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Quiz Competition. Title: Know The Drug & Know The ADR

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Uppsala Monitoring Centre (UMC) UMC was established in Uppsala, ________ in the year_______ as the World Health Organization (WHO) Collaborating Centre for International Drug Monitoring

a)

Swedan,1979

b)

Switzerland, 1978

c)

Swedan, 1978

d)

Switzerland, 1979

2.

Who is the Canadian-American pharmacologist and physician was a reviewer for the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA), she refused to authorize thalidomide for market because she had concerns about the lack of evidence regarding the drug's safety.

a)

Darrell R. Abernethy

b)

Frances Oldham Kelsey

c)

Charles Antzelevitch

d)

Margaret Georgia Kelly

3.

The Pharmacovigilance Program of India (PvPI) was launched with a broad objective to safeguard the health of _____billion people of India

a)

2.0

b)

2.5

c)

1.27

d)

1.29

4.

In which year, PvPI- Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC), in Ghaziabad, India, became a WHO Collaborating Centre?

a)

2017

b)

2011

c)

2016

d)

1978

5.

With which three Collaborating centers the WHO Pharmacovigilance team works?

a)

Pharmacovigilance roche, Uppsala Monitoring centre, Pharmacovigilance Program of India

b)

Uppsala Monitoring centre, Pharmacovigilance Program of India, Global Pharmacovigilance

c)

Pharmacovigilance roche, Uppsala Monitoring centre, Global Pharmacovigilance

d)

Uppsala Monitoring centre, Centre Anti poison et de Pharmacovigilance du Maroc, Pharmacovigilance Program of India

6.

What are the various causality assessment categories?

a)

certain, possible, probable/likely, unlikely, conditional, and unassessable

b)

certain, possible, probable/likely, conditional, unlikely, and unassessable

c)

certain, probable/likely, possible, unlikely, conditional, and unassessable

d)

certain, possible, probable/likely, unlikely, unassessable, and conditional

7.

SUSAR: What does that mean?

a)

Suspected Unwanted Serious Adverse Reaction

b)

Suspected Unexpected Serious Adverse Reaction

c)

Serious Unexpected Suspected Adverse Reaction

d)

Serious Unwanted Suspected Adverse Reaction

8.

Volume 9A brings together general guidance on the requirements, procedures, roles and activities in the field of

a)

pharmacovigilance

b)

Marketing Authorisation Holders

c)

Competent Authorities of medicinal products

d)

All the above

9.

What is the Minimum Criterion Required For A Valid Case?

a)

An identifiable patient

b)

A suspect product

c)

An identifiable reporter

d)

An adverse drug event

10.

Explain the Hierarchy In Meddra?

a)

System Organ Class (SOC)

b)

High Level Term (HLT)

c)

High Level Group Term (HLGT)

d)

Lower Level Term (LLT)

11.

PV tools not used by UMC are

a)

VigiFlowTM

b)

VigiSearchTM

c)

VigiMineTM

d)

VigiPassTM

12.

What role does Pharmacovigilance play in Medical Affairs?

a)

The Robin Hoods of the Pharma world

b)

Dealing with negligent behavior during clinical drug trials

c)

Dealing with the enforcement of restrictions by the FDA during clinical trials

d)

Dealing with reports of adverse events in patients during clinical trials

13.

In the case of disaster, which of the following is not part of a contingency plan?

a)

data backup

b)

indemnification policy

c)

emergency mode operation

d)

disaster recovery

14.

Within Medical Affairs, what is the role of Medical Communications?

a)

Medical Communications is responsible for communicating unbiased non-promotional information, the company's products.

b)

Medical Communications is responsible for disseminating information that supports the positive outcomes of the company's products.

c)

Medical Communications acts as a relay centre between Medical Affairs and the outside world, performing triage and routing calls from healthcare professionals and patients

d)

Medical Communications is responsible for the brand messaging and marketing materials for a new product

15.

Council for International Organizations of Medical Sciences (CIOMS) Constituted in the year

a)

1948

b)

1949

c)

1947

d)

1950

16.

Adverse effect(s) of laxatives

a)

Dehydration

b)

Spastic colitis with stimulant laxatives

c)

Gastrointestinal obstruction with bulk forming agents

d)

Electrolyte disturbances (hypernatremia, hypokalemia)

e)

All of these options

17.

Grey baby syndrome occurs with which of the following drugs?

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Penicillin

c)

Clarithromycin

d)

Chloramphenicol

18.

Reversible Oligospermia is assoicated with which of the following drugs?

a)

Methotrexate

b)

Sulfasalazine

c)

Spironolactone

d)

Cimetidine

e)

Hydrocortisone

19.

Which of the following are Type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

Chrons disease

b)

Asthma

c)

Chrons disease and Rhematioid arthritis

d)

Rhematioid arthritis

e)

Asthma and Rhematioid arthritis

20.

Which one of the following drugs is least likely to cause drug induced blood dyscrasia or agranulocytosis?

a)

Clozapine

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Aminosalicylates such as sulfasalazine

d)

Phenytoin

e)

Carbimazole

21.

Which of these drugs causes Reye’s syndrome?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Aspirin

d)

Tramadol

22.

Hypothyroidism, diabetes insipidus, and weight gain are known side effects of which of these drugs?

a)

Pioglitazone

b)

Lithium

c)

Risperidone

d)

Levothyroxine

23.

“shake and bake reaction” is a response to the administration of which of these drugs?

a)

Flucytosine

b)

Ketoconazole

c)

Amphotericin B

d)

Caspofungin

24.

Which of these drugs is known to cause “hand-foot syndrome”?

a)

Busulfan

b)

Cyclophosphamide

c)

Irinotecan

d)

Capecitabine

25.

Tendon rupture / damage is a known side effect of which antimicrobial drug class?

a)

Fluoroquinolones

b)

Aminoglycosides

c)

Oxazolidinediones

d)

Macrolides

26.

Which of these drugs can cause a black tongue?

a)

Carbocisteine

b)

Bismuth subgallate

c)

Senna

d)

Loperamide

27.

Which of the following drugs causes xanthopsia?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Nilotinib

c)

Everolimus

d)

Warfarin

28.

Haloperidol causes Extrapyramidal effects. What type of ADR reaction is this?

a)

Type A (Augmented)

b)

Type B (Bizairre)

c)

Type C (Chronic)

d)

Type D (Delayed)

29.

Warfarin causes Bleeding, what type of ADR reaction is this?

a)

Type A (Augmented)

b)

Type B (Bizairre)

c)

Type C (Chronic)

d)

Type D (Delayed)

30.

Which is NOT the cause of IgE-mediated Hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Increased Vascular Permeability

b)

Bronchoconstriction

c)

Urticaria

d)

Angiospasm

31.

Amiodarone prolonged exposure leads to pulmonary fibrosis what type of ADR reaction is this?

a)

Type A (Augmented)

b)

Type B (Bizairre)

c)

Type C (Chronic)

d)

Type D (Delayed)

32.

Amlodipine causes Ankle swelling, what type of ADR reaction is this?

a)

Type A (Augmented)

b)

Type B (Bizairre)

c)

Type C (Chronic)

d)

Type D (Delayed)

33.

Which one of the following is NOT the Type C ADR reaction?

a)

NSAIDs – Analgesic nephropathy

b)

Dapsone – pneumonitis

c)

Steroids – Osteoporosis

d)

Amiodarone – Pulmonary fibrosis

34.

Which one of the following is Type D ADR reaction?

a)

Prazosin – Hypotension

b)

Antipsychotics – Tardive dyskinesia

c)

Anticonvulsant – Hypersensitivity

d)

Steroid withdrawal – adrenocortical insufficiency

35.

Which one of the following is Type E ADR reaction?

a)

Prazosin – Hypotension

b)

Antipsychotics – Tardive dyskinesia

c)

Anticonvulsant – Hypersensitivity

d)

Steroid withdrawal – adrenocortical insufficiency

36.

Which one of the following is Type A ADR reaction?

a)

Penicillin - anaphylaxis

b)

Anticoagulants – bleeding

c)

Paracetamol - hepatotoxicity

d)

Steroid withdrawal – adrenocortical insufficiency

37.

Which one of the following is Type B ADR reaction?

a)

Penicillin - anaphylaxis

b)

Anticoagulants – bleeding

c)

Paracetamol - hepatotoxicity

d)

Steroid withdrawal – adrenocortical insufficiency

38.

Which is not the drug and its effect that was discovered from ADR?

a)

Minoxidil – Hair growth

b)

Vincristine – Lymphocytic leukaemia

c)

Sulfonylureas – Hypoglycemia

d)

Acetazolamide – Diuresis

39.

Furosemide, Loop diuretic casues dehydration, what type of ADR reaction is this?

a)

Type A (Augmented)

b)

Type B (Bizairre)

c)

Type C (Chronic)

d)

Type D (Delayed)

40.

Temazepam induces daytime drowsiness. What type of ADR reaction is this?

a)

Type A (Augmented)

b)

Type B (Bizairre)

c)

Type C (Chronic)

d)

Type D (Delayed)