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Hematology LEC Prelims Review

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 8hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the color of the arterial blood and why it is such?

a)

  bright red- oxygenated

b)

  dark red- non-carbonated

c)

  bright red- carbonated

d)

  dark red- unoxygenated

2.

Which of these functions is/are not carried out by blood tissue?

1. Secretion

2. Homeostasis 

3. Protection

4. Excretion

a)

1, 2

b)

2 only

c)

1 only

d)

3 only

3.

Which of the following statements is true regarding primary services by Hematology and Hemostasis laboratory?

1. Measurement of RBC indices

2. Detection of the presence of COVID-19 antigen

3. Cellular identification of leukemic cells

4. Measurement of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

a)

1, 2, 3, 4 `

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 3, 4

4.

Read carefully the statements below:

1. Athanasius Kircher, a Jesuit priest and scientist from Germany, examined blood from plague victims, and described "worms" of plague.

2.  Anton van Leeuwenhoek in 1674 gave an account of erythrocytes.

a)

  Neither of the statement is correct.

b)

  Both statements are correct.

c)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

d)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

5.

Read carefully the statements below:

1. The human blood is slightly viscous, with a pH range of 7.15-7.45.

2. The blood viscosity is influenced by plasma proteins, formed elements and hormones.

a)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are correct.

c)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

d)

  Neither of the statement is correct.

6.

Patient XYZ has a condition called meningitis. It means that the patient has:

a)

  inflamed meninges

b)

  scattered meninges

c)

  necrotic meninges

d)

  underdeveloped meninges

7.

Based on cell granularity, which of these cells does NOT belong to the group?

a)

basophil

b)

eosinophil

c)

monocyte

d)

neutrophil

8.

Which among the cells in the blood functions for blood coagulation?

1. white blood cells

2. erythrocytes

3. thrombocytes

4. platelets

a)

1, 4

b)

4 only

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

3, 4

9.

Read the statements below:

1. Plasma cells, which originated from T- lymphocytes, serve as important cellular factories for the antibody production and secretion.

2. Leukocytes constitute less than 0.5% of whole blood, wherein 3-8% are lymphocytes.

a)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are correct.

c)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

d)

  Neither of the statement is correct.

10.

Which of the following depicts the normal reference range of leukocytes in blood per microliter (uL)?

a)

3.6 - 10.6

b)

4.5 - 11.0

c)

4,500 - 11, 500

d)

4, 300 - 6, 000

11.

Which formed elements has/have NOTHING to do with the respiration function of blood?

1. erythrocyte

2. thrombocyte

3. leukocyte

4. red blood cell

a)

2, 3

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 4

d)

1, 3, 4

12.

Which of these statements is/are CORRECT?

1. Variation in the size and shape of the red blood cells is termed as anisopoikilocytosis.

2. A condition where bone marrow produces excessive red blood cells may exemplify aplasia.

3. Lymphoblast and erythrocyte both represent mature blood cells.

4. Schistocytes are characterized by fragmented erythrocytes. 

a)

1, 3

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 4

d)

3, 4

13.

Approximately 7% of the plasma is composed of proteins. Which of these are considered major groups of plasma proteins?

1. Hormones

2. Globulin

3. Fibrinogen

4. Albumin

a)

1, 3

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 4

d)

3, 4

14.

Among these cells, which of these represents the most immature form?

a)

  erythroblast

b)

lymphocyte

c)

reticulocyte

d)

erythrocyte

15.

In decreasing percentage (from left to right), which of the following is the correct order for differential WBC count in normal adult patients?

a)

  Neutrophil, Eosinophil, Lymphocyte, Monocyte, Basophils

b)

  Monocyte, Eosinophils, Neutrophil, Lymphocyte, Basophils

c)

  Basophil, Eosinophil, Monocyte, Lymphocyte, Neutrophil

d)

  Neutrophil, Lymphocyte, Monocyte, Eosinophil, Basophils

16.

What anticoagulant must NOT be used in hematology due to interference with Wright stain?

a)

sodium heparin

b)

sodium polyanethol sulfonate

c)

sodium citrate

d)

sodium fluoride

17.

Which of the following statements about the order of draw is INCORRECT?

a)

  If a butterfly needle is used in venipuncture, the anaerobic bottle for blood culture should be drawn first to prevent air contamination in the aerobic bottle.

b)

  When potassium level determination and CBC are requested by the physician at the same time, the purple top must be last tube to be filled.

c)

  Clot activators can interfere with coagulation testing by promoting clotting process

d)

  A discard tube should be drawn first when a winged blood collection set is used for venipuncture and a coagulation tube  is the first specimen to be obtained.

18.

A tourniquet that is left tied on the arm for longer than 60 seconds may cause _____.

a)

  hemoconcentration

b)

  hemolysis

c)

hemostasis

d)

hemodilution

19.

How does SPS in  yellow top tube aid in  the recovery of microorganisms?

a)

  by promoting complement activation and phagocytosis

b)

  by slowing down the action of complement, phagocytes and certain antibiotics

c)

  by triggering immediate cytokine release and antibody production

d)

  by stimulating DNA synthesis in certain antibiotics

20.

Which of these statements regarding blood collection is/are TRUE?

1. A medical technologist on duty may collect blood from fistulas if no other vein is visible.

2. Edematous sites should be avoided for venipuncture since specimens may become contaminated with tissue fluid.

3. Venipuncture is made by anchoring the vein with the thumb 1 to 2 inches above the site.

4. During venipuncture, the needle is inserted with bevel facing upward.

a)

3, 4

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 2, 4

d)

2, 4

21.

The green top tube is indicated for the following tests:

 I.  carboxyhemoglobin

II. ammonia level

III.  chromosome screening

IV.  serological test

 

a)

  only II is correct

b)

  I, II, III and IV are correct

c)

  I, II and III are correct

d)

  I and IV are correct

22.

How many times should you invert a citrate tube for adequate mixing?

a)

2-3 times

b)

1-2 times

c)

3-4 times

d)

5-6 times

23.

At which of the following sites can venipuncture be performed without potentially affecting test results?

a)

  in the region of hematoma

b)

  above an IV line

c)

  near a tattoo

d)

  at mastectomy site

24.

Read carefully the statements below:

1. Pre-labeling is allowable when there are a lot of patients waiting for blood extraction.

2. During capillary puncture in infants and children, all drops of blood must be collected to ensure an adequate quantity of blood for testing.

a)

  Both statements are correct.

b)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

c)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

d)

  Neither of the statement is correct.

25.

What is the recommended order of draw when the evacuated tube system is to be utilized?

a)

  Nonadditive, blood culture, coagulation, and other additives

b)

  Blood culture, coagulation, nonadditive, and gel separator or other additives

c)

  Blood culture, nonadditive, coagulation and other additive

d)

  Gel separator, nonadditive, coagulation, and blood culture

26.

The phlebotomist had to gently redirect the vein several times before hitting the vein. This may cause erroneous results due to the presence of?

a)

both

b)

lipemia

c)

neither

d)

hemolysis

27.

A pale yellow top tube contains Acid-Citrate Dextrose (ACD) as an additive. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of ACD?

a)

  Inactivate thrombin in the plasma

b)

  Remove calcium by forming calcium salts

c)

  Inhibit complement activation

d)

  inhibit glycolysis within RBC's

28.

All of the following additives prevents clotting by chelating calcium, except with?

a)

  potassium oxalate

b)

  two of these

c)

heparin

d)

EDTA

29.

Which of these is an/are acceptable site/s for skin puncture on infants?

a)

  Medial plantar surface of the heel

b)

  Back curvature of the heel

c)

  two of these are correct

d)

  Lateral plantar surface of the heel

30.

All of the following ensure proper identification of a patient, except?

a)

  Checking computer-generated labels against the patient's wrist band

b)

  Checking a photo ID against the requisition

c)

  Asking whether the patient is "Brent Corpuz"

d)

  Asking a patient to spell his or her last name

31.

Failure to obtain blood by venipuncture may likely result from all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

  Insufficient vacuum in the tube

b)

  Tying the tourniquet too tightly

c)

  Collapsed vein

d)

  Incorrect needle positioning

32.

When performing venipuncture on a patient with small, fragile veins, the best solution is to use a:

a)

  winged infusion set with syringe

b)

  ETS

c)

  IV infusion of NSS for rehydration

d)

  standard-sized needle with evacuated tube

33.

 Which of these sites is most preferable if venous blood should be drawn from a patient with both arms hooked up in IV lines ?

a)

  brachial artery

b)

  radial artery

c)

  ankle vein

d)

  dorsal metacarpal vein

34.

When performing filter paper collection for newborn screening, the phlebotomist should NOT?

a)

  Warm the heel before puncture

b)

  Air dry the site of puncture

c)

  Wipe off the first drop of blood

d)

  Apply more blood than fills the circle

35.

Which government agency is responsible for laws governing the use of gloves when carrying out venipuncture?

a)

OSHA

b)

WHO

c)

DOH

d)

Ministry of Health

36.

Which veins should NOT be used for venipuncture?

a)

  veins on the dorsal side of the wrist

b)

  veins on the palmar side of the wrist

c)

  veins on the dorsal side of the hand

d)

  veins in the forearm

37.

It is the critical first step in blood collection:

a)

  Site disinfection

b)

  Specimen labeling

c)

  Patient identification

d)

  Material preparation

38.

Read these statements carefully:

1. It is imperative to fill tubes for coagulation testing to full volume, maintaining a 9:1 ratio of anticoagulant to blood.

2. Overfilling coagulation tubes with blood sample results in prolonged coagulation test values.

a)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

b)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

c)

  Both statements are correct.

d)

  Neither of the statement is correct.

39.

Read carefully the statements below:

1. Standard precautions must only be observed among patients with active infections and or immunocompromised.

2. When doing a finger stick on an adult, it is most appropriate to use the thumb.

a)

  Both statements are correct.

b)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

c)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

d)

  Neither of the statement is correct.

40.

This blood collection method allows multiple samples to be drawn by inserting each additional tube as soon as the tube attached to the needle holder has filled:

a)

  cannula-fistula system

b)

  peripherally-inserted central catheter line

c)

  syringe method

d)

  evacuated tube system

41.

A 65-year-old female, who is living alone sought medical consult with chief complaints of shortness of breath and weakness.  Oftentimes, patient's diet was tea and toast. Physical examination was unremarkable except for pale palpebral conjunctiva and pale palmar creases. Peripheral blood examination showed hematologic finding of megaloblastic anemia, while further studies indicated vitamin deficiency. Which of these do/does NOT describe the hematopoietic process of this patient?

I. There is synchronous hematopoiesis

II. Delay in Nucleus maturation is expected

III. Asynchronous Hematopoiesis is considered physiologic 

IV.  Vitamin B12 and Folate is needed for DNA synthesis 

a)

II, IV

b)

I, III

c)

I, II, III

d)

II, III ,IV

42.

Which of the following organs is/are involved in the hematopoiesis during 4th -5th months age of gestation?

1. Organ involved in detoxification of drugs and production of plasma proteins

2. Organ that undergoes physiologic atrophy during adulthood

3. Organ that contains T cells & B cells and also removes RBCs

a)

2 only

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2

43.

Which of the following pairs is/are INCORRECTLY matched?

1. Mesoblastic: Yolk Sac

2. Hepatic: AGM

3. Medullary: Yellow Bone Marrow

4. Myeloid: Red Bone Marrow 

 

a)

2, 4

b)

1, 4

c)

1 only

d)

2, 3

44.

Which of these is/are NOT considered stromal component/s of the hematopoietic microenvironment?

 

a)

  Adipocytes

b)

  two of these

c)

  Endothelial cells

d)

  Langerhan's Cells

45.

Which of these types of stem cells gives rise to the embryonic and extra-embryonic tissue?

a)

  Embryonic Stem Cell

b)

  Multipotential Stem Cell

c)

  Tissue Specific Stem Cell

d)

  Totipotential Stem Cell

46.

Read the statements carefully:

1. The erythrocytes in sickle cell anemia become sickle in shape once deoxygenated.

2. Autosplenectomy causes immunodeficiency because the red pulp, which is the site of antibody production, is damaged.

 

a)

  Both statements are correct.

b)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

c)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

d)

  Both statements are incorrect.

47.

Read the statements carefully:

1. In adults, the type of hematopoiesis that occurs is the medullary hematopoiesis.

2. The extreme invasion of malignant cancer cells in the bone marrow may opt or influence the hematopoietic stem cells to go out of the bone marrow and proceed to other organs, like liver and spleen, to do myeloid hematopoiesis.

a)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are incorrect.

c)

  Both statements are correct.

d)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

48.

Which of type of hemoglobin is detected at 4 wks age of gestation?

a)

  2 alpha 2 delta

b)

  2 alpha 2 beta

c)

  2 alpha 2 gamma

d)

  2 zeta, 2 gamma

49.

Definitive hematopoiesis happens in which of the following organs? 

a)

kidney

b)

  liver

c)

spleen

d)

yolk sac

50.

This splenic activity refers to the removal of inclusion bodies, nucleus, and malformed parts of the erythrocyte.

a)

Pitting

b)

Culling

c)

Intravascular hemolysis

d)

Extravascular hemolysis

51.

In decreasing number of percentage (from left to right), which of the following is the correct order for hemoglobins in a 38-year old female live-selling miner?

a)

  F>A1>A2

b)

  A2>F>A1

c)

  A1>F>A2

d)

  A1>A2>F

52.

Which of the following is most sensitive to EPO?

a)

  CFU-E

b)

  Erythrocyte

c)

Drepanocytes

d)

  BFU-E

53.

Our current understanding of hematopoiesis includes which of the following stem cell theories?

a)

  Monophyletic

b)

Unitarian

c)

  Two of these

d)

Polyphyletic

54.

Which of the following suppresses hematopoiesis?

a)

EPO

b)

IL-3

c)

TGF-β

d)

  GM-CSF

55.

Which of these do/does NOT describe extramedullary hematopoiesis?

1.  Pathologic if it occurs in utero

2. Persists in minimal amounts until 2 weeks post-natal

3. Normally occurs in a 45 year old man

4. Occurs in liver, kidney, spleen, and thymus

a)

3 only

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 4

d)

1, 2, 3

56.

Extramedullary hematopoiesis may happen in all of the following organs, EXCEPT:

a)

  lymph nodes

b)

lungs

c)

kidney

d)

vertebra

57.

These cells in the bone marrow hematopoietic environment that regulate the entry and release of substances or cells in the hematopoietic cords are the same cells that line the blood vessels. 

a)

  Reticular cells

b)

  Adipocytes

c)

  Endothelial cells

d)

  Macrophages

58.

Read these statements carefully:

1. The germinal center of the lymph nodes play a role in hematopoiesis by providing the site for B cell proliferation and maturation.

2. The lymph nodes contain macrophages that phagocytize the debris and pathogens it filtered from the blood.   Only statement 2 is correct.

a)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are incorrect.

c)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

d)

  Both statements are correct.

59.

Read these statements carefully:

1. In adults, the type of hematopoiesis that occurs is the medullary hematopoiesis.

2. The extreme invasion of malignant cancer cells in the bone marrow may opt or influence the hematopoietic stem cells to go out of the bone marrow and proceed to other organs, like liver and spleen, to do myeloid hematopoiesis.

a)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are incorrect.

c)

  Both statements are correct.

d)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

60.

Which of these statements correctly describe/s the processes in the liver?

1. Stellate/Ito cells store vitamin A

2. Site of erythrophagocytosis by macrophages

3. Conjugation of bilirubin to make it more water-soluble

4. Primary site for hematopoiesis in a 35 year old man

a)

  1,2,3,4

b)

3,4

c)

  1,2,3

d)

1,3

61.

Why is there pancytopenia in hypersplenism? 

a)

  Because there is a consequent increase in the production of proteins that suppress hematopoietic activity.

b)

  Because the bone marrow hematopoietic activity is severely impaired in hypersplenism

c)

  Because the underlying condition that caused hypersplenism will also cause the blood cells to be extremely fragile and prone to damage.

d)

  Because the hyperactivity of the spleen leads to increased removal of blood cells from the circulation

62.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

  Colony stimulating factors have high specificity to target cells

b)

  HSCs are capable of self-renewal, differentiation, and necrosis

c)

  Cirrhosis may lead to pancytopenia

d)

  Pitting involves the removal of RBC inclusions by splenic macrophages

63.

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. During infancy and early childhood, all the bones in the body contain primarily yellow marrow

2. The amounts of red and yellow marrow is approximately equal in adults

3. Red marrow is hematopoietically active

4. The process of replacing red marrow by yellow marrow is called retrogression

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1 only

d)

1, 4

64.

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?

1. CFU-E, when under the influence of growth factors and cytokines, may develop into BFU-E colonies

2. The earliest identifiable colony of RBCs is the CFU-E

3. BFU-E has many receptors for EPO, and their cell cycle activity is influenced significantly by the presence of EPO

4. CFU-E has many receptors for EPO and has an absolute requirement for EPO

a)

1, 2

b)

2, 3

c)

3, 4

d)

4 only

65.

Natural killer cells arise from which of the following?

a)

2 only

b)

1, 2

c)

1, 3, 4

d)

1 only

66.

A 63-year-old, male, former chemist, consulted his physician due to weakness for the past few weeks. Physical examination noted pale palpebral conjunctiva. CBC revealed anemia and leukocytosis. Blood Smear showed abnormally immature WBCs. Patient was requested for Bone marrow biopsy and aspirate. Which of the following is the most appropriate collection site for this patient?

a)

  Proximal Femur

b)

  Posterior superior iliac crest

c)

  Spinous process of the vertebrae

d)

Sternum

67.

Unconjugated bilirubin is synthesized by:

a)

  Intestinal epithelial cells

b)

  Splenic macrophage

c)

  Liver sinusoidal cells

d)

  Beta cells of the Pancreatic Islets

68.

Cells responsible for secreting immunoglobulins in the blood.

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Plasma cells

69.

Hematopoiesis happens extravascularly and intra-embryonically during what hematopoetic period/s?   Hepatic period

a)

Hepatic period

b)

  Mesoblastic period

c)

  Medullary period

d)

  Myeloid period

70.

Mature cells are morphologically characterized by which of the following?

a)

  Basophilic cytoplasm of myeloid cells

b)

  Presence of nucleoli

c)

  Absence of vacuoles in monocytes

d)

  Tertiary granules in WBC cytoplasm

71.

The Hexose Monophosphate Pathway:

a)

  Protects RBC enzymes from free radicals

b)

  Generates adenosine triphosphate

c)

  Produces NADH

d)

  Hydrolyzes protein

72.

The following could alter the hemoglobin viscosity and lead to shortened red cell survival, EXCEPT:   Hb C

a)

Hb C

b)

  Heinz bodies

c)

Hb S

d)

  Methemoglobin

73.

This is responsible for the negative charge of the red cell surface membrane:

a)

  Unesterified cholesterol

b)

  Sialic acid

c)

  Phosphatidylcholine

d)

  Band 3 protein

74.

The following are responsible for lateral interactions in the red cell membrane, EXCEPT:  Tropomyosin

a)

  Tropomyosin

b)

Dematin

c)

  Glyophorin C

d)

Actin

75.

When oxygen tension in the cell decreases,  various steps are undertaken as compensatory mechanism of the body to hypoxia. Arrange the sequence of cellular or molecular events that are possibly taking place during hypoxic condition:  

 1. transcription of EPO messenger RNA molecules

2. synthesis of more EPO

3. translocation of HIF into the nucleus

4. assembly and activation of HIF in the cytoplasm       

a)

2-1-3-4

b)

  4-3-1-2

c)

  1-4-3-2

d)

  3-1-4-2

76.

Which of these cellular activities does NOT transpire in orthochromatic normoblast stage of the erythrocyte maturation series?

a)

  completion of hemoglobin production from residual messenger RNA using the remaining ribosomes

b)

  extrusion of nucleus from the cell

c)

  loss of Vimentin protein responsible for holding organelles in proper location in the cytoplasm

d)

  continuous hemoglobin production on the remaining ribosomes using messenger RNA produced in the earlier stage

77.

The binding of EPO ligand to its receptor on erythrocyte progenitors initiates a cascade of intracellular events that ultimately leads to  all of the following outcomes EXCEPT:

a)

cell division

b)

cell maturation

c)

  entry of more RBCs in the circulation

d)

  senescence

78.

Which of these is responsible for the bluish tinge in the cytoplasm of polychromatic erythrocyte ? 

a)

  residual ribonucleic acid

b)

  cell-free heme

c)

  cytoplasmic inclusions

d)

stain artifacts

79.

Not all differentiating erythroid cells are sensitive to EPO, since, the EPO-R is only expressed from the BFU-E to the basophilic erythroblast stages.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

The binding of EPO to its receptor on the erythroblast's surface leads to the activation of the Janus Kinases 2-STAT signaling cascade.  In response to EPO signaling,  which of the following proteins are decreased thereby leading to programmed cell death?

a)

Fas

b)

Bax

c)

PI3-kinase

d)

BcI

81.

During extravascular hemolysis, one component of the heme called protoporphyrin is immediately broken down into:

a)

  hemoglobin dimers

b)

  amino acids

c)

  bilirubin

d)

  biliverdin

82.

While hemoglobin clearance occurs within the macrophages in extravascular hemolysis, the circulating free hemoglobin is bound to haptoglobin and cleared by the liver in intravascular hemolysis.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Which of these does NOT characterize an intravascular hemolysis?

a)

hypersplenism

b)

hemoglobinemia

c)

  presence of free hemoglobin in the plasma

d)

  substantial damage to RBC membrane

84.

As the cell matures, the nuclear size will become

a)

  larger because nuclear activity is diminished and specified

b)

  smaller because some nuclear activity is diminished

c)

  larger because nuclear activity is increased

d)

  smaller because nuclear activity is increased and generalized

85.

The primary oxygen-sensing system of the body is located in the:

a)

  hematopoietic cords of the bone marrow

b)

  carotid artery

c)

  peritubular fibroblasts of the kidney

d)

  sinusoids of the liver

86.

The earliest morphologically recognizable erythrocyte precursor derived via the BFU-E and CFU-E from the pluripotential stem cells:

a)

  pronormoblast

b)

  lymphoblast

c)

  orthochromatic normoblast

d)

  polychromatophilic normoblast

87.

The following molecules are correctly paired with their  functions EXCEPT:

a)

  Cytochrome B - converts ferric to ferrous state

b)

  Apoferritin - stores iron and releases it in a controlled fashion

c)

  Hepcidin - controls ferroportin activity

d)

  Divalent metal transporter-1 - facilitates entry of iron into intestinal cells

88.

Not all differentiating erythroid cells are sensitive to EPO, since, the EPO-R is only expressed from the BFU-E to the basophilic erythroblast stages.

a)

true

b)

false

89.

Read statements carefully:

1. Since spherical erythrocytes are biconcave, they can easily squeeze through the narrow spaces and escape the splenic sieve.

2. If EPO levels decreases secondary to hypoxia, a larger population of EPO-sensitive cells is able to respond.

a)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are correct.

c)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

d)

  Both statements are incorrect.

90.

Which of the given normoblastic cell series below exhibits the lowest N:C ratio?

a)

  basophilic normoblast

b)

  polychromatic normoblast  orthochromatic normoblast

c)

  orthochromatic normoblast

d)

pronormoblast

91.

Read statements below:

1. Where sodium goes, water follows, thereby causing osmotic lysis since intracellular sodium has already been diluted.

2. Transmembrane proteins both provide vertical and diagonal support to erythrocytes thus avoiding spherocytosis.

a)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are correct.

c)

  Both statements are incorrect.

d)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

92.

Read statements carefully:

1. The exchange of sodium, glucose and ions are facilitated by transmembrane proteins.

2. Lack of structural rigidity will make the red cell not function optimally. 

a)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are correct.

c)

  Both statements are incorrect.

d)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

93.

Read these statements carefully: 

1. Reduction of glutathione is essential in preventing protein polymerization.

 

2. Such a process is dependent on ATP.

a)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

b)

  Both statements are correct.

c)

  Both statements are incorrect.

d)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

94.

Hemolytic transfusion reaction as a result of blood transfusion complication would most LIKELY result to which of the following?

a)

  intravascular hemolysis

b)

  macrophage-mediated hemolysis

c)

  extravascular hemolysis

d)

  all of these

95.

Read these statements carefully:

1. Erythrocytes can hardly squeeze through tight vessels due to their deformability property.

2. Such a property make them prone to hemolysis while passing through tight splenic sinuses.  Only statement 2 is correct.

a)

  Only statement 2 is correct.

b)

  Only statement 1 is correct.

c)

  Both statements are correct.

d)

  Both statements are incorrect.