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Worksheets

Super Final Test session FLP-5

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 4hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most of the proteins are made of:

a)

170 amino acids

b)

20 amino acids

c)

25 amino acids

d)

None of these

2.

In nucleic acids, nitrogen base is attached at position ______ of pentose sugar

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

3.

First genome of Microbe which was completely sequenced was that of:

a)

Influenza virus

b)

Haemophilus Influenzae

c)

Yeast

d)

Morchella esculenta

4.

Which of the following are the least slender?

a)

Micro filaments

b)

Intermediate filaments

c)

Microtubules

d)

All of these

5.

Overall thickness of gram positive cell wall is:

a)

8-11 nm

b)

20-80 nm

c)

90-100 nm

d)

120-180 nm

6.

Which of the following parasites is not present in blood of humans?

a)

Trypanosoma

b)

Ancylostoma

c)

Plasmodium

d)

Schistosoma

7.

Amphibians and reptiles differ in one of these respects:

a)

Cold blooded nature

b)

Terrestrial mode of life

c)

Formation of amnion, allantois & chorion

d)

Being tetrapods

8.

Bats have wings like birds but are placed in the class Mammalia because of :

a)

Pinnae

b)

Hairs

c)

Mammary glands

d)

All a, b, c

9.

___________ are the most abundant organic compound in a cell :

a)

Water

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

10.

The optimum pH for enterokinase is:

a)

2

b)

4.80

c)

5.50

d)

9.7

11.

An enzyme without its co-factor is called :

a)

Holoenzyme

b)

Apoenzyme

c)

Co-enzyme

d)

Activator

12.

Malonic acid is the competitive inhibitor of :

a)

Fumaric acid

b)

Succinic acid

c)

Succinic acid dehydrogenase

d)

Both “b” & “c”

13.

The most effective protection against viral infection is :

a)

Disinfectants

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Natural immunity of host

d)

Both “a” & “b”

14.

All of the following are viruses except:

a)

Vaccinia

b)

Orf

c)

Rhizobium

d)

Picoma

15.

Which of the following is/are organelle of symbiotic origin?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Both “b” & “c”

16.

The one, which is involved in cyclic photophosphorylation:

a)

Production of NADPH

b)

Generation of ATP

c)

Both a & b

d)

None of these

17.

Lactic acid production is result of:

a)

Aerobic respiration

b)

Anaerobic respiration in plants

c)

Anaerobic respiration in yeast

d)

Anaerobic respiration in animals

18.

Photorespiration decreases growth in plants which show:

a)

C1 pathway

b)

C2 pathway

c)

C3 pathway

d)

C4 pathway

19.

Protonephridia are the excretory structures of:

a)

Annelids

b)

Platyhelminthes

c)

Mollusca

d)

All of these

20.

Cerebellum is best developed in:

a)

Reptiles

b)

Birds

c)

Mammals

d)

Amphibians

21.

Syphilis is caused by:

a)

Gram positive Neisseria gonorrhoeae

b)

Herpes simplex type II virus

c)

Spirochete Treponema pallidum

d)

HIV

22.

Morphological characteristics of chromosomes are collectively called:

a)

Cytotype

b)

Karyotype

c)

Karyokinesis

d)

Specification

23.

In higher plants:

a)

Spindle fibers are not formed

b)

Spindle fibers arise from centrioles

c)

Spindle fibers radiate from cytoplasmic region analogous to centrioles

d)

Spindle fibers also include astral fibers

24.

Darwin’s theory, as presented in “The Origin of Species” is mainly concerned with:

a)

How new species arise?

b)

The origin of life

c)

How extinction occurs?

d)

The genetics of evolution

25.

Diseases in living organisms which are caused by parasites are called:

a)

Pathogenicity

b)

Infestation

c)

Virulence

d)

Infection

26.

Cellophane is an industrial made partially permeable membrane formed from:

a)

Lignin

b)

Proteins

c)

Polysaccharides

d)

Lipids

27.

Site of fatty acid metabolism in our cells is:

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

28.

Excessive intake of which of the following may cause myocardial infarction:

a)

Saturated lipids

b)

Unsaturated lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Cellulose

29.

FAD is a coenzyme that is derived from vitamin

a)

A

b)

B12

c)

B2

d)

K

30.

Net yield of ATPs during complete aerobic breakdown of glucose in eukaryotic cells is:

a)

40

b)

38

c)

36

d)

2

31.

Choking is a reflex action in which:

a)

Swallowing of food occurs

b)

Air expelled forcefully through larynx to expel entered food in trachea

c)

Food enters into trachea

d)

Antiperistalsis occurs to expel poisonous food from stomach

32.

A disease in which body produces inappropriate immune response against own tissues is called:

a)

AIDS

b)

Rheumatic fever

c)

SCID

d)

Auto immune disease

33.

Wall of alveoli is made up of:

a)

Smooth muscles

b)

Cartilaginous rings

c)

Moist squamous epithelium

d)

Moist endothelium

34.

Breathing center of medulla communicates with diaphragm via:

a)

Intercostal nerves

b)

Phrenic nerve

c)

Optic nerve

d)

Vagus nerve

35.

Micturition reflex is act of:

a)

Emptying the bladder

b)

Emptying the rectum

c)

Speeded peristalsis

d)

None of these

36.

Bone cells which are acting just like circulating macrophages are:

a)

Osteocytes

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Chondrocytes

37.

Spores of Clostridium tetani may enter in our body via:

a)

Inhaling air

b)

Food and drinks

c)

Soil particles into wounds

d)

Shaking hands with patient

38.

Receptors for equilibrium are located in:

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Skin

c)

Nose

d)

Ears

39.

Our voluntary movements will become jerky and shaky if _______ part of brain is destroyed:

a)

Cerebral

b)

Thalamic

c)

Cerebellar

d)

Medullary

40.

An anti-diabetic hormone is:

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Cortisol

d)

Growth hormone

41.

Spermiogenesis is process of conversion of:

a)

Spermatogonia into primary spermatocyte

b)

Spermatids into sperms

c)

Primary spermatocyte into sperms

d)

Primary spermatocytes into spermatids

42.

Which of the following component of plasma membrane of neuron is involved in active transport?

a)

Calcium pump

b)

Sodium gate

c)

Sodium potassium pump

d)

Potassium gate

43.

Cellulase enzyme is produced by all of following organisms except:

a)

Yeast

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

d)

Herbivores

44.

Most common stored fats in our body belong to which group of lipids:

a)

Acylglycerols

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Steroids

d)

Glycolipids

45.

In a normal laboratory reaction substance A is being converted to substance B. What change will occur in reaction, if we add respective enzyme in it:

a)

Quality of B will be increased

b)

Production of B will be increased

c)

A will form C

d)

No activation energy will be needed now for reaction

46.

One who believed on divine creation was:

a)

Cuvier

b)

Darwin

c)

Carlous Linnaeus

d)

Lyell

47.

Which of the following organism has undergone least evolutionary changes?

a)

Galapagos finches

b)

Amoebic bacteria

c)

Prokaryotic cell

d)

Archaeobacteria

48.

All of the following are associated glands of alimentary canal except:

a)

Salivary glands

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gastric glands

d)

Liver

49.

Following is not true about vitamin K:

a)

Involved in blood clotting

b)

Water soluble vitamin

c)

Produced in human large intestine

d)

Produced by bacteria

50.

Volume of chest cavity is increased by:

a)

Contraction of diaphragm

b)

Relaxation of intercostals

c)

Passive contraction of lungs

d)

Depression of rib cage

51.

The emulsification of fats is the role of:

a)

Pancreatic juice

b)

Bile

c)

Saliva

d)

Gastrin

52.

Which of these is not a normal constituent of glomerular filtrate?

a)

Glucose

b)

Amino acids

c)

RBCs

d)

Salts

53.

The active uptake of sodium in the ascending limb or thick loop of Henle is promoted by the action of:

a)

Oxytocin

b)

ADH

c)

Insulin

d)

Aldosterone

54.

It is true about thalamus:

a)

Sensory relay center

b)

Present in ventricles

c)

Crucial motor relay center

d)

Part of limbic system

55.

Nerve impulse is initiated by:

a)

Influx of K+

b)

Influx of Na+

c)

Out flux of K+

d)

Out flux of Na+

56.

Total number of sperms produced by one primary spermatocyte is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

57.

Gland that plays main role in semen formation is:

a)

Bulbourethral gland

b)

Ovaries

c)

Prostate gland

d)

Seminal vesicles

58.

Non-polarizing region of sarcomere is called:

a)

I band

b)

A band

c)

M line

d)

H zone

59.

Lacrimal bone is:

a)

Paired bone of cranium

b)

Unpaired bone of cranium

c)

Paired bone of face

d)

Unpaired bone of face

60.

Hip and thigh muscles become painful and taut usually at night or after exercise. This condition is named as:

a)

Muscle fatigue

b)

Muscle cramp

c)

Tetany

d)

Tetanus

61.

It produces both primary hormones and tropic hormones:

a)

Thalamus

b)

Anterior pituitary

c)

Median pituitary

d)

Posterior pituitary

62.

Anti-tetanus serum is responsible for producing which type of immunity:

a)

Natural passive

b)

Artificial passive

c)

Natural active

d)

Artificial active

63.

Oxygenated blood to bronchi and bronchioles is supplied through:

a)

Coronary arteries

b)

Pulmonary arteries

c)

Pulmonary veins

d)

Bronchial arteries

64.

Lymph nodes are drained by:

a)

Single afferent vessel

b)

Many afferent vessels

c)

Single efferent vessel

d)

Many efferent vessels

65.

Pick an exocrine gland:

a)

Adrenal gland

b)

Sebaceous gland

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Placenta

66.

All of the following characteristics of life are shown both by plant and animal cells except:

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Homeostasis

67.

These are most abundant components of a cell membrane:

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Glycolipids

68.

Two chains of insulin are held together by:

a)

Peptide bond

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Disulphide bridge

d)

Hydrophobic interactions

69.

The quantum number which accounts for the splitting up of spectral lines (Zeeman effect) is:

a)

Magnetic quantum number

b)

Azimuthal quantum number

c)

Principal quantum number

d)

Spin quantum number

70.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Liquefaction of gases involves decrease in intermolecular spaces

b)

Real gases show ideal gas behaviour at low P and high T

c)

Kinetic energy of molecules of a gas is zero at 0oC

d)

An ideal gas on expansion will show Joule-Thomson effect

71.

Aqueous solutions of Iodine and Sodium hydroxide were mixed in a round

bottom flask at 70oC. Following chemical reaction was carried out.

3I2 + 6NaOH \rightarrow   NaIO3 + 5NaI + 3H2O

This reaction is termed as:

a)

Precipitation reaction

b)

Substitution reaction

c)

Redox reaction

d)

Free radical reaction

72.

Consider the following structures of dicarboxylic acid:

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III and IV only

d)

I, II, III and IV

73.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

During combustion analysis Mg(ClO4)2 is employed to absorb water vapours

b)

Molecular formula is the integral multiple of empirical formula and the integral multiple can never be unity

c)

Neon has three isotopes and the fourth one with atomic mass 20.18 amu

d)

Empirical formula gives the information about the total number of atoms present in the molecules

74.

At constant pressure, with the increase in temperature from 10oC to 100oC, then the increase in volume would be from to:

a)

566cm3, 746cm3

b)

546cm3, 766cm3

c)

526cm3, 566cm3

d)

323cm3, 646cm3

75.

The half-life time for the reaction N2O5 \rightarrow  2NO2 +O2 is 24 hours at 30°C,

starting with 10g of N2O5. What will remain after a period of 96 hours?

a)

1.25g

b)

0.63g

c)

1.77g

d)

0.50g

76.

The dsp2 hybridization in the central metal atom gives the geometry:

a)

Trigonal bipyramidal

b)

Tetrahedral

c)

Square planer

d)

Octahedral

77.

Which one of the following is the functional group isomer of methyl ethanoate?

a)

Propanone

b)

1-Propanol

c)

Methoxyethane

d)

Propanoic acid

78.

Which reagent will give similar results with both butanone and butanal?

a)

2,4-DNPH reagent

b)

Acidified K2Cr2O7

c)

Fehling’s solution

d)

Tollens’ reagent

79.

Which of the following catalyst is used in the given reaction?

a)

Ni

b)

Conc. H2SO4

c)

Pumice stone

d)

Pt

80.

Among the following, which one has electron withdrawing effect:

a)

–NH2

b)

–OCH3

c)

–CHO

d)

–R

81.

Solubility product of a salt AB is 0.25 mol2dm-6, what will be its solubility:

a)

0.125

b)

0.05

c)

0.025

d)

0.5

82.

Tertiary structure of protein contains which type of forces?

a)

Ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, van der Waals forces, and disulphide linkage

b)

Ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds and van der Waals forces

c)

Ionic bonds forces only

d)

Ionic bonds as well as hydrogen bonds

83.

In which reaction, chlorine is reduced

a)

CH3Cl + Cl2 \rightarrow   CH2Cl2 + HCl

b)

2CH3Cl + 2Na \rightarrow  CH3CH3 + 2NaCl

c)

CH3Cl + KOH(aq) \rightarrow  CH3OH + KCl

d)

CH3Cl + H2 \rightarrow   CH4 + HCl

84.

Gaseous nitrogen is less reactive than gaseous fluorine. What is the reason for this difference in reactivity?

a)

The boiling point of nitrogen is lower than that of fluorine.

b)

The relative molecular mass of nitrogen is lower than that of fluorine.

c)

The atomic radius of nitrogen is greater than that of fluorine.

d)

The bond strength in the molecule is greater in nitrogen than in fluorine

85.

In period 2 and 3 the elements which show maximum melting points are:

a)

Nitrogen and phosphorus

b)

Neon and argon

c)

Lithium and sodium

d)

Carbon and silicon

86.

Which one of the following compounds will?

(i) decolorizes dilute cold KMnO4

(ii) decolorizes bromine water

(iii) gives white ppt. with ammoniacal AgNO3 solution

a)

1-Hexene

b)

1-Hexyne

c)

2-Hexene

d)

2-Hexyne

87.

Which of the following is an incorrect description of benzene?

a)

The CCC bond angles are all equal to 120o

b)

The molecule is planar

c)

The molecule is a 5-membered ring which contains alternating single and double carbon-carbon bonds

d)

The molecule can be drawn as a resonance hybrid of two Kekule structures.

88.

Consider the following structure of alkyl halide:

The correct IUPAC name of the above structure of alkyl halide is:

a)

1-Chloro-1-methylpentane

b)

3-Chloro-2-methylpentane

c)

2-Chloro-3-methylpentane

d)

3-Chloro-3-methylpentane

89.

Which one of the following compounds is solid at room temperature?

a)

Ethanol

b)

Butane

c)

Methanol

d)

Phenol

90.

Which of the following will not give haloform reaction?

a)

C6H5CHO

b)

CH3COCH3

c)

CH3CHO

d)

C6H5COCl

91.

Identify the correct statement:

a)

The number of atoms in 1.79 g of gold and 0.023 g of sodium are equal

b)

The number of electrons in the molecules of CO and N2 are 14 each, so 1 g of each gas will have same number of electrons

c)

Avogadro’s hypothesis is applicable to all types of gases i.e. ideal and non-ideal

d)

Actual yield of a chemical reaction may be greater than the theoretical yield

92.

Which of the following is correct energy order of subshells in an atom?

a)

7s > 6p > 5d > 4f

b)

4f > 7s > 5d > 6p

c)

4f > 5d > 6p > 7s

d)

5d > 6p > 4f > 7s

93.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect about intramolecular and intermolecular forces?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

94.

Enthalpy of formation for one mole of carbon dioxide is 400 kJmol-1. What will be heat of combustion for 6g of carbon?

C + O2 \rightarrow   CO2

a)

100kJ

b)

200kJ

c)

300kJ

d)

400kJ

95.

Consider the following structure of phenol:

The correct name according to IUPAC name of the given structure is:

a)

2-Aminophenol

b)

2-Hydroxy aniline

c)

2-Phenylamine

d)

1-Amino-2-hydroxy benzene

96.

In which of the following compounds nitrogen has maximum oxidation state:

a)

N2O

b)

HNO2

c)

NO2

d)

HNO3

97.

Which of the following central atom undergoes sp3 hybridization?

(i) SnCl2 (iii) SO 42_4^{2-}  

(ii) NF3 (iv) H2S

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a)

i and ii

b)

i, iii and iv

c)

ii, iii and iv

d)

i, ii and iii

98.

Which one of the following set of elements belong to VIB group?

a)

Zn, Cd, Hg

b)

Cr, Mo, W

c)

Ni, Pd, Pt

d)

Cu, Ag, Au

99.

Conjugated dienes contain:

a)

Alternating single and double bonds

b)

Two double bonds separated by two single bonds

c)

Only two double bonds

d)

Two double bonds connected to the same carbon atom

100.

Which of the following is a cyclic carboxylic acid?

a)

Lactic acid

b)

Phthalic acid

c)

Oxalic acid

d)

Succinic acid

101.

Determine partial pressure of NO at equilibrium if partial pressure of N2 and O2 are 2 and 8 torr respectively (Kp = 4.0) N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO

a)

4 torr

b)

8 torr

c)

16 torr

d)

64 torr

102.

Zinc is a transition element but it does not show variable valency because:

a)

It does not form colored salts

b)

It has incomplete d-subshell

c)

It has completely filled d-subshell

d)

It has two electrons in the outermost orbit

103.

The difference in the E.N values of the non-metallic bonded atoms is an index to of covalent bond

a)

Polar nature

b)

Strength

c)

Non-polar nature

d)

Both A and B

104.

The Relative atomic mass of Ne is

a)

21 amu

b)

20.18 g

c)

20.18 amu

d)

20 amu

105.

In which of the following water evaporate earlier?

a)

Cup

b)

Saucepan

c)

Glass

d)

Small bowl

106.

What is the common name of the compound? CH3-(CH2)2-CH2-CI

a)

n-Pentyl chloride

b)

l-Chloropentane

c)

Neo-Pentyl chloride

d)

n-Chloropentane

107.

During SN1 reactions which of the following specie is formed and consumed in the reaction.

a)

Transition state

b)

Intermediate

c)

Carbanion

d)

Substrate

108.

Which ion will have a maximum value of the heat of hydration?

a)

Ba2+

b)

Mg2+

c)

Al3+

d)

Cs+

109.

By which of the following alkene is converted into monohydric alcohol

a)

Hydroxylation

b)

Dehydration

c)

Ozonolysis

d)

Hydration

110.

By increasing which of the following factor polarizability Increases?

a)

Atomic radius

b)

Ionization energy

c)

Metallic character

d)

Hydration energy

111.

Which of the following is produced by heating of bones?

a)

Gelly

b)

Gelatin

c)

Cheese

d)

Albumin

112.

The molecules of have dipole-dipole interaction

a)

Methane

b)

Neon

c)

Acetone

d)

Carbon disulphide

113.

Heat exchanged between the system and surrounding at constant pressure is shown by the relation?

a)

ΔE = qv+w

b)

ΔE = qv

c)

ΔE = qv+PV

d)

ΔH =qp

114.

Ligand may be

a)

Cationic

b)

Neutral

c)

Anionic

d)

All of these

115.

18g of water contains atoms of hydrogen and oxygen

a)

6.022×1023

b)

3×6.022×1023

c)

2×6.022×1023

d)

4×6.22×1023

116.

Which of the following compete with each other?

a)

E1, E2

b)

E1, SN2

c)

E2, SN1

d)

E2, SN2

117.

Casein is used in manufacturing of ___________.

a)

Buttons and buckles

b)

Tanning of leather

c)

Gelatin

d)

Bakery goods

118.

According to Avogadro's law, 2g of H2 and 32 g of O2 have number of molecules

a)

O2 has more

b)

Same

c)

Different

d)

H2 has more

119.

Enthalpy of formation of which of the following cannot be measured directly by

calorimetric method

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

CO

d)

NO

120.

An organic compound P when treated with NaBH4 forms Q, which is used in denaturing of the ethanol. The compound P is

a)

Ethanol

b)

Methanal

c)

Methanol

d)

Ethanal

121.

Which of the following show no reactivity with hydrazine

a)

HCHO

b)

CH3OH

c)

CH3CHO

d)

(CH3)2CO

122.

Which has lowest pKa value among following

a)

Nitroacetic acid

b)

Fluoroacetic acid

c)

Chloroacetic acid

d)

Acetic acid

123.

A car is driven along a straight road such that it covers a distance of 10 m with a

constant velocity of 50 km/h. What will be the work done by road friction if car engine applied a constant force of 100 N during motion?

a)

0 J

b)

100 J

c)

1000 J

d)

–1000 J

124.

A ball is thrown vertically upwards such that during its upward motion if acceleration is aup=-9.8ms–2 and while coming back it is adown=-9.8ms–2

. What will be the angle between aup and adown?

a)

b)

180°

c)

90°

d)

45°

125.

The velocity of car of mass 1500kg decreases from 50ms–1 to 20ms–1 in 50s, the force which reduces this velocity is

a)

100N

b)

–600N

c)

–150N

d)

–900N

126.

Two forces of F1=5N and F2=15N are working on a body in opposite direction. If body displaced by 5m in direction of net force, what will be the work done by F2:

a)

25J

b)

–75J

c)

75J

d)

50J

127.

The negative work done in the given diagram is

a)

4J

b)

–3 J

c)

3J

d)

12J

128.

A 4kg eagle picks up a 75g snake and raises it 2.5m from the ground to a branch. What is the work done by the eagle on the snake? (Assume g = 10 m/s2)

a)

100J

b)

1.875J

c)

18.75 J

d)

187.5 J

129.

A stone is whirled in a vertical circle at the end of the string. When the stone is at the highest position the tension in the string is?

a)

Max

b)

Zero

c)

Equal to the weight of the stone

d)

Less than the weight of the stone

130.

The velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at one end has a length of 1 m. Neglecting the end correction, the pipe cannot resonate for frequencies

a)

80 Hz

b)

160 Hz

c)

240 Hz

d)

400 Hz

131.

The capacity of a storage cell is 5 ampere hours. The maximum current it can supply for ten hours is

a)

5 ampere

b)

0.5 ampere

c)

50 ampere

d)

0.25 ampere

132.

Which two or more of the following actions would increase the energy stored in parallel plate capacitor when a constant potential difference is applied across the plates?

a)

Decreasing the area of the plates increasing the separation between the plates inserting a dielectric between the plates.

b)

Increasing the area of the plates Decreasing the separation between the plates inserting a dielectric between the plates

c)

Decreasing the area of the plates decreasing the separation between the plates

d)

Increasing the area of the plates increasing the separation between the plates

133.

Two 32 W/100 V bulbs are connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel to 100 V supply. The power consumed by each in two cases is

a)

16 W, 64 W

b)

32 W, 32 W

c)

8 W, 32 W

d)

16 W, 32 W

134.

If a charge particle enters a uniform magnetic field there is a change in its

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Magnitude of velocity

c)

Direction of velocity

d)

All of these

135.

An armature coil consists of 30 turns of wire, each of area A=0.05m2 and total resistance of 10 Ω. It rotates in a magnetic field of 0.15T at an angular speed of 84 radian per second. Determine the value of maximum induced emf produced in the coil.

a)

19V

b)

500V

c)

63V

d)

43V

136.

De-Broglie waves are associated with

a)

Moving charged particles only

b)

Moving neutral particles only

c)

Accelerated changed particle

d)

All particles in motion

137.

The direction of current through the load resistance of a full-wave rectification circuit:

a)

Inverts for negative cycle

b)

Inverts for positive cycle

c)

Changes for every cycle

d)

Remains constant

138.

When ultraviolet radiation is incident on a surface, no photoelectrons are emitted from the surface. If another beam causes photoelectrons to be emitted, it may consist of

a)

Radio waves

b)

Infrared rays

c)

X – rays

d)

Visible

139.

α particles are highly ionizing due to

a)

Their greater energy

b)

There high charge and low speeds

c)

Their greater mass

d)

Their greater density

140.

C-14 decays with a half-life of about 5800 years. In a sample of bone the ratio of C-14 to C-12 is found to be 1/4th of what its is in free air. This bone may belong to a period about X centuries ago, where X is nearest to:

a)

2×58

b)

58

c)

58/2

d)

3×58

141.

Potential energy can be defined only for

a)

Conservative forces

b)

Non- conservative forces

c)

Both

d)

None

142.

The input power to a motor is 300W. In 20s it lifts a load of 400N through a height of 6.0m. What is the efficiency of the motor?

a)

12%

b)

25%

c)

40%

d)

75%

143.

An object is displaced from point A (0,1,1) m to point B (1,4,3) m under a constant force F\overrightarrow{F}   = (ˆi + 2ˆj + 3kˆ ) then work done by this force in this process

a)

0

b)

12 J

c)

13 J

d)

15J

144.

A wheel of radius 2 m turns through an angle of 57.3°. It lays out a tangential distance:

a)

2m

b)

4m

c)

57.3m

d)

114.6m

145.

The velocity of sound in air at 4 atmospheres and that at 1 atmosphere pressure would be

a)

1 : 1

b)

1: 2

c)

4 : 1

d)

1 : 4

146.

In a stationary wave every particle performs_________

a)

A S.H.M. at all points except the antinode points

b)

A S.H.M. of constant amplitude

c)

A S.H.M. at all points of the medium

d)

A S.H.M. at all points except nodal points

147.

The frequency of sound waves produced by an organ pipe, at room temperature. If the temperature is increased by 20°C, then the frequency of sound waves______

a)

Will remain unchanged

b)

Will decrease

c)

Will increase

d)

Will be reduced by 20%

148.

The absorption spectrum of galaxy is measured and wavelength of one of the lines identified as the calcium α line is found to be 478 nm. The same line has wavelength of 397 nm when measured in the laboratory. The apparent frequency of light from the galaxy is

a)

Equal to actual frequency

b)

Less than actual frequency

c)

More than actual frequency

d)

None of these

149.

In which process the entire of heat supplied to the gas is converted to the internal energy of the gas?

a)

Isochoric process

b)

Less than actual frequency

c)

Isobaric process

d)

Adiabatic process

150.

Woolen clothes keep the body warm because of

a)

Good conductivity

b)

Low temperature

c)

Bad conductivity

d)

None of these

151.

Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD as shown in fig. The force on the charge kept at the center O is

a)

Zero

b)

Along the diagonal AC

c)

Perpendicular to side AB

d)

Along the diagonal BD

152.

A proton (mass = 1.67 x 10-27 kg) on entering in a vertical electric field E is balanced.

Then the electric field strength is

a)

10+7 Vm-1

b)

10-9 Vm-1

c)

10-7 Vm-1

d)

10-8 Vm-1

153.

In stretched string, harmonic series are determined by

a)

Tension and Mass per Unit Length of String

b)

Tension, Length of String and Mass per unit Length

c)

Tension and Length of String

d)

Tension, Length of Wave and Mass per unit Length of String

154.

For an open circuit

a)

E = Vt

b)

E > Vt

c)

E < Vt

d)

E = Vt + I

155.

If a particle is moving in a region of both electric & magnetic fields then the total force acting on it is.

a)

Sum of electric & magnetic force

b)

Difference of electric & magnetic force

c)

No force will act on it

d)

None of these

156.

The frequency of applied A.C is 2 kHz. Its time period will be

a)

0.5 × 10–3 sec

b)

0.5 second

c)

5 sec

d)

3.sec

157.

What is the maximum electron energy in neutron beta decay?

a)

783 eV

b)

783 KeV

c)

783 GeV

d)

783 TeV

158.

When wavelength of incident photon is decreased then

a)

Velocity of emitted photo-electron decreases

b)

Velocity of emitted photoelectron increases

c)

Velocity of photoelectron do not charge

d)

Photo electric current increases

159.

Find E in eV “Photon wavelength was given 1440nm”?

a)

0.867 eV

b)

18.67 eV

c)

9.32 eV

d)

0.932 eV

160.

The table shows the possible properties of radioactive emissions. Which emission could be a beta-particle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

161.

The activity of a radioactive isotope decreases from 8000 to 1000 in 60 days The half title of isotope will be

a)

10 days

b)

20 days

c)

30 days

d)

40 days

162.

A bullet of mass m moving with a velocity v is fired into large wooden block of mass M of the bullet remains embedded in the wooden block, the velocity of the system will be:

a)

M/M+m v

b)

m/M+m v

c)

M/M-m v

d)

m/M-m v

163.

Time of flight of a projectile is 10 second. The maximum height attained by it will be

a)

50m

b)

100m

c)

125m

d)

150m

164.

Linear velocity or tangential velocity of any particle moving in a circular path of radius 2 m with angular velocity 8 rads-1 will be:

a)

4 ms–1

b)

6 ms–1

c)

10 ms–1

d)

16 ms–1

165.

If earth covers 360 degrees in 24 hours, then how many degrees are in two hours

a)

15o

b)

30o

c)

45o

d)

60o

166.

The wavelength of the sound produced by a source is 0.8m. If the source moves towards the stationary listener at 32 ms–1, what will be apparent wavelength of the sound? The velocity of sound is 320 ms–1

a)

0.32 m

b)

0.40 m

c)

0.72 m

d)

0.80 m

167.

The phase difference between the particles vibrating at two consecutive nodes is:

a)

Zero

b)

π

c)

π/2

d)

168.

100 W heater is used for 5 minutes to heat 500 g of water. What is the change

in temperature of water? Specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J/gC.

a)

0.2 °C

b)

14°C

c)

40°C

d)

60°C

169.

If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and work done in a closed cyclic process, then

a)

Q = W= 0

b)

Q = 0

c)

W = 0

d)

E = 0

170.

Under which conditions, a real gas approximate to an ideal gas?

a)

High pressure and low temperature

b)

High pressure and high temperature

c)

Low pressure and high temperature

d)

Low pressure and low temperature

171.

The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per °C. At 300 K, its

resistance is 1 Ω. The resistance of the wire will be 2 Ω at

a)

1154 K

b)

1100 K

c)

1400 K

d)

1127 K

172.

You have three capacitors, each of 2 μ\mu  F. Which of the following combination of the three capacitors, the resultant capacitance is 3 μ\mu F?

a)

All three capacitors in series

b)

Two capacitors are in parallel, one in series

c)

Two capacitors are in series, one in parallel

d)

All three capacitors in parallel

173.

When a wire is compressed and its radius becomes 2R then its resistance will be:

a)

4R

b)

16R

c)

1/16 R

d)

1/4 R

174.

In Ohm’s law, which factor remains constant?

a)

Length

b)

Temperature

c)

Volume

d)

Pressure

175.

A 500-gram cube of lead is heated from 25 oC to 75 oC. How much energy was required to heat the lead? The specific heat of lead is 0.129J/goC.

a)

3225 J

b)

9866 J

c)

4600 J

d)

2008 J

176.

In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched ON. The total resistance of the load

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains same

d)

None of these

177.

The majority of the students finds it quite hard to live on the amount of money they get.  

a)

The majority

b)

finds

c)

amount

d)

they get

178.

I’d rather you take a taxi instead of walking because it is not safe in the streets at night.

a)

I’d rather

b)

take

c)

instead of

d)

walking

179.

Do you see ______man standing near _____ door?

a)

a…a

b)

a…the

c)

the…the

d)

the…a

180.

If people were smarter they ________out on a night like this.

a)

wouldn’t be

b)

would not have been

c)

would have not been

d)

would be not

181.

How do you usually get to ____ town to do your shopping? Oh, I usually go there             on_____foot, but sometimes if I have a lot to carry I go by _____ car.

a)

the, the, the

b)

no article, no article, no article

c)

the, no article, no article

d)

the, no article, the

182.

Happiness does not consist ________how many possessions you own.

a)

of

b)

into

c)

in

d)

no preposition

183.

There are well ______ fifty thousand people in the stadium.

a)

above

b)

over

c)

for

d)

beyond

184.

The two leaders discussed world affairs ______lunch.

a)

at

b)

in

c)

over

d)

by

185.

What grieved me as much was not the thing itself_______as the lying.

a)

-

b)

c)

d)

,

186.

The show was ________criticism.

a)

Above

b)

Below

c)

Behind

d)

Beneath

187.

Choose the CORRECT one.

a)

If one slipped on this icy walk, one could hurt oneself bad.

b)

If one slipped on this icy walk, he could hurt himself badly.

c)

If one slipped on this icy walk, one could hurt oneself badly.

d)

If he slipped on this icy walk, one could hurt oneself badly.

188.

Choose the CORRECT one:

a)

Della knew that her hair was more beautiful than any queen jewels and gifts.

b)

Della knew that her hair was more beautiful than any other queen’s jewels and gifts.

c)

Della knew that her hairs were more beautiful than any queen’s jewels and gifts.

d)

Della knew that her hair was more beautiful than any queen’s jewels and gifts.

189.

Choose the CORRECT one:

a)

Her breaths, however, were coming faster and faster.

b)

Her breaths however, were coming faster and faster.

c)

Her breaths, however were coming faster and faster.

d)

Hers breaths, however, were coming faster and faster.

190.

Choose the CORRECT one:

a)

On Sundays in Chapel, it was him who now read out the tragic list.

b)

On Sundays in Chapel, it was he who now read out the tragic list.

c)

On Sundays in Chapel, it was he whom now read out the tragic list.

d)

On Sunday in Chapel, it was he who now read out the tragic list.

191.

Choose the CORRECT one:

a)

The truth is Clay you want money because you need money.

b)

The truth is, Clay, you want money because of the reason you need money.

c)

The truth is, Clay, you want money because you need money.

d)

The truth is, Clay, you want money because you need the money.

192.

Choose the CORRECT One:

a)

Obviously, they had no idea what lied ahead after they had crossed the bridges and got close to the enemy.

b)

Obviously, they had no idea what lay ahead after they had crossed the bridges and got close to the enemy.

c)

Obviously, they had no idea what laid ahead after they had crossed the bridges and got close to the enemy.

d)

Obviously, they had no idea what lain ahead after they had crossed the bridges and got close to the enemy.

193.

Choose the CORRECT one:

a)

Not only he gets a mighty poor living by the process but a mighty poor education as well.

b)

Not only does he get a mighty poor living by the process but a mighty poor education as well.

c)

Not only does he get a mighty poor living by the process but also a mighty poor education as well.

d)

Not only he gets a mighty poor living by the process, a mighty poor education as well.

194.

Choose the CORRECT one:

I- Who were you talking to?

II- To whom were you talking?

a)

I is right.

b)

II is right

c)

Both A & B right.

d)

Both A & B wrong

195.
a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

196.

Tanya is older than Eric.

Cliff is older than Tanya.

Eric is older than Cliff.

If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A. true

B. false

C. uncertain

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Uncertain

197.

Ali starts walking in the North direction and travels 5 km then he turns to his left and walks 10 km and he again he turns to his left and walks for 5 km. How far is he from his starting point?

a)

5 Km

b)

15 Km

c)

10 Km

d)

20 Km

198.

Indian granite industry is in peril in the absence of a uniform policy from the State Governments, despite the thrust given by liberalization policies of the Union Government in the last two years. Compared to the remarkable progress in the field during the last three years, the absence of matching policies by State Governments had put granite quarry owners and others involved in the industry on the verge of collapse in the international market. The policies differed from state to state, had created problems as far as loyalty, dead rent and duration of lease were concerned.

The granite produced in India does not match with the quality of international level.

a)

Definitely false

b)

Data inadequate

c)

Probably true

d)

Probably false

e)

Definitely true

199.

Statement:

An unacceptable number of children die during the first year of their lives. The high incidence of infant deaths is a major cause for concern for the health ministry Courses of Action

I. All government hospitals should be privatized to improve health care facilities.

II. Governments should commit higher levels of their budget to health services

a)

If only I is most appropriate

b)

appropriate

If only II is most appropriate

c)

If either I or II is most appropriate

d)

most appropriate

If neither I nor II is most appropriate

e)

If both I and II are most appropriate

200.

I. There is a sharp decline in the production of rice this season.

II. The government has decided to increase the import of rice.

a)

If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

b)

If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c)

If Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d)

If Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e)

If Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause