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grind sec

Total questions: 166

Worksheet time: 2hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A security administrator has been using EAP-FAST wireless authentication since the migration from WEP to WPA2. The company’s network team now needs to support additional authentication protocols inside of an encrypted tunnel. Which of the following would meet the network team’s requirements?

a)

EAP-TTLS

b)

EAP-TLS

c)

PEAP

d)

EAP-MSCHAPv2

2.

the foundational standard for Information Security Management Systems (ISMS).

a)

ISO 27001

b)

ISO 31000

c)

ISO 27701

d)

ISO 27002

3.

Which of the following standards provides information on privacy and managing PII?

a)

ISO 27701

b)

ISO 31000

c)

ISO 27002

d)

ISO 27001

4.

Information security controls are the focus of the _____ standard.

a)

ISO 27002

b)

ISO 31000

c)

ISO 27701

d)

ISO 27001

5.

sets international standards for risk management practices.

a)

ISO 31000

b)

ISO 27701

c)

ISO 27002

d)

ISO 27001

6.

FTPS

a)

AES

b)

TLS

7.

HTTPS

a)

TLS

b)

AES

8.

SRTP

a)

TLS

b)

AES

9.

Responsible for the organization's data privacy

a)

Data protection officer (DPO)

b)

Data owners

c)

Data processor

d)

Data controller

e)

Data custodian/steward

10.

Associates sensitivity labels to data and complies with laws

a)

Data protection officer (DPO)

b)

Data owners

c)

Data processor

d)

Data controller

e)

Data custodian/steward

11.

Processes data on behalf of the data controller. Often a 3rd party.

a)

Data protection officer (DPO)

b)

Data owners

c)

Data processor

d)

Data controller

e)

Data custodian/steward

12.

Manages the purposes and means by which data is processed

a)

Data protection officer (DPO)

b)

Data owners

c)

Data processor

d)

Data controller

e)

Data custodian/steward

13.

Associates sensitivity labels to data

a)

steward/custodian

b)

controller

c)

owner

14.

Controls implemented using systems (firewalls, antivirus, etc)

a)

Technical

b)

Managerial

c)

Operational

15.

Controls that are implemented by people (security guards, etc)

a)

Technical

b)

Managerial

c)

Operational

16.

Controls that address security design and implementation

a)

Technical

b)

Managerial

c)

Operational

17.

SOAR: conditional steps to follow. a broad process

a)

playbook

b)

runbook

18.

SOAR: linear checklist of steps to perform

a)

playbook

b)

runbook

19.

ASCII formatted file that contains certs and chain certificates.

a)

P7B

b)

DER

c)

P12

d)

Privacy enhanced mail (PEM)

e)

.cer

20.

Common windows format. Usually contains only public key.

a)

P7B

b)

DER

c)

P12

d)

Privacy enhanced mail (PEM)

e)

.cer

21.

Often used to transfer a private and public keypair.

a)

P7B

b)

DER

c)

P12

d)

Privacy enhanced mail (PEM)

e)

.cer

22.

Store many x.509 certs in 1 file. Can be password protected

a)

P7B

b)

DER

c)

P12

d)

Privacy enhanced mail (PEM)

e)

.cer

23.

Base64 encoded DER cert. Good for email.

a)

P7B

b)

DER

c)

P12

d)

Privacy enhanced mail (PEM)

e)

.cer

24.

Certificate format often used for Java applications

a)

P7B

b)

DER

c)

P12

d)

Privacy enhanced mail (PEM)

e)

.cer

25.

Standard for digital certificates

a)

x.509

b)

DER

c)

P7B

d)

Wildcard

26.

Who gets access and what they get access to

(a)  

27.

VPN: Connecting sites over a layer 3 network as if they were connected at layer 2. (often implemented with IPSEC)

(a)  

28.

Block cipher mode / acts like a stream cipher

a)

CTR (Counter)

b)

ECB (Electronic code book)

c)

CBC (Cipher block chaining)

d)

GCM (Galois/Counter mode)

29.

Each block is XORed with the previous ciphertext block.

a)

CTR (Counter)

b)

ECB (Electronic code book)

c)

CBC (Cipher block chaining)

d)

GCM (Galois/Counter mode)

30.

Backup type that backs up what has changed since the last full backup

a)

Differential

b)

Incremental

31.

Backup type that backs up what has changed since the last backup. Restoring requires every backup in between

a)

Differential

b)

Incremental

32.

Create a central place for all of the diverse cloud providers

a)

Service Integration and Management (SIAM)

b)

Managed service provider

c)

Microservices API

d)

IaaS

33.

What allows for log collection, aggregation, long term storage and more?

(a)  

34.

Military use of influence campaigns.

(a)  

35.

Targeted phishing attack where the victim believes the sender is someone they know.

a)

Spear phishing

b)

Smishing

c)

Vishing

d)

Spam

36.

Phishing attack targeted at high level members of a company.

a)

Whaling

b)

Spear Phishing

c)

Pharming

d)

Vishing

e)

Spam

37.

The browser can check for certificate revocation

(a)  

38.

IMAP using SSL

a)

tcp/993

b)

tcp/995

c)

tcp/587

39.

POP3 using SSL

a)

tcp/993

b)

tcp/995

c)

tcp/587

40.

SMTP with authentication

a)

tcp/993

b)

tcp/995

c)

tcp/587

41.

Form of EAP that utilizes a shared secret (PAC)

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

PEAP

c)

EAP-TLS

d)

EAP-TTLS

e)

MSCHAPv2

42.

Form of EAP where authentication server uses a digital certificate.

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

PEAP

c)

EAP-TLS

d)

EAP-TTLS

e)

MSCHAPv2

43.

Often combined with PEAP

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

PEAP

c)

EAP-TLS

d)

EAP-TTLS

e)

MSCHAPv2

44.

Form of authentication compatible with a GTC (generic token card, hardware token generator)

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

PEAP

c)

EAP-TLS

d)

EAP-TTLS

e)

MSCHAPv2

45.

Form of EAP that requires digital certificates on ALL devices.

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

PEAP

c)

EAP-TLS

d)

EAP-TTLS

e)

MSCHAPv2

46.

Form of EAP that supports other protocols inside a TLS tunnel

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

PEAP

c)

EAP-TLS

d)

EAP-TTLS

e)

MSCHAPv2

47.

Eduroam uses what?

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

PEAP

c)

EAP-TLS

d)

EAP-TTLS

e)

Radius federation

48.

Which of the following can be used to apply security policies to cloud-based implementations?

a)

CASB

b)

MSSP

c)

CSP

d)

VPN

49.

Which part of the PC startup process verifies the digital signature of the OS kernel?

a)

Trusted Boot

b)

Measured Boot

c)

Secure Boot

d)

POST

50.

Which part of the PC startup process verifies the digital signature of the bootloader?

a)

Trusted Boot

b)

Measured Boot

c)

Secure Boot

d)

POST

51.

Which part of the PC startup process verifies that nothing on the computer has been changed by malicious software or other processes?

a)

Trusted Boot

b)

Measured Boot

c)

Secure Boot

d)

POST

52.

Which of the following would be the BEST way to confirm the secure baseline of a deployed application instance?

a)

Perform an integrity measurement

b)

Compare the production application to the sandbox

c)

Perform QA testing on the application instance

d)

Compare the production application to the previous version

53.

Which of the following provides a ticket-based system to provide SSO?

a)

TACACS+

b)

LDAPS

c)

Kerberos

d)

802.1X

54.

the expected lifetime of a nonrepairable product or system

a)

MTTF

b)

MTBF

55.

prediction of how often a repairable system will fail.

a)

MTTF

b)

MTBF

56.

Command used for reading or writing data to the network.

a)

netcat

b)

nmap

c)

netstat

d)

dig

57.

Port scanning and reconnaissance utility

a)

netcat

b)

nmap

c)

netstat

d)

dig

58.

Restoring from a backup after an attack would be what type of security control?

a)

detective

b)

managerial

c)

compensating

d)

physical

59.

Encrypted data is very different from original plaintext.

a)

Confusion

b)

Diffusion

c)

Collision

d)

Obfuscation

60.

Even changing one character in the plaintext will drastically change the encryption output.

a)

Confusion

b)

Diffusion

c)

Collision

d)

Obfuscation

61.

Contains a hash of the IPSec packet to provide integrity of the data.

a)

Authentication Header

b)

Encapsulation Security Payload

c)

Hash-based Message Authentication Code

d)

Electronic Codebook

62.

manages access rights and sets security controls to the data.

a)

Data custodian/steward

b)

Data processor

c)

Privacy officer

d)

Data owner

63.

This form of EAP requires a radius server

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

PEAP

c)

EAP-TLS

d)

EAP-TTLS

e)

MSCHAPv2

64.

Netstat flag which disables domain name resolution

a)

-n

b)

-b

c)

-a

d)

-f

65.

Netstat flag which shows active connections and also shows which TCP and UDP ports are listening for a connection.

a)

-n

b)

-b

c)

-a

d)

-f

66.

Netstat flag which shows what programs are in control of what connections

a)

-n

b)

-b

c)

-a

d)

-f

67.

Netstat flag which shows fully qualified domain names in the foreign address column.

a)

-n

b)

-b

c)

-a

d)

-f

68.

type the command in to view the last 5 lines of syslog

(a)  

69.

When an unauthorized person is let in willingly (holding the door for example)

a)

piggyback

b)

tailgating

70.

When an unauthorized individual enters a restricted-access building by following an authorized user.

a)

piggyback

b)

tailgating

71.

fire extinguisher class for common combustibles

a)

CLASS A

b)

CLASS B

c)

CLASS C

d)

CLASS D

72.

fire extinguisher class for liquids

a)

CLASS A

b)

CLASS B

c)

CLASS C

d)

CLASS D

73.

fire extinguisher class for electrical fires

a)

CLASS A

b)

CLASS B

c)

CLASS C

d)

CLASS D

74.

fire extinguisher class for flammable metals

a)

CLASS A

b)

CLASS B

c)

CLASS C

d)

CLASS D

75.

DES block size

(a)  

76.

DES key size (a)   bits

77.

DES rounds

(a)  

78.

Triple DES block size

(a)  

79.

Triple DES key size ___ or ___ bits

(a)  

80.

Triple DES rounds

(a)  

81.

IDEA PGP block size

(a)  

82.

IDEA PGP key size (a)   bits

83.

IDEA PGP rounds

(a)  

84.

Blowfish block size

(a)  

85.

Blowfish key size __-____ bits

(a)  

86.

Blowfish rounds

(a)  

87.

Skipjack block size

(a)  

88.

Skipjack key size (a)   bits

89.

RC2 block size

(a)  

90.

RC2 key size (a)   bits

91.

RC4 block size

(a)  

92.

RC4 key size ___-____ bits

(a)  

93.

RC5 RSA block size __, __. __

(a)  

94.

RC5 RSA key size ___-____ bits

(a)  

95.

RC5 RSA rounds

(a)  

96.

AES block size

(a)  

97.

AES key size ___, ____, ____ bit key

(a)  

98.

AES rounds __, __, __

(a)  

99.

Two fish block size

(a)  

100.

Two fish key size _- (a)   bits

101.

Two Fish rounds

(a)  

102.

RSA is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

103.

ECC is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

104.

Diffie-Hellman is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

105.

El - Gamal is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

106.

Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA) is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

107.

Merkle-Hellman Knapsack is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

108.

AES is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

109.

DES is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

110.

3DES is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

111.

IDEA PGP is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

112.

Blowfish is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

113.

Skipjack is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

114.

RC2 is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

115.

RC4 is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

116.

RC5 is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

117.

Two Fish is

a)

asymmetric

b)

symmetric

118.

Which mode of IPSEC leaves the header untouched?

a)

transport

b)

tunnel

119.

IPSEC mode which encrypts both header and payload

a)

transport

b)

tunnel

120.

WPA2 uses

a)

AES-CCMP

b)

AES-SAE

121.

WPA3 uses

a)

AES-CCMP

b)

AES-SAE

122.

Firewalls and routers are a good example of

a)

rule based access control

b)

role based access control

c)

Mandatory access control

d)

Discretionary access control

123.

chmod - execute

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

124.

chmod - write

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

125.

chmod - read

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

126.

Who is affected by a disaster

a)

stakeholders

b)

Network infrastructure

c)

IT departments

127.

A predetermined set of instructions or procedures that describe how an organization's mission-essential functions will be sustained within 12 hours and for up to 30 days as a result of a disaster event before returning to normal operations.

a)

continuity of operations plan

b)

Business Continuity Plan

c)

Disaster Recovery Plan

d)

contingency plan

128.

defines strategies on how to continue the business in case of a catastrophic event. It details what you will do to keep the business running while systems are down.

a)

continuity of operations plan

b)

Business Continuity Plan

c)

Disaster Recovery Plan

d)

contingency plan

129.

details how to recover from a major event. How to get the systems back to normal. It's about restoring the state before the catastrophic event and how fast you'll get there and how much data you'd lose in terms of RTO, RPO.

a)

continuity of operations plan

b)

Business Continuity Plan

c)

Disaster Recovery Plan

d)

contingency plan

130.

an agreement between two or more parties to enable them to work together that is not legally enforceable but is more formal than an unwritten agreement.

a)

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

b)

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

c)

Measurement systems analysis (MSA)

131.

the maximum tolerable time to restore an organization's information system following a disaster, representing the length of time that the organization is willing to attempt to function without its information system

a)

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

b)

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

c)

Disaster Recovery Plan

d)

SOC 2

132.

a metric that measures the maximum amount of data loss an organization can tolerate in the event of a disruption such as a cyber attack or data breach. It helps in determining how frequently data should be backed up to minimize potential data loss

a)

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

b)

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

c)

Disaster Recovery Plan

d)

SOC 2

133.

focuses on restoring IT systems and infrastructure

a)

continuity of operations plan

b)

Business Continuity Plan

c)

Disaster Recovery Plan

d)

contingency plan

134.

focuses on maintaining critical business functions

a)

continuity of operations plan

b)

Business Continuity Plan

c)

Disaster Recovery Plan

d)

contingency plan

135.

type the incident response acronym

(a)  

136.

Two parties can verify non-repudiation.

a)

Message Authentication Code (MAC)

b)

Digitial Signature

137.

Non-repudiation that can be publicly verified

a)

Message Authentication Code (MAC)

b)

Digitial Signature

138.

Includes 20 key actions (the critical security controls)

a)

CIS CSC

b)

NIST RMF

c)

NIST CSF

d)

SOC 2

139.

6 step process that is mandatory for federal agencies and organizations that handle federal data

a)

CIS CSC

b)

NIST RMF

c)

NIST CSF

d)

SOC 2

140.

Which step of the NIST RMF is this: "Categorize - define the enviornment"

(a)  

141.

Which step of the NIST RMF is this: "Select - Pick appropriate controls"

(a)  

142.

Which step of the NIST RMF is this: "Implement - define proper implementation"

(a)  

143.

Which step of the NIST RMF is this: "Assess - determine if controls are working"

(a)  

144.

Which step of the NIST RMF is this: "Authorize - make decision to authorize a system"

(a)  

145.

Which step of the NIST RMF is this: "Monitor - check for ongoing compliance"

(a)  

146.

A voluntary commercial framework. (Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and recover)

a)

CIS CSC

b)

NIST RMF

c)

NIST CSF

d)

SOC 2

147.

Type of audit that focuses on firewalls, intrusion detection, and mfa

a)

CIS CSC

b)

NIST RMF

c)

NIST CSF

d)

SOC 2

148.

Tests controls in place at a particular point in time

a)

SOC 2 type I audit

b)

SOC 2 type II audit

149.

Tests controls over a period of at least 6 months

a)

SOC 2 type I audit

b)

SOC 2 type II audit

150.

Cloud specific security controls, and controls are mapped to standards, best practices and regulations

a)

CIS CSC

b)

NIST RMF

c)

CCM (Cloud Controls Matrix)

d)

SOC 2

151.

An enterprise app catalog is provided by what?

(a)  

152.

Two people must be preset to perform the business function

a)

dual control

b)

Split knowledge

153.

No one person has all of the details

a)

dual control

b)

Split knowledge

154.

What process verifies device drivers during windows startup

a)

Trusted Boot

b)

Measured Boot

c)

Secure Boot

d)

ELAM

155.

"what if" scenarios based on specific events, that establish the "play book" to follow should that event (and assumed impacts) occur.

a)

continuity of operations plan

b)

Business Continuity Plan

c)

Disaster Recovery Plan

d)

contingency plan

156.

Windows command to view the device's routing table

(a)  

157.

explains how an "adversary" exploits a "capability" over an "infrastructure" against a "victim" in simple terms.

a)

Diamond Model of intrusion analysis

b)

NIST Risk Management Framework

c)

ISO/IEC 27701

d)

MITRE Att&CK Framework

158.

6 step process which is mandatory for federal agencies or orgs that handle federal data

a)

Diamond Model of intrusion analysis

b)

NIST Risk Management Framework

c)

ISO/IEC 27701

d)

MITRE Att&CK Framework

159.

Privacy info management systems

a)

Diamond Model of intrusion analysis

b)

NIST Risk Management Framework

c)

ISO/IEC 27701

d)

MITRE Att&CK Framework

160.

Identify potential security techniques to block future attacks, understand methods used to move around

a)

Diamond Model of intrusion analysis

b)

NIST Risk Management Framework

c)

ISO/IEC 27701

d)

MITRE Att&CK Framework

161.

Taking the risk as is

a)

Acceptance

b)

Transference

c)

Mitigation

d)

Risk avoidance

162.

Buying cyber security insurance

a)

Acceptance

b)

Transference

c)

Mitigation

d)

Risk avoidance

163.

Decrease the risk level (example - investing in security systems)

a)

Acceptance

b)

Transference

c)

Mitigation

d)

Risk avoidance

164.

Stop participating in high risk activity

a)

Acceptance

b)

Transference

c)

Mitigation

d)

Risk avoidance

165.

US federal law that requires public companies to implement controls and procedures to ensure the accuracy and security of financial data and systems, and to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of financial information and systems.

a)

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

b)

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

c)

Measurement systems analysis (MSA)

d)

SOX

166.

Assess the measurement process and calculate measurement uncertainty.

a)

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

b)

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

c)

Measurement systems analysis (MSA)

d)

SOX