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Pharm: Ticks & Parasites

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When I say tick you say __

a)

TET (tetracyclines)

b)

idk

2.

Which of the following are true regarding tetracyclines? (select all)

a)

MOA: inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit

b)

broad spectrum including gram + and -

c)

used to treat tick bites

d)

narrow spectrum

3.

Tetracycline adverse effects include

a)

tooth discoloration <8 years old

b)

crosses placenta affecting fetal bones and teeth

c)

photosensitivity

4.

Tetracyclines have impaired absorption if co-administered with:

a)

minerals

b)

antacids

c)

antihistamines

d)

antidepressants

5.

T/F: the most common tick-borne disease in the US is Lyme Disease

a)

true!

b)

false!

6.

Lyme Disease is caused by which tick

a)

ixodes tick (blacklegged deer tick)

b)

dermacentor (american dog tick)

c)

lone star tick

7.

Lyme Disease pathogen:

a)

Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete

b)

Rickettsia rickettsia, bacteria

c)

Enterobius vermicularis “thread worm”

8.

Early symptoms of Lyme Disease include

a)

rash (erythema migrans)

b)

fever

c)

headahce

d)

fatigue

e)

facial paralysis

9.

Late symptoms of Lyme Disease include

a)

facial paralysis & cognitive impairment (short term memory loss & somnolence)

b)

neck stiffness & meningitis

c)

arthritis & joint swelling

d)

spreading rash (erythema migrans)

e)

lyme carditis (palpitations, SOB, faiting)

10.

Can pain, fatigue, and difficulty thinking last more than 6 months after treatment of Lyme Disease?

a)

yes!

b)

no!

11.

Is there a proven treatment for post-treatment Lyme Disease?

a)

no!

b)

yes!

12.

Lyme Disease DOC:

a)

doxycycline

b)

topical permethrin

c)

nitromidazoles

13.

When treating Lyme Disease in pregnancy and pediatrics, which 2 are your best options:

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Cefuroxime

c)

Penicillin (macrolides)

14.

Treatments for Lyme Disease are:

a)

oral, 14-21 days

b)

oral 6-10 days

c)

IV 14-21 days

d)

oral 6-10 days

15.

Which is the most SEVERE tick-borne illness in the US

a)

Lyme Disease

b)

Rocky mountain spotted fever

c)

Alpha gal

16.

Rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF) pathogen:

a)

Rickettsia rickettsia, bacteria

b)

Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete

17.

Rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF) vector:

a)

Dermacentor, aka American Dog Tick (Wood Tick)

b)

Ixodes tick (blacklegged “deer” tick)

c)

lone star tick

18.

Pathogenesis: infects vascular endothelial cells --> damages cells --> blood leaks through holes in vessel wall --> results in RASH

a)

Lyme Disease

b)

RMSF

c)

Scabies

19.

Early symptoms of RMSF include:

a)

fever

b)

muscle pain

c)

severe headahce

d)

rash

e)

petechia

20.

Late symptoms of RMSF include:

a)

maculopapular rash (95%) after 72 hours

b)

petechia

21.

Treatment of RMSF DOC:

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Topical Permethrin

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Cefuroxime

22.

T/F: When treating RMSF in pregnancy and pediatrics, you can use Doxycycline

a)

yes!

b)

no!

23.

Lice treatment DOC:

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Topical Pyrethrins

c)

Amoxicillin

24.

Pyrethrins MOA:

a)

block nerve transmission, causing paralysis and death

b)

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit

c)

neuromuscular blocker leading to worm paralysis

25.

For BODY lice, treat with:

a)

PRESCRIPTION permethrin or oral ivermectin

b)

OTC permethrin or oral ivermectin

26.

Adverse effects of Pyrethrins

a)

dermatitis

b)

photosensitivity

c)

hepatotoxicity

27.

Scabies typically spares the _ and it usually worse during what part of the day:

a)

head ; night

b)

extremities ; night

c)

head ; day

d)

extremities ; night

28.

Is scabies pruritic?

a)

F yeah

b)

nah

29.

Scabies treatment DOC(s):

a)

Topical permethrin

b)

Oral permethrin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Oral ivermectin

30.

Oral ivermectin is a:

a)

antihelmenitic

b)

antiparasitic

c)

antimicrobial

31.

Ivermectin MOA:

a)

block nerve transmission, causing paralysis and death

b)

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit

c)

inhibits microtubule synthesis; decreases ATP leading to energy depletion, immobilization and worm death

32.

Should ivermectin be used in pregnancy & children <15kg?

a)

no!

b)

yeah

33.

Most common diseases associated with protozoal infections:

a)

Dysentery

b)

Malaria

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

Rheumatic fever

34.

Protozoans are single-cell organisms that infect the circulatory, GI and urogenital systems. They include:

a)

Trichomonas Vaginalis

b)

Trypanosoma Gambiense

c)

Giardia Intestinalis

d)

Leishmania Panamensis

35.

Protozoal routes of entry include:

a)

contaminated food

b)

contaminated water

c)

sexual intercourse

d)

mosquitos

e)

droplet

36.

Which protozoa are frequently responsible for producing dysentery in humans

a)

Girardia lamblia

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

37.

Which protozoa can cause additional GI damage because it invades the liver, creates and inflammatory reaction, and produces liver abscess

a)

Enatmoeba histolytica

b)

Giardia lamblia

38.

Which is true regarding Giardia lamblia?

a)

most common cause of waterborne disease in humans in the U.S.

b)

Transmitted fecal-oral route

c)

highly contagious and often seen in day-care settings

d)

killed by boiling

e)

causes diarrhea, greasy stools, cramps, vomiting

39.

Protozoal infection DOC:

a)

Nitromidazoles

b)

Doxycycline

c)

Pyrethrins

40.

Antidysenteric Drugs (Nitromidazoles) adverse effects include:

a)

Disulfiram reaction (with alcohol)

b)

nausea/vomiting

c)

metallic taste

d)

diarrhea

41.

Scabies (mites) under the skin are caused by:

a)

Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis

b)

Borrelia burgdorferi

c)

Rickettsia rickettsia

42.

Pinworm pathogen:

a)

Enterobius vermicularis “thread worm”

b)

Taenia

43.

T/F: Pinworm can be identified using the tape test

a)

true!

b)

false!

44.

Who is at highest risk for pinworm infections?

a)

school-aged children

b)

preschool-aged children

c)

household members

45.

Mode of transmission for pinworms

a)

fecal-oral

b)

contaminated food

c)

contaminated water

d)

mosquitos

46.

Pinworm treatment DOC:

a)

Albendazole

b)

Pyrantel pamoate

47.

Albendazole MOA:

a)

inhibits microtubule synthesis; decreases ATP leading to energy depletion, immobilization and worm death

b)

neuromuscular blocker leading to worm paralysis

c)

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit

48.

Pyrantel pamoate MOA:

a)

inhibits microtubule synthesis; decreases ATP leading to energy depletion, immobilization and worm death

b)

neuromuscular blocker leading to worm paralysis

c)

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunit

49.

Tapeworm pathogen:

a)

Taenia

b)

Enterobius vermicularis “thread worm”

50.

Tapeworm symptoms include:

a)

usually none

b)

maybe GI discomfort

c)

passing of tapeworm segments in stool

51.

Which contributes to the risk of acquiring a tapeworm infection?

a)

eating undercooked beef and pork

b)

eating raw vegetables

c)

drinking contaminated water

52.

Is tapeworm spread through a fecal-oral route?

a)

yes!

and pinworm

b)

no!

53.

Tapeworm treatment DOC:

a)

Praziquantel

b)

Pyrethrins

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Amoxicillin

54.

Praziquantel MOA:

a)

causes strong contractions and paralysis of worm musculature à detachment of suckers from the blood vessel walls and to dislodgement

b)

inhibits microtubule synthesis; decreases ATP leading to energy depletion, immobilization and worm death

c)

neuromuscular blocker leading to worm paralysis

55.

Are antihelmintic drugs generally tolerated well?

a)

yes

b)

no

56.

Adverse effects of antihelmintic drugs include:

a)

nausea

b)

fever

c)

headache

d)

cramp & diarrhea