses

e)

Source MAC address

119.

Which of the following fields in the HDLC header used by Cisco routers does Cisco add, beyond the ISO standard HDLC?

a)

Type

b)

Address

c)

FCS

d)

Flag

120.

Which protocol finds an unknown Layer 2 address from a known IP address?

a)

ICMP

b)

DHCP

c)

ARP

d)

DNS

121.

When the Cisco IOS CLI is initially accessed via console, Telnet, or SSH, with no extra privileges, which mode is the user placed into?

a)

Boot mode

b)

Configuration mode

c)

Enable mode

d)

User mode

122.

Which of the following is a difference between Telnet and SSH as supported by a Cisco switch?

a)

SSH encrypts the passwords used at login, but not other traffic; Telnet encrypts nothing.

b)

Telnet is used from Microsoft operating systems, and SSH is used from UNIX and Linux operating systems.

c)

SSH encrypts all data exchange, including login passwords; Telnet encrypts nothing.

d)

Telnet encrypts only password exchanges; SSH encrypts all data exchanges.

123.

What command copies the configuration from RAM into NVRAM?

a)

copy running-config startup-config

b)

copy running-config start-up-config

c)

copy tftp running-config

d)

copy running-config tftp

e)

copy startup-config running-config

124.

In which of the following modes of the CLI could you type the command reload and expect the switch to reboot?

a)

Interface configuration mode

b)

User mode

c)

Enable mode

d)

Global configuration mode

125.

What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration used by the switch when it is up and working?

a)

ROM

b)

RAM

c)

Bubble

d)

Flash

e)

NVRAM

126.

What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration file that is loaded when the switch (or router) next loads the IOS?

a)

ROM

b)

RAM

c)

Bubble

d)

Flash

e)

NVRAM

127.

In what modes can you type the command show mac address-table and expect to get a response with MAC table entries? (Choose two answers.)

a)

User mode

b)

Global configuration mode

c)

Enable mode

d)

Interface configuration mode

128.

What is the name of the Cisco IOS CLI exec mode that allows a user to run more powerful commands?

a)

Configuration mode

b)

User mode

c)

Boot mode

d)

Enable mode

129.

A switch user is currently in console line configuration mode. Which of the following would place the user in enable mode? (Choose two answers.)

a)

Using the end command once

b)

Using the quit command

c)

Using the exit command once

d)

Pressing the Ctrl+Z key sequence once

130.

Refer to the diagram; which of the following connection parameters are used when connecting to the console of a Cisco switch?

a)

19200, None, 7, 1

b)

9600, Even, 7, 2

c)

19200, Even, 8, 2

d)

9600, None, 8, 1

131.

Consider the following output from a Cisco Catalyst switch:

SW1# show mac address-table dynamic

Mac Address Table

-------------------------------------------

Vlan Mac Address Type Ports

---- ----------- -------- -----

1 02AA.AAAA.AAAA DYNAMIC Gi0/1


1 02BB.BBBB.BBBB DYNAMIC Gi0/2


1 02CC.CCCC.CCCC DYNAMIC Gi0/3

Which of the following answers is true about this switch?

a)

02CC.CCCC.CCCC was learned from the source MAC address of a frame that entered port Gi0/3.

b)

The switch has learned three MAC addresses since the switch powered on.

c)

The three listed MAC addresses were learned based on the destination MAC address of frames forwarded by the switch.

d)

The output proves that port Gi0/2 connects directly to a device that uses address 02BB.BBBB.BBBB.

132.

Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a LAN switch decides to forward a frame destined for a broadcast MAC address?

a)

It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address.

b)

It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table.

c)

It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface.

d)

It compares the frame’s incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.

e)

It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table.

133.

The MAC address table will hold which pieces of information?

a)

Transport protocols

b)

MAC address

c)

Destination IP address

d)

Switch port numbers

e)

Source IP address

134.

After power on, a frame arrives at a switch. The switch had not yet learned the source MAC address of that frame. Which actions must the switch take in this case?

a)

The switch adds the source MAC address to its MAC table.

b)

The switch checks the frame for loops.

c)

The switch adds the source and destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

d)

The switch adds the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

135.

The term segment refers to which layer PDU?

a)

Internetwork layer PDU

b)

Transport layer PDU

c)

Network Access PDU

d)

Application layer PDU

136.

IP functions at what layer of the OSI Reference Model?

a)

Physical

b)

Session

c)

Transport

d)

Network

137.

The diagram shows a simple internetwork in which all the LAN connections use FastEthernet. Select the answers that list the correct cable types.

a)

An Ethernet crossover cable between SW3 and Hub1

b)

A rollover cable between SW3 and AP1

c)

A crossover cable between SW1 and SW2

d)

An Ethernet crossover cable between SW1 and R1

138.

In the figure, CAT5 cabling with RJ-45 connectors is used. Which of the following statements are true about the wires inside the cable and the RJ-45 pins to which they are connected?

a)

The cable from SW1 to SW2 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 8 on the other.

b)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 6 on one end to pin 6 on the other.

c)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 2 on one end to pin 7 on the other.

d)

The cable from SW1 to SW2 connects pin 6 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

139.

The network in the figure uses CAT5 cabling with RJ-45 connectors. Which of the following statements are true about the wires inside the cable and the RJ-45 pins to which they are connected?

a)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

b)

The cable from SW2 to R1 connects pin 2 on one end to pin 2 on the other.

c)

The cable from SW2 to R1 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

d)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 1 on the other.

e)

The cable from SW1 to SW2 connects pin 1 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

140.

The network in the figure uses CAT5 cabling with RJ-45 connectors. Which of the following statements are true about the wires inside the cable and the RJ-45 pins to which they are connected?

a)

The cable from SW2 to R1 connects pin 3 on one end to pin 6 on the other.

b)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 6 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

c)

The cable from PC1 to SW1 connects pin 2 on one end to pin 3 on the other.

d)

The cable from SW1 to SW2 connects pin 6 on one end to pin 2 on the other.

e)

The cable from SW2 to R1 connects pin 6 on one end to pin 6 on the other.

141.

In the figure, each link is labeled with a number. Switches have been given names that begin with SW, routers names that begin with R, and hubs names that begin with H. Which of the following statements are true about this network?

a)

Link 1 uses a crossover cable.

b)

Link 15 uses a straight-through cable.

c)

Link 6 uses a rollover cable.

d)

Link 11 uses a crossover cable.

142.

Based on the diagram, host A sends a packet to server B. The two serial links use HDLC, while the rest are Ethernet. How many times does the packet experience re-encapsulation by a router?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

6

d)

4