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Worksheets

Super Final Test session FLP-4

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 5hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is incorrect about fructose:

a)

It is a keto-sugar

b)

It is a monosaccharide

c)

It is hexose sugar

d)

It has glycosidic bond

2.

Structure that is responsible for amoeboid movement is:

a)

Microtubules

b)

Microfilaments

c)

Intermediate filaments

d)

Centrioles

3.

Type of cells most appropriate to study lysosomes is:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Nerve cell

c)

Mesophyll cell

d)

Muscle cell

4.

The phage which causes lysogeny is called:

a)

Temperate phage

b)

Virulent phage

c)

Lytic phage

d)

Lambda phage

5.

It is the phase of rapid bacterial growth:

a)

Lag phase

b)

Log phase

c)

Stationary phase

d)

Death phase

6.

It is the first group of invertebrates which have developed a closed circulatory system:

a)

Nematoda

b)

Annelida

c)

Arthropoda

d)

Platyhelminthes

7.

Position of jaws in insects is:

a)

Dorsal

b)

Ventral

c)

Lateral

d)

Dorsolateral

8.

Which of the following is mismatched:

a)

Excretion – nephridia

b)

Gaseous transport – hemocyanin

c)

Alternation of generation– hydra

d)

Photoreception – compound eyes

9.

In terrestrial animals development of lungs necessitated changes in

a)

Circulatory system

b)

Integumentary

c)

Excretory

d)

Digestive system

10.

In photosynthesis, which is oxidized into oxygen:

a)

H2O

b)

CO2

c)

Light

d)

Glucose

11.

The equation of photosynthesis in green plants is exactly opposite to the equation of:

a)

Respiration

b)

Anaerobic respiration

c)

Aerobic respiration

d)

External respiration

12.

The start of swallowing is

a)

Involuntary

b)

Voluntary

c)

Uncontrolled

d)

Sympathetic

13.

Gastrin is a hormone produced from

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Stomach

d)

Stomach & Intestine

14.

Human lungs are spongy because of the presence of millions of

a)

Air sacs

b)

Capillaries

c)

Alveoli

d)

Bronchioles

15.

The simplest amino acid is

a)

Alanine

b)

Glycine

c)

Serine

d)

Valine

16.

Breakdown of alveoli occurs in

a)

Asthma

b)

Cancer

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Emphysema

17.

Pivot joint is formed between

a)

Radius, ulna & humerus

b)

Upper ends of radius & ulna

c)

Lower ends of radius & ulna

d)

Ulna & humerus

18.

Which of the following is an acute form of arthritis?

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Gouty arthritis

d)

Bacterial arthritis

19.

In which of the following muscle protein, polypeptides chains are more than two

a)

Myosin tail

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Troponin

d)

Myoglobin

20.

Human embryo is referred to as the fetus

a)

From the beginning of 3rd month of pregnancy

b)

From the end of 3rd month of pregnancy

c)

From the mid of 3rd month of pregnancy

d)

From the beginning of pregnancy

21.

At what level reduction division occurs during spermatogenesis

a)

Primary spermatogonium into secondary spermatogonium

b)

Secondary spermatogonium into primary spermatocyte

c)

Primary spermatocyte into secondary spermatocyte

d)

Secondary spermatocyte into spermatid

22.

Peptide bond formation is caused by

a)

Initiation factor

b)

Elongation factor

c)

Larger ribosomal subunit

d)

Smaller ribosomal subunit

23.

All of the following are stop codons except

a)

UAA

b)

UAG

c)

UGA

d)

UGG

24.

If the nucleus of human sperm contains 3.4 pg of DNA what mass of DNA of an actively dividing human skin cell is likely to contain at the end of inter phase?

a)

3.4 pg

b)

6.8 pg

c)

13.6 pg

d)

16.0 Pg

25.

Most critical phase of mitosis which ensures equal distribution of chromatids in the daughter cells is

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

26.

Tongue rolling is due to:

a)

Single recessive gene

b)

Single dominant gene

c)

Homozygous recessive alleles

d)

Homozygous dominant alleles

27.

Which of the following will be genotype of bald female?

a)

ABAB

b)

ABAb

c)

AbAb

d)

None of these

28.

Which type of following has equal chances both in male and female?

a)

Protanopia

b)

Deuteranopia

c)

Hemophilia C

d)

None of these

29.

Smaller unit of ribosomes in prokaryotes is of:

a)

30S

b)

40S

c)

50S

d)

60S

30.

Raw material needed for DNA replication and synthesis of RNA can be found in

a)

Nucleoplasm

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Stroma

d)

All a, b, c

31.

Vitamin A in human body is derived from break down of:

a)

Steroids

b)

Terpenoids

c)

Alpha-carotenes

d)

Beta-carotenes

32.

Patient of ________ mostly dies due to opportunistic infections:

a)

AIDS

b)

Malignant tumor

c)

Polio

d)

Hepatitis A

33.

Gastroenteritis, Dysentery, Cholera are caused by:

a)

Air borne bacteria

b)

Environment borne bacteria

c)

Water borne bacteria

d)

Bacteria invading skin

34.

A feature not present in euglenozoids:

a)

Possesses two flagella

b)

Some are autotrophs, others are heterotrophs

c)

Have flexible pellicle

d)

Earliest eukaryotes to form nucleus

35.

Intrinsic factor is a protein that helps:

a)

In ingestion of vitamin B12

b)

In production of pepsin

c)

In absorption of Vitamin B12

d)

In utilization of B12 in production of WBCs

36.

Least Blood pressure can be seen in ________ among following:

a)

Aorta

b)

Capillaries

c)

Veins

d)

Vena cava

37.

A stroke may result in:

a)

Paralysis of half side of body

b)

Paralysis of both legs

c)

Death of individual

d)

All a, b, c

38.

Essential or primary hypertension means:

a)

Hypertension that occurs in all humans

b)

No medical cause is found to explain it

c)

Occurs in early ages

d)

There is no treatment or management for it

39.

Total number of bones present in both upper and lower limbs are:

a)

28

b)

80

c)

64

d)

120

40.

Hyperpolarization after repolarization of a nerve fiber occurs due to:

a)

Efflux of K+

b)

Excessive efflux of K+

c)

Efflux of Na+

d)

Excessive efflux of Na+

41.

Function of prolactin in females is to:

a)

Causes enlargement of mammary glands

b)

Preparation for lactation

c)

Stop menstrual cycle

d)

All (a), (b), (c)

42.

Uterus is not involved in:

a)

Nourishing a fertilized ovum

b)

Reception and retention of fertilized ovum

c)

Production of progesterone

d)

Storing of unfertilized ovum

43.

Function of umbilical cord is to:

a)

Produce progesterone hormone

b)

Attaches placenta with mother

c)

Attaches placenta with embryo

d)

Prevention of harmful substances into embryo

44.

How much %age of CO2 in blood is carried in combination with proteins?

a)

70%

b)

5%

c)

25%

d)

20%

45.

The amount of CO2 carried by pulmonary artery is:

a)

50 ml/100 ml blood

b)

4 ml/100 ml blood

c)

54 ml/100 ml blood

d)

20 ml//100 ml blood

46.

Exchange of gases during organismic respiration is always through:

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

20 ml//100 ml blood

47.

Liver is not involved in synthesis of:

a)

Prothrombin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Albumin

d)

Renin

48.

Which of the following blood vessels will have more urea as compared to others?

a)

Hepatic artery

b)

Hepatic vein

c)

Hepatic portal vein

d)

Renal vein

49.

Transplant rejection is an example of:

a)

Cell mediated response

b)

Inflammatory response

c)

Humoral immune response

d)

Phagocytic response

50.

DNA present inside nucleolus is involved in the formation of:

a)

rRNA

b)

cDNA

c)

tRNA

d)

mRNA

51.

Cilia formation in a cell is the function of:

a)

Cell membrane

b)

Centrioles

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Mitochondria

52.

Lysosomes are believed to originate from:

a)

SER

b)

Golgi complex

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Food vacuole

53.

All of the following are aldo sugars except:

a)

Ribose

b)

Galactose

c)

Glucose

d)

Fructose

54.

During Kreb’s cycle, malonic acid acts as ________ inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase:

a)

Competitive irreversible

b)

Non-competitive irreversible

c)

Competitive reversible

d)

Non-competitive reversible

55.

Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be hydrolyzed?

a)

Galactose

b)

Maltose

c)

Starch

d)

Cellulose

56.

Most abundant protein in human body is:

a)

Albumin

b)

Collagen

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Myosin

57.

Choline is an example of:

a)

Polysaccharide

b)

Terpenoid

c)

Phospholipid

d)

Nitrogenous base

58.

All are true about waxes except:

a)

Present in exoskeleton of insects

b)

Provide water barrier for birds

c)

Mixtures of long chain alkanes

d)

Source of high amount of energy

59.

During translation, UAA is recognized by:

a)

Release factor

b)

Elongation factor

c)

Aminoacyl-tRNA

d)

tRNA

60.

During transcription, RNA polymerase binds at:

a)

Replication fork

b)

Start codon

c)

Primer site

d)

Promoter site

61.

In small pox, cells affected by virus are:

a)

Epithelial cells

b)

Endothelial cells

c)

Muscle cells

d)

Nerve cells

62.

CV-I complex is formed during Gram staining in:

a)

Mycoplasmas

b)

Gram positive

c)

Gram negative

d)

Archeobacteria

63.

Hyphae of Rhizopus are:

a)

Aseptate, Uninucleate

b)

Septate, Multinucleate

c)

Septate, Binucleate

d)

Aseptate, Multinucleate

64.

Structures for attachment in Fasciola are:

a)

Hooks

b)

Stylets

c)

Suckers

d)

Rhizoids

65.

_________ is a good example of polymorphism:

a)

Hydra

b)

Star fish

c)

Obelia

d)

Euplectella

66.

During dark reactions of photosynthesis, it acts as reducing power:

a)

ATP

b)

NADPH

c)

H2O

d)

G3P

67.

Oxidative phosphorylation uses ______ and produces ________:

a)

Oxygen, Carbon dioxide

b)

NADPH, ATP

c)

Oxygen, ATP

d)

Carbon dioxide, NADH

68.

Which of the following blood group in humans is an example of co-dominance?

a)

A

b)

AB

c)

B

d)

O

69.

The product obtained at the anode during the electrolysis of an aq. H2SO4 is

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Sulphur dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

No product is formed

70.

How many neutrons are present in 0.13g of 613_6^{13}   C

a)

0.06 NA

b)

0.13NA

c)

0.07 NA

d)

0.7 NA

71.

Boiling points of different substances are given below

CH4 = - 161 oC C2H6 = -89 oC Cl2 = -34.6 oC F2 = -188 oC

The data shows that vapour pressure is of the order

a)

Cl2 > C2H6 > CH4 > F2

b)

Cl2 > F2 > CH4 > C2H6

c)

C2H6 > CH4 > F2 > Cl2

d)

F2 > CH4 > C2H6 > Cl2

72.

The number of vacant orbitals in the valence shell of an atom of element with Z=14 is

a)

1

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

73.

The most easily oxidizable specie among following is

a)

Ca

b)

Al

c)

F2

d)

H2

74.

The number of gram molecules of oxygen in 6.02 × 1024 CO molecules is

a)

8 gm molecules

b)

5 gm molecules

c)

1 gm molecules

d)

2 gm molecules

75.

The least acidic alcohol is

a)

Propanol

b)

Ethanol

c)

Methanol

d)

n-Butanol

76.

Which of the following produces carboxylic acid when reacted with alkene

a)

Cold KMnO4

b)

Hot KMnO4

c)

LiAlH4

d)

K2Cr2O7

77.

Which of the following is the weakest acid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
78.

75% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 min-When was 50% of the reaction completed

a)

16min

b)

8 min

c)

24 min

d)

4 min

79.

Which liquid will boil at lower temperature

a)

Acetic acid

b)

Acetone

c)

Water

d)

Ethanol

80.

The best application of common ion effect is to produce

a)

Un-saturated solution

b)

Concentrated solution

c)

Buffer solution

d)

Saturated solution

81.

Which of the following statement is correct for endothermic reactions?

a)

Internal energy of reactant greater Product

b)

Product at low energy than reactant

c)

Reactant are less stable than product

d)

All are in correct

82.

Which statement is not correct about CH3COOH

a)

Its dilute solution is called vinegar

b)

It can be oxidized very easily

c)

Its pure form is called glacial acetic acid

d)

It is stronger acid than phenol

83.

Consider the following reaction:

R-CHO + 2[Ag(NH3)2]OH \rightarrow  RCOONH4 + 2Ag + 2NH3 + H2O

this reaction represents which of the following tests

a)

Ninhydrin test

b)

Fehling test

c)

Tollen’s test

d)

Benedict test

84.

Dimer of acetic acid in benzene has _______ number of carbon atoms in ring

a)

0

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

85.

The following is a part of primary structure of a natural polymer

The functional groups present in the structure is / are

a)

Thiol and amino groups

b)

Amide and amino groups

c)

Amino, thiol and formyl groups

d)

Amide, thiol and amino groups

86.

How many grams of sodium metal are used with ethanoic acid to form half mole of H2 gas

a)

12

b)

23

c)

46

d)

24

87.

Preparation of aspirin is 80% efficient reaction, if actual yield is 16g. The theoretical

yield should be

a)

8g

b)

16g

c)

20g

d)

12g

88.

The sub-shell in which n = 3 and l = 1, then how many electron can be accommodated in an orbital of this subshell

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

89.

Which of the following molecule has largest number of shared pair electrons?

a)

NH3

b)

CO2

c)

C2H4

d)

N2

90.

The reactivity of the IIA metals generally increases with

a)

Increasing atomic radius

b)

Increasing shielding effect

c)

Increasing atomic number

d)

All of the above

91.

The optimum temperature and pressure during Haber’s process are

a)

673K, 200-300 atm

b)

673°C, 200-300atm

c)

400K, 200-300atm

d)

673K, 2–3 atm

92.

Halogenation of alkene is an example of

a)

Electrophilic substitution

b)

Electrophilic Addition

c)

Free radical substitution

d)

Nu-substitution

93.

The compound in which carbon uses only its sp3 hybrid carbon for bond formation is

a)

HCOOH

b)

(CH3)3 COH

c)

(NH2)2CO

d)

(CH3)3 CHO

94.

How many non-typical transition elements are present in 3d series

a)

Zero

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Three

95.

In CH3CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is

a)

O – H

b)

C – H

c)

C – O

d)

C – C

96.

Enzymes are of great biological importance and are of great help in the diagnosis of certain diseases. Which of the following enzyme is raised in heart diseases.

a)

L-Asparaginase

b)

Phosphatase

c)

LDH-1

d)

Alkaline phosphates

97.

In Boyle’s law, the value of ‘k’ depends on

a)

Pressure

b)

Volume

c)

Temperature

d)

All of these

98.

The strongest H-bond is present among the molecules of which of the following

substance

a)

Water

b)

Ammonia

c)

Ethanol

d)

Hydrogen fluoride

99.

Which one of the following is an example of polar molecular solid

a)

Sucrose

b)

Dry ice

c)

Naphthalene

d)

Iodine

100.

A + 2B \rightarrow  Product Rate = k [A] [B]2 When [A]= [B] = 0.1M and rate of reaction is

2.4×10–3mol dm–3 sec–1. The rate constant ‘k’ will be

a)

2.4×10–3

b)

2.4

c)

2.4×10–1

d)

2.4×10–3

101.

In lithium, valence electron is screened from the nucleus by

a)

1 shell

b)

1 sub-shell

c)

1 orbital

d)

All of these

102.

Highest occupied orbitals in potassium is

a)

Spherical

b)

Dumb-bell

c)

Sausage

d)

Complicated

103.

During the manufacture of nitric acid, nitric oxide is oxidized to nitrogen dioxide. This reaction is given as

According to Le Chatelier’s Principle

a)

Reaction must not be temperature dependent

b)

Reaction must be carried out at room temperature

c)

Reaction must be carried out at low temperature

d)

Reaction must be carried out at high temperature

104.

A spontaneous process is:

a)

Unidirectional and irreversible

b)

Unidirectional and real

c)

Irreversible and real

d)

All of these

105.

Study the following redox reaction:

10Cl-+16H++2MnO 4_4^-   \rightarrow  5Cl2+2Mn+2+8H2O

Which statement is true about this reaction?

a)

Manganese is oxidized from +7 to +2

b)

Chlorine is reduced from zero to -1

c)

Chloride ions are reduced from -1 to zero

d)

Manganese is reduced from +7 to +2

106.

According to electrochemical series which one will act as anode (preferably)

a)

Cu

b)

Sn

c)

Ag

d)

Pb

107.

Which of the following is correct graph for variation in electron affinity values

a)
b)
c)
d)
108.

VSEPR theory explains shapes and geometries of molecule. The superiority of VBT on VSEPR is

a)

VBT explains paramagnetic behaviour of certain molecules

b)

VBT explains shapes of molecules more accurately

c)

VBT explains the coordinate covalent bond formation

d)

VBT also explains the reason for bond formation

109.

The distillation which is carried out under reduced pressure is called as

a)

Pressure distillation

b)

Reduced distillation

c)

Vacuum distillation

d)

Low boiling distillation

110.

Lattice energy decrease when:

a)

Charge to size ratio increases

b)

Charge to size ratio decrease

c)

Charge increases

d)

Size decreases

111.

Classification of solids is based upon the arrangement of

a)

Molecules

b)

Atoms

c)

Ions

d)

All of these

112.

A very small value of Kc depicts

a)

No reaction

b)

Backward reaction

c)

Little forward reaction

d)

Complete reaction

113.

The change in volume depends on:

a)

Path of reaction

b)

Initial and final states

c)

Initial state reaction

d)

Final state

114.

Which of the following condition is constant in bomb calorimeter?

a)

Volume

b)

Temperature

c)

Pressure

d)

All of these

115.

Oxalato form a ________atom ring

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

16

116.

[Pt(H2O)3 (NH3)3]has structure

a)

Linear

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Octahedral

d)

Tetrahedral

117.

Which of the following does not react with bases?

a)

Ethanol

b)

Carboxylic acids

c)

Phenol

d)

HCl

118.

In IUPAC nomenclature, aldehydes are named as ___________?

a)

Alkaldehyde

b)

Alkanone

c)

Alkanol

d)

Alkanal

119.

Regular coiling and twisting of polypeptide chain caused by H-bonding in between NH and CO occurs __________.

a)

Primary structure

b)

Secondary structure

c)

Tertiary structure

d)

Quaternary structure

120.

Which enzyme is raised in rickets:

a)

Alkaline phosphatase

b)

LDH-1

c)

Acidic phosphatase

d)

None

121.

How do the ‘p’ orbitals px, py, pz differ from each other

a)

Size

b)

Shape

c)

Orientation

d)

Capacity

122.

In aldol condensation carbanion acts as

a)

Electrophilic

b)

Nucleophile

c)

Acid

d)

Base

123.

In which process the entire of heat supplied to the gas in converted to the internal energy of the gas?

a)

Isochoric process

b)

Isobaric process

c)

Isothermal process

d)

Adiabatic process

124.

At what angle of projection of a projectile the range becomes half of its maximum value?

a)

15o

b)

20o

c)

30o

d)

40o

125.

Ohm times farad is equivalent to:

a)

Charge

b)

Time

c)

Capacitance

d)

Distance

126.

The force between two charges Q and q separated by a distance d is F. What will be the force between 4Q and q/2?

a)

F

b)

F/2

c)

2F

d)

4F

127.

A stationary wave is formed in a pipe which is open at both ends. If two complete loops are formed and the wavelength of the wave is 10 cm, what is the length of the pipe?

a)

5 cm

b)

10 cm

c)

15 cm

d)

20 cm

128.

For skin cancer is used:

a)

Phosphorus-32

b)

Strontium-90

c)

Iodine-131

d)

May A or B

129.

The angular displacement covered by hour hand of a clock while moving from 12 O'clock to 7 O'clock is:

a)

90°

b)

135°

c)

175°

d)

210°

130.

A charge particle is allowed to pass through a region of magnetic field B\overrightarrow{B}   such that its velocity makes 90° with B\overrightarrow{B}   , then it will:

a)

Follow a circular path

b)

Gain no energy as FB does no work

c)

Experience maximum magnetic force

d)

All of these

131.

Which of the following effect is observed due to emission of β- during the phenomenon radioactivity?

a)

A increases by 1 and Z remain same

b)

Z increases by 1 and A remains same

c)

Z decreases by 1 and A remains same

d)

A decreases by 1 and Z remains same

132.

The angular velocity of spin motion of earth is:

a)

π/12 rev min-1

b)

π/4 rev min-1

c)

π/6 rad hr-1

d)

π/12 rad hr-1

133.

In the following charging curve of capacitor what does the slope represent?

a)

Capacitance

b)

Current passing

c)

Charge stored

d)

Voltage

134.

A source initially contains No nuclei of a radioactive nuclide. How many of these nuclei have decayed after a time interval of five half-lives?

a)

No/16

b)

No/32

c)

15No/16

d)

31No/32

135.

An object is moving with a velocity of 20 m s-1 such that a constant force acts on it of 7.5 N. What must be the power developed in this case?

a)

2.7 W

b)

5.8 W

c)

150 W

d)

300 W

136.

Which material has positive temperature coefficient of resistivity?

a)

Carbon

b)

Tungsten

c)

Germanium

d)

Silicon

137.

A half-wave rectifier is being used to rectify an alternating voltage of frequency 60 Hz. The number of pulses of rectified current obtained in two seconds are:

a)

30

b)

60

c)

120

d)

240

138.

In a pipe open at both ends we have:

a)

Node at one end and Anti-node at other

b)

Anti-nodes at both ends

c)

Nodes at both ends

d)

Can’t be predicted

139.

A 10 cm long solenoid has 100 turns. What will be the magnetic fields inside it along its axis if one micro ampere current is passed through it?

a)

4 π x 10-13 tesla

b)

4 π x 10-7 tesla

c)

4 π x 10-10 tesla

d)

4 π x 10-16 tesla

140.

Which one is not the effect of low-level radiation?

a)

Loss of hair

b)

Eye cataracts

c)

Ulceration

d)

Drop in white blood cells

141.

Which one of the following properties is not exhibited by the longitudinal waves?

a)

Interference

b)

Reflection

c)

Diffraction

d)

Polarization

142.

If we drop an object, its initial velocity is zero. How far will it fall in time ‘t’?

a)

9.8 t2

b)

4.9 t2

c)

0.49 t2

d)

98 t2

143.

Force acting on a positive charge is always:

a)

In the direction opposite to electric field

b)

In the direction perpendicular to electric field

c)

In the direction of electric field

d)

In the direction perpendicular to velocity of charge

144.

10 Wh is equal to:

a)

3.6 x 108 J

b)

3.6 MJ

c)

3.6 kJ

d)

3.6 x 104 J

145.

If E1 is the electric field near an infinite charged sheet and E2 is the electric field between two oppositely charged plates then which statement is correct?

a)

E1 = E2

b)

E1 = 2E2

c)

E1 = 1/2E2

d)

E1 = 1/4E2

146.

The basic working principle of an A.C generator is:

a)

To convert light energy into electrical energy

b)

To convert electrical energy into mechanical energy

c)

Mutual induction

d)

Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction

147.

Which of the following is uniform deceleration graph?

a)
b)
c)
d)
148.

1st law of thermodynamics in case of isobaric process is:

a)

CPΔT = PΔV

b)

CPΔT = CVΔT + PΔV

c)

CVΔT = CPΔT + PΔV

d)

CPΔT = CVΔT - PΔV

149.

Which statement is incorrect about two points “A” & “B” present on a spinning body having unequal distances from axis of rotation?

a)

Both points have same angular acceleration

b)

Both points have same axis of rotation

c)

Both points have different velocity

d)

Both points have same acceleration

150.

According to Lenz’s law the direction of induced current is such that it:

a)

Decreases flux if it is increasing

b)

Opposes the cause which produces it

c)

Increases flux if it is decreasing

d)

All of these

151.

When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from second orbit to first orbit then energy of photon emitted is:

a)

13.6 eV

b)

10.2 eV

c)

3.4 eV

d)

10.2 V

152.

Electric field lines emerge from the charges in dimensions and number of lines could be drawn:

a)

Two, infinite

b)

Two, finite

c)

Three, infinite

d)

Three, finite

153.

An ideal step-down transformer is the one which:

a)

Increases voltage level

b)

Increases current level

c)

Decreases power level

d)

Decreases frequency level

154.

An object is dropped from rest. Which of the following four graphs correctly represents its motion?

a)
b)
c)
d)
155.

A billiard ball moving with a speed of 5 m s-1 collides with an identical ball originally at rest. If the first ball stops after collision, then the second ball will move forward with a speed of:

a)

10 m s-1

b)

2.5 m s-1

c)

5 m s-1

d)

1.0 m s-1

156.

The power of pump, which can pump 200 kg of water to a height of 50 m in 10 sec will be:

a)

10×103 W

b)

4×103 W

c)

20×103 W

d)

60×103 W

157.

A 100 kg car is moving with a maximum velocity of 9 m s-1 across a circular track of radius 30 m. The maximum force of friction between the road and the car is:

a)

200 N

b)

270 N

c)

706 N

d)

1000 N

158.

A sound source is moving towards a stationary observer with 1/10th of the speed of sound. The ratio of apparent to real frequency is:

a)

10/9

b)

11/10

c)

(11/10)2

d)

(9/10)2

159.

The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is:

a)

Infinite

b)

Negative

c)

Zero

d)

Remains constant

160.

A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. The amount of work done by the gas is greatest when the expansion is:

a)

Isothermal

b)

Isobaric

c)

Adiabatic

d)

None of these

161.

An ordinary light bulb is marked 120 W, 120 V. Its resistance is:

a)

60 Ω

b)

120 Ω

c)

180 Ω

d)

240 Ω

162.

In the diagram, the current in the 2 Ω resistor is 2 A. The potential difference between points 1 and 2 is:

a)

4 V

b)

1.25 V

c)

12 V

d)

10 V

163.

A loss free transformer has 500 turns on its primary winding and 2500 in secondary. The meters of the secondary indicate 200 V at 8 A under these conditions. The voltage and current in the primary is:

a)

100 V, 16 A

b)

160 V, 10 A

c)

40 V, 40 A

d)

80 V, 20 A

164.

If the line frequency is 50 Hz, the output ripple frequency of bridge rectifier is:

a)

50 Hz

b)

100 Hz

c)

150 Hz

d)

200 Hz

165.

When yellow light is incident on a surface, no electrons are emitted while green light can emit. If red light is incident on the surface, then:

a)

No electrons are emitted

b)

Photons are emitted

c)

Electrons of higher energy are emitted

d)

Electrons of lower energy are emitted

166.

Which of the following has greatest energy content?

a)

20 photons of red-light

b)

20 photons of green light

c)

20 photons of orange light

d)

20 photons of yellow light

167.

The Lyman transition involve:

a)

Largest changes of potential energy

b)

Smallest changes of potential energy

c)

Smallest changes of total energy

d)

Largest changes of total energy

168.

Which of the following is/are correct?

a)

Iodine is absorbed by the thyroid gland

b)

Phosphorus and strontium are absorbed by bones

c)

Cobalt is absorbed by liver

d)

All of these

169.

A body under the action of several forces will have zero acceleration:

a)

When the body is very light

b)

When the body is very heavy

c)

When the body is a point body

d)

When the vector sum of all the forces acting on it is zero

170.

A body of mass m having an initial velocity v, makes head on collision with a stationary body of mass M. After the collision, the body of mass m comes to rest and only the body having mass M moves. This will happen only when:

a)

m >> M

b)

m = M

c)

m << M

d)

m = 1/2M

171.

Two springs have their force constant as k1 and k2(k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same force:

a)

No work is done in case of both the springs

b)

Equal work is done in case of both the springs

c)

More work is done in case of second spring

d)

More work is done in case of first spring

172.

If momentum is increased by 20%, then K.E increases by:

a)

44%

b)

66%

c)

55%

d)

77%

173.

When a gas expands adiabatically:

a)

No energy is required for expansion

b)

Energy is required and it comes from the wall of the container of the gas

c)

Internal energy of the gas is used in doing work

d)

Law of conservation of energy does not hold

174.

An isolated charged point particle produces an electric field with magnitude E at a point 2 m away. At a point 1 m from the particle the magnitude of the field is:

a)

2E

b)

4E

c)

E/2

d)

E/4

175.

In a coil of self-inductance 0.5 henry, the current varies at a constant rate from zero to 10 amperes in 2 seconds. The e.m.f. generated in the coil is:

a)

10 volts

b)

2.5 volts

c)

5 volts

d)

1.25 volts

176.

If no external voltage is applied across PN-junction, there would be:

a)

No electric field across the junction

b)

An electric field pointing from N-type to P-type side across the junction

c)

An electric field pointing from P-type to N-type side across the junction

d)

A temporary electric field during formation of PN-junction that would subsequently disappear

177.

Spot the error:

The whole block of flats including two shops were destroyed in fire.

a)

The whole block of flats

b)

including two shops

c)

were destroyed

d)

in fire

178.

Spot the error:

The strain of all the difficulties, vexations and anxieties were more than he could beat.

a)

The strain

b)

all the difficulties, vexations and anxieties

c)

were

d)

more than he could beat

179.

Spot the error:

He asked me whether either of the applicants were suitable.

a)

whether

b)

either

c)

the applicants

d)

were

180.

Spot the error:

Their military headquarters were located at the Hotel Regina in Paris.

a)

Their military

b)

headquarters

c)

were

d)

at the Hotel Regina

181.

Spot the error:

If you would follow my tips, you would definitely pass the entrance test.

a)

would follow

b)

would

c)

definitely

d)

pass

182.

Spot the error:

My mother cooked food, laying the table, and cleaned the house before the guests arrived.

a)

cooked food,

b)

laying the table

c)

cleaned the house

d)

the guests arrived

183.

Choose the correct statement.

a)

Even though she didn’t like pepperoni, she still eats the pizza.

b)

Even though she didn’t like pepperoni, she still ate the pizza.

c)

Even though she didn’t like pepperoni, yet she still ate the pizza.

d)

Despite she didn’t like pepperoni, she still ate the pizza.

184.

Choose the correct statement.

a)

Mike Tyson is feared because he can fall his opponent with a single blow.

b)

Mike Tyson is feared because he can befall his opponent with a single blow.

c)

Mike Tyson is feared because he can fell his opponent with a single blow.

d)

Mike Tyson is feared because of the reason he can fall his opponent with single blow.

185.

Choose the correct statement.

a)

The new dress code forced the students wear different shoes.

b)

The new dress cod forced the students to wear different shoes.

c)

The new dress code forced the students to wearing different shoes.

d)

The new dress code forced the students to wear different shoes.

186.

Choose the correct statement.

a)

Nafud sands, too, are tufted in many places with bushes or small trees, and after the winter rains they produce excellent pasture.

b)

The Nafud sand, too, are tufted in many places with bushes or small trees, and after the winter rains they produce excellent pasture.

c)

The Nafud sands, too, are tufted in many places with bushes or small trees, and after the winter rains they produce excellent pasture.

d)

The Nafud sands, too, are tufted in many places with bushes or small trees, and after the winter rains they produce an excellent pasture.

187.

I sent a letter to my brother. The underlined verb is a/an:

a)

Monotransitive verb

b)

Ditransitive verb

c)

Causative

d)

Linking verb 

188.

The following items have one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives.                        Complete the sentence by the correct alternative:

Q.  It is not that I do not take decision, __________________.

a)

I decide not to take a decision.

b)

I do not decide a decision.

c)

I had not taken a decision.

d)

I decide I would not have taken a decision.

189.

The following items have one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives.                        Complete the sentence by the correct alternative:

Q. If I were in your position, _______________.

a)

I had been accepting this compensation.

b)

I would not accept this compensation.

c)

I would not have been accepting this compensation

d)

Should I not accept the compensation

190.

The following items have one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives.                        Complete the sentence by the correct alternative:

Q.  Where there is a will, ______________.

a)

There should be a way.

b)

There is a way.

c)

There would be a way.

d)

They may have been a way.

191.

The following items have one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives.                        Complete the sentence by the correct alternative:

Q. It is getting dark, ______________.

a)

Must I turn on the lights?

b)

Should I be turning on the lights?

c)

May I be turning on the lights?

d)

Can I turn on the lights?

192.

You look ill. The underlined word is a/an:

a)

Noun

b)

Adjective

c)

Adverb

d)

None

193.

Try to knock the case over. The underlined word is a/an:

a)

Preposition

b)

Conjunction

c)

Adjective

d)

Adverb

194.

Change the voice:

His subordinates accused him of various offences.

a)

He was accused of various offences by his subordinates.

b)

He was accused various offences by his subordinates.

c)

He was accused with various offences by his subordinates

d)

He was accused of various offences from his subordinates.

195.

W-144,? , S-100, Q-81, O-64

a)

U-121

b)

U-122

c)

V-121

d)

V-128

196.

Statements:

Some blankets are beds. Some pillows are blankets. All beds are pillows.

Conclusions:

I. Some blankets are pillows.

II. Some pillows are beds.

III. Some beds are blankets.

a)

Only I

b)

Only II

c)

Only II and III

d)

I, II and III

197.

 Read the following information and answers the question. given below it.

(i) Amna is older than Sanya.

(ii) Muskan is elder than Amna but younger than Kashmala.

(iii) Kashmala is elder than Sanya.

(iv) Sanya is younger than Muskan.

(v) Gulrukh is the eldest.

Q. Who is the youngest?

a)

Kashmala

b)

Amna

c)

Muskan

d)

Sanya

198.

Indian granite industry is in peril in the absence of a uniform policy from the State Governments, despite the thrust given by liberalization policies of the Union Government in the last two years. Compared to the remarkable progress in the field during the last three years, the absence of matching policies by State Governments had put granite quarry owners and others involved in the industry on the verge of collapse in the international market. The policies differed from state to state, had created problems as far as loyalty, dead rent and duration of lease were concerned.

Till three years ago. granite production in India was not profitable

Mark your answer as:

a)

Definitely false

b)

Data inadequate

c)

Probably true

d)

Probably false

e)

Definitely true

199.

Statement:

There is a shortage of power in Pakistan.

Courses of Action

I. There should be more power projects initiated by the government.

II. The government should encourage private investment in power projects.

a)

If only I is most appropriate

b)

If only II is most appropriate

c)

If either I or II is most appropriate

d)

If neither I nor II is most appropriate

e)

If both I and II are most appropriate

200.

I. It is the aim of the city's civic authority to get the air pollution reduced by 20% in the next two months.

II. The number of asthma cases in the city is constantly increasing.

a)

If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

b)

If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c)

If Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d)

If Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e)

If Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause