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air,pressure,vent, APU, auto flight, communication, electric

Total questions: 159

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Conditioned air is distributed to

a)

Cockpit, cargo bays and cabin

b)

Cockpit, fwd and aft cabins

c)

Cockpit, avionics bay and cabin

d)

Cockpit, cabin and holds 1 and 2 only

2.

Hot air fault light illuminates on the air conditioning panel

a)

The hot air press. reg. valve opens and the trim air valves close.

b)

The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves open

c)

The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close

d)

The hot air press. reg. valve opens and the trim air valves open.

3.

Does the trim air provide the warm air or the cold air to the air conditioning system?

a)

Cold air

b)

Warm air

4.

In case of zone controller primary and secondary channel failure, what temperatures are maintained by pack one and pack two?

a)

15 deg.C both

b)

25 deg.C both

c)

20 deg.C for pack one and 10 deg.C for pack two

d)

24 deg.C for pack one and 15 deg.C for pack two

5.

In normal flight in closed circuit configuration, the avionics ventilation system controls the temperature of the cooling air by

a)

Adding air conditioned air to the flow

b)

Extracting air overboard

c)

Adding avionics bay air

d)

Passing air through a skin heat exchanger

6.

To enable Ram air to the mixture unit, The Ram air switch should be used

a)

At any time

b)

Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi

c)

When pressure is greater than 1 psi diff

d)

Only after outflow valve is fully opened

7.

Pack controller, primary channel failure.

a)

The secondary computer operates as a backup mode and regulation is not optimized

b)

The secondary computer takes over (all functions as normal)

c)

Pack is lost

d)

Pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 deg.C

8.

Pack controller, secondary channel failure

a)

No effect on pack regulation backup mode is lost

b)

Pack is lost

c)

No effect (all modes still available)

d)

Pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 deg.C'

9.

Pack controller, primary and secondary channel failure

a)

Pack outlet temperature is controlled to between 5 and 30 deg.C by the anti-ice valve

b)

The pack is closed

c)

The packs deliver a fixed temperature of 20 deg.C

10.

Hot air press. reg. valve failed open:

a)

Optimized regulation is lost

b)

The temperature stays at the value selected

c)

No effect

d)

Cabin temperature will be controlled at the upper limit 30 deg.C

11.

Bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed valve open), the pack flow is automatically selected:

a)

High

b)

Normal

c)

Low

d)

Econ. Flow

12.

Trim air valve, each one optimizes the temperature by:

a)

Adding hot air

b)

Adding fresh air

c)

Modulating of pack flow

d)

Adding re-circulated air

13.

Hot air pressure regulating valve

a)

Regulates the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs

b)

Is spring loaded open in the absence of air

c)

Opens automatically in case of duct overheat

d)

Opens automatically if the cabin trim air valve fail

14.

Pack flow control valve

a)

Is pneumatically operated and electrically controlled

b)

Electrically operated and pneumatically controlled

c)

Opens automatically during engine starting

d)

Is spring loaded to open.

15.

Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied:

a)

The minimum idle must be increased manually

b)

The minimum idle is increased automatically

c)

In any case, flight idle is sufficient

d)

The APU must be used to supply additional air

16.

What is the Norm.Max. cabin altitude

a)

8,000 ft

b)

9,550 ft +/- 350 f

c)

14,000 ft

d)

800 ft

17.

What is the Max. negative Diff. pressure for the cabin

a)

0 psi

b)

1 psi

c)

2 psi

d)

8.6 psi

18.

It is permissible to use simultaneously packs and Lp ground unit during long stops in a hot airfield

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

es, if external temperature is greater than 50 deg.C

d)

Yes, provided the airflow supplied by the ground cart is less than 1.2 kg/s

19.

What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurization?

a)

Engine bleed air and recirculated air (only on ground)

b)

Engine bleed air and recirculated air

c)

Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and recirculated air.

d)

Engine bleed air only

20.

During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position would you expect to find the avionics ventilation system INLET and EXTRACT valves to be in?

a)

Closed

b)

Open

c)

Closed or open regarding of the APU bleed valve.

d)

Closed or open

21.

What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start?

a)

They must be selected off

b)

They must be selected off on cold days only

c)

They must be selected off on hot days only

d)

They automatically close.

22.

The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of

a)

A HOT AIR valve

b)

A ZONE control valve

c)

A PACK FLOW VALVE

d)

A TRIM AIR valve.

23.

When does normal pressurization occur?

a)

After second engine start

b)

Pressurization occurs during taxi

c)

Pressurization occurs during the takeoff roll

d)

After rotation.

24.

When does normal depressurization occur?

a)

100 feet AGL above touchdown

b)

It is complete 1 minute after touchdown

c)

After flap retraction

d)

On landing touchdow

25.

Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to LO?

a)

With a low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and improve fuel efficiency

b)

With a low passenger load to increase cabin temperature

c)

With a high passenger load to reduce cabin temperature

d)

In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature range.

26.

Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL VALVE fault light?

a)

Automatically closes the aft cargo compartment isolation valves

b)

Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the switch position

c)

Indicates that the extract fan has stopped

d)

All of the above.

27.

Pressurization controllers receive inputs from:

a)

LGCIU, ADIRU, FMGS, and EIU

b)

LGCIU’s and the MCDU.

c)

LGCIU’s and pitot static sources.

d)

MCDU and LGCIU’s.

28.

What computers control the cabin and cockpit conditioned air?

a)

Two zone controllers that pass information and requests to two pack controllers

b)

Two pack controllers that pass information and requests to three zone controllers

c)

Three zone controllers that pass information and instructions to two pack controllers for three zones

d)

One zone controller that passes information and instructions to two pack controllers for three zones

29.

When would you select RAM AIR ON?

a)

If additional cooling is required on the ground

b)

Dual pack failure or smoke removal.

c)

When pack temperatures are too high

d)

When there is smoke in the cabin.

30.

What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted?

a)

A signal is sent to the zone controller requesting a different temperature

b)

Nothing as there is no relationship between a temperature selector knob and the trim air valve

c)

The associated trim air valve immediately moves to a different position.

31.

With APU BLEED ON and engine BLEED switches ON with engines running, what is the position of the engine bleed valves?

a)

Closed

b)

Open

c)

Depends on the crossbleed selector

32.

Pressurization is normally automatic. Can you interfere with it?

a)

Yes, CABIN PRESS MODE SEL to OVERRIDE and MAN V/S CTL toggle switch

b)

Yes, manually set landing elevation using the LND ELEV AUTO selector

c)

Both are correct

33.

Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to HI?

a)

In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature range.

b)

With a low passenger load to increase cabin air flow.

c)

With a high passenger load in hot conditions in order to help reduce the cabin temperature.

34.

What is the function of the ram air valve?

a)

Ventilation while on the ground

b)

Emergency smoke removal and ventilation in the event of dual pack failure.

c)

Avionics cooling

d)

Cargo ventilation & avionics cooling

35.

Placing the EXTRACT push button to override:

a)

De-energizes the extract fan

b)

Places the avionics ventilation system in the closed configuration

c)

Insures the extract fan will continue to be energized

d)

Places the avionics ventilation system in the open configuration.

36.

The Ram Air valve:

a)

Should be opened for increased ventilation while on the ground

b)

Will open automatically after engine start

c)

Should be opened for increased ventilation while in flight

d)

Must be manually activated.

37.

What limitation is associated with the ram air valve?

a)

Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1 psi

b)

Only open while on the ground

c)

Will not open if the DITCHING switch is off

d)

Operation is automatic

38.

With the pressurization system in the automatic mode, which valves are closed when the ditching push button is selected on?

a)

All valves below the water line

b)

APU inlet

c)

The engine bleed valves.

d)

Only the avionics cooling valves.

39.

What is the maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin?

a)

0 psi

b)

1 psi

c)

2 psi

d)

3 psi.

40.

The HOT AIR valve push button controls:

a)

The trim air valve

b)

The hot air manifold.

c)

The engine bleed valves

d)

The pack flow control valve

41.

To start the APU the:

a)

BAT 1 and 2 push buttons must be selected to ON

b)

BAT 1 and 2 push buttons do not need to be selected ON if external power is available

c)

Both are correct.

42.

The Electronic Control Box (ECB) is primarily a full authority digital electronic controller that performs the APU system logic for all modes of APU operation such as:

a)

Sequence and monitoring of start

b)

Speed and temperature monitoring

c)

Monitoring of bleed air and shut down

d)

All of the above

43.

When the APU Master Switch is released, a normal APU shutdown occurs:

a)

Without delay in all cases

b)

With a delay, in all cases

c)

With a delay if the bleed air was in use

44.

When selected on, the APU START push button, will:

a)

Connect the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system

b)

Start the APU if the APU MASTER SW was previously selected ON

c)

Open the air intake flap and supply fuel pressure.

45.

The APU has an integral independent lubrication system for lubrication and cooling.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The ECB (Electronic Control Box) controls the fuel flow.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

When the APU MASTER SW is selected ON:

a)

The APU computer automatically completes a self-test, opens the air intake flap and supplies fuel pressure

b)

The APU computer automatically starts the APU

c)

Connects the APU generator to the aircraft electrical system

d)

The APU door opens.

48.

The APU MASTER SW FAULT light will illuminate:

a)

When APU low oil pressure is detected

b)

When an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs

c)

For an APU overheat or APU fire

d)

If the batteries are selected OFF while the APU is operating

49.

The APU may be started up to what altitude?

a)

The APU can be started at any altitude using normal aircraft electrical power

b)

The APU can be started up to 35,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.

c)

The APU can be started up to 30,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.

d)

The APU can be started up to 25,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries

50.

The APU system page will appear on the ECAM:

a)

When selected by the crew

b)

Automatically whenever the APU is started and AC power is available

c)

Both are correct.

51.

If APU bleed was used, after a manual shut down sequence, the APU:

a)

Stops immediately

b)

Keeps running for 4 minutes

c)

Keeps running for 2 minutes

d)

Keeps running for 60 second

52.

With the engines off, if the AVAIL light is illuminated on both the APU START push button and the EXT PWR push button, what is the source of electrical power for the aircraft busses?

a)

It is not possible to determine without checking the ECAM

b)

The aircraft batteries

c)

The APU

d)

External power

53.

BAT 1 and 2 push buttons do not need to be selected ON if external power is available.

a)

It is normally left in the lights out position

b)

When selected OFF, the APU generator is de-energized

c)

Both are correct.

54.

What is the maximum altitude at which the APU may be started using the batteries only?

a)

15, 000 ft

b)

20, 000 ft

c)

25, 000 ft

d)

39, 000 ft

55.

When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump:

a)

Runs when tank pumps pressure is not sufficient

b)

Runs all time

c)

Runs only in flight.

d)

Runs when the APU fuel pump is selected on.

56.

The APU BLEED valve is automatically closed above ______ feet descending by the ECB.

a)

23,000 feet

b)

26,000 feet

c)

28,000 feet

d)

29,000 feet

57.

With nobody in the cockpit, if you have an APU FIRE, which statement is correct?

a)

On the ground, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically

b)

On the ground, you have to perform the ECAM actions to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire from the cockpit.

c)

On the ground an APU AUTO shut down will occur but you have to discharge the APU fire bottle manually.

d)

In the air, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically

58.

The basic element of the APU is a single shaft gas turbine which delivers ______ power for driving the accessory gearbox (electrical generator) and produces bleed air (engine starting and pneumatic supply)

a)

2nd stage compressor

b)

3rd stage turbine

c)

2nd stage turbine

d)

Mechanical shaft

59.

Fire on ground or in flight will cause the APU MASTER SW pushbutton FAULT light to come on.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

With battery power, what would an APU fire test look like?

a)

APU FIRE pushbutton illuminated

b)

SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminated

c)

Both are correct.

61.

The starter engages if the air intake is closed and the MASTER SW and the START pushbuttons are ON.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

A FLAP OPEN indication is displayed in amber when the APU air inlet flaps is fully open

a)

True

b)

False

63.

The APU may obtain power for starting from:

a)

Ground services

b)

Normal aircraft supply

c)

The aircraft’s batteries or in combination with the external power

d)

All of the above.

64.

The APU cannot be shut down from outside the aircraft. A: . B:

a)

True

b)

False

65.

What are some of the causes for an APU automatic shutdown?

a)

Fire (on ground only), EGT overtemperature, No acceleration, low oil pressure

b)

Fire (on ground only), EGT overtemperature, Underspeed, Overspeed, low oil pressure, high oil pressure

c)

Fire (on ground only), EGT overtemperature, Reverse flow, Overspeed, low oil pressure, high oil pressure

d)

Fire (on ground only), underspeed, overspeed, EGT overtemperature, Reverse flow, Low oil pressure, DC power loss

66.

Maximum altitude for APU bleed operation is:

a)

15, 000 ft

b)

18, 000 ft

c)

20, 000 ft

d)

22, 000 ft

67.

Can the APU FIRE test be performed with the APU running?

a)

Yes

b)

No

68.

The APU is supplied from the:

a)

Left fuel feed line

b)

Right fuel feed line

c)

Left or right fuel line

69.

: On ground, the No Break Power Transfer function is inhibited in case of APU shutdown generated by which of the following conditions?

a)

Automatic APU shut down triggered by the ECB

b)

APU shut down from the REFUEL/DEFUEL panel or from the APU FIRE pushbutton.

c)

APU shut down from emergency control provided on the external power panel

d)

All of the above

70.

The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

a)

Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

b)

Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands

c)

Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

d)

AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.

71.

How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

a)

Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU

b)

Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU

c)

Both are correct.

72.

What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

a)

The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard

b)

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard

c)

The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.

d)

The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

73.

What information is supplied by the IR’s and displayed on the PFD?

a)

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed

b)

Heading, altitude, and vertical speed

c)

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed

d)

Heading, attitude, and altitude.

74.

How long does a normal IR alignment take?

a)

Approximately 3 minutes

b)

Approximately 6 minutes

c)

Approximately 10 minutes

d)

Approximately 13 minutes.

75.

The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

a)

Alignment has been completed.

b)

Air data output has been disconnected

c)

The respective IR is operating normally

76.

An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

a)

Present position needs to be reentered

b)

Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode

c)

A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

77.

: What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:

a)

Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3

b)

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

c)

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3

d)

Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

78.

A/THR in white means that A/THR is:

a)

Disconnected

b)

Armed

c)

Active

79.

The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

a)

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON

b)

No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

c)

Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist

80.

What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

a)

Check Data Base Cycle.

b)

Check Data Base Date

c)

Check Effective Date

d)

Check the changeover date.

81.

Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

a)

The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.

b)

The respective ADIRU will become deenergized

c)

Both AD and IR information will be disconnected

d)

All of the above

82.

While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha prot range:

a)

The flight controls revert to direct law

b)

The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law

c)

The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

83.

: What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

a)

1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off

b)

1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.

84.

What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

a)

FMGC 1 & 2 position difference exceeds limits

b)

FMGC position & actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

c)

FMCG position & IR position difference exceeds limits.

85.

The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

a)

Yes, by setting a higher speed target

b)

Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

c)

No, because the A/THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.

86.

What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFD’s?

a)

Heading, attitude, and vertical speed

b)

Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed

c)

Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

d)

Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed

87.

Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

a)

Yes

b)

No

88.

During the takeoff phase:

a)

SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference

b)

SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.

c)

SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

89.

: If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

a)

AD and IR information will be disconnected.

b)

AD information will be disconnected

c)

IR information will be disconnected.

d)

The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

90.

Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

a)

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law

b)

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law

c)

Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

91.

Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

a)

Pitch attitude

b)

Vls

c)

ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)

d)

Alpha floor.

92.

What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

a)

Speed brakes have a fault.

b)

Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.

c)

Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle

d)

All of the above

93.

If LOW ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach restrictions?

a)

No

b)

Yes, ILS approach only

c)

Yes, both LNAV and VNAV approaches are forbidden.

94.

The DDRMI provides the pilot with:

a)

Bearing only for VOR 1.

b)

Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

c)

Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

d)

Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

95.

The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:

a)

When one or more IR’s are operating on aircraft battery power.

b)

For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process

c)

Both are correct.

96.

If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?

a)

FACs

b)

SECs

c)

Elevator and stabilizer revert to mechanical backup.

d)

Backup mode of ELAC’s

97.

Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?

a)

DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #2, ND #2 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM.

b)

ADMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and UPPER ECAM.

c)

DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.

d)

DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.

98.

While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command:

a)

A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch attitude

b)

Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight and level flight.

c)

Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and maintain its current attitude.

99.

In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most complete list?

a)

Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, and High speed

b)

Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank, and High speed.

c)

Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Vls, Alpha floor, and High speed

d)

Protections, Load Factor and Pitch attitude

100.

The audio management system allows the flight crew to use:

a)

All the radio communication and radio navigation facilities installed on the aircraft in transmission and reception mode

b)

The interphone system.

c)

The call systems and Passenger Address (PA) system. T

d)

All of the above

101.

How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the aircraft?

a)

A: Use the MECH pushbutton on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn

b)

Hold the PA button

c)

Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP

d)

Select the MECH transmission key on the ACP and hold the pushbutton for 2 seconds.

102.

If the VHF 3 transmission key illuminated amber showing the word “CALL”

a)

An ACARS message is waiting

b)

Indicates a SELCAL

c)

The N°1 flight attendant is calling

d)

ATC is calling

103.

RMP #1 is dedicated to which VHF radios?

a)

VHF 1 and 2

b)

VHF 2 and 3

c)

VHF 1 and 3

d)

All radios.

104.

On RMP, the ON/OFF switch controls:

a)

The power supply to the RMP

b)

Only the STBY NAV function of the RMP.

c)

Only the COM function of the RMP.

105.

You can tune the ILS receivers to different channels.

a)

Yes

b)

No

106.

If you depress the guarded NAV button, the MCDU RAD NAV pages are inhibited and the RMP controls navaid tuning.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Which ACP switch configuration is correct for communication with other cockpit crew members while wearing your Oxygen Mask?

a)

ACP INT/RAD switch selected to INT, INT reception knob on, loud speaker volume up

b)

INT transmission key to on, INT reception knob on, use the sidestick push-to-talk when speaking, loud speaker volume up

c)

Both are correct

108.

The AUDIO SWITCHING rotary selector allows replacement of a failed #1 or #2 ACP with ACP #3.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

Which statement is correct regarding the cockpit voice recorder?

a)

Is automatically energized when the battery pb’s are selected on

b)

Is always active after DC electrical power is applied to the aircraft

c)

Is automatically energized when the parking brake is set

d)

Is automatically energized after the first engine start or five minutes after AC electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

110.

How do you erase the CVR?

a)

Press the CVR ERASE pushbutton when the aircraft is on the ground with the parking brake set

b)

Press the CVR ERASE pushbutton for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on the ground with the parking brake set

c)

Press the CVR ERASE pushbutton and CVR TEST pushbuttons for 2 seconds simultaneously

d)

Press the CVR ERASE pushbutton and CVR TEST pushbuttons for 2 seconds simultaneously (with the parking brake set).

111.

On the ground, CVR is stopped automatically ______ after the last engine shutdown.

a)

Immediately

b)

1 minute

c)

3 minute

d)

5 minute

112.

On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR manually by pressing the GND CTL pushbutton.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Only the last 60 minutes of recording are retained by the CVR.

a)

True

b)

False

114.

To make a PA announcement:

a)

Depress and hold the PA transmission key push button

b)

Use the pedestal mounted headset

c)

Both are correct

115.

The service interphone has ______ interphone jacks and an OVRD switch located on the overhead panel.

a)

Five

b)

Seven

c)

Eight

d)

Ten

116.

When selecting the guarded RMP NAV key:

a)

Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is still possible

b)

Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is always possible

c)

FMGC auto tuning is inhibited.

d)

Manual tuning via the MCDU RAD NAV page is only possible on the offside radio.

117.

If an RMP fails, the selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP and frequencies and bars disappear from this RMP.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

You receive a SELCAL on VHF 2, what happens on your ACP?

a)

Amber sign call flashes on VHF 2 key

b)

Three green bars come on

c)

White SELCAL appears on VHF 2 pushbutton and VHF 2 reception selector illuminates white

d)

All of the above

119.

If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, SEL light illuminates white:

a)

On RMP 2

b)

On RMP 1

c)

On RMP 1 and 2

120.

In case of RMP 2 failure, VHF 2 is lost.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

When looking at either RMP, how is it possible to determine if an RMP is selected to a VHF system it is not dedicated to?

a)

The white SEL light will be illuminated on both RMP’s. This is a normal occurrence in-flight

b)

The white SEL light is illuminated on the offside RMP

c)

The white SEL light is illuminated on the onside RMP.

122.

If RMP navigation tuning is currently in use for VOR tuning and ATC assigns a new communication frequency, what must be done?

a)

The NAV key must be deselected and then press the transfer key

b)

Tune the new frequency on the offside RMP.

c)

Select the appropriate VHF communication radio transmission key, tune using the rotary selector, press the transfer key.

123.

When the aircraft is in the Emergency Electrical Configuration:

a)

RMP’s 1 and 2, and ACP’s 1 and 2 are both operative

b)

RMP 1 and ACP’s 1 and 2 are operative.

c)

RMP 1 and ACP 1 are operative

d)

RMP 2 and ACP’s 1 and 2 are operative.

124.

With the AUDIO SWITCHING knob in the CAPT3 position, the Captain uses his acoustic equipment on ACP3.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

To communicate with a mechanic for manual start valve operation at the engine:

a)

Select the INT/RAD selector to INT, and INT audio selector on

b)

Select the transmission key push button labeled INT and the INT audio selector

c)

Select the transmission key push button labeled CAB and the audio selector labeled CAB.

126.

The flashing amber MECH light indicates that the interphone system is faulty.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

What is the function of the Guarded EMER push button on the overhead panel?

a)

To alert ATC of an in-flight emergency

b)

To alert the aft flight attendants of a routine need to speak to them

c)

To alert all flight attendants of a pending urgent need to speak to them

128.

Which ACP transmission key will illuminate if the flight attendants are calling the cockpit?

a)

PA

b)

CAB

c)

ALERT

d)

VHF3

129.

Is STBY/NAV tuning possible on RMP 3.

a)

Yes

b)

No

130.

The engine generators and APU generator are rated at _____ KVA.

a)

50

b)

70

c)

90

d)

110

131.

The number 1 AC bus channel normally supplies power to _____ and to the _____ bus which supplies power to the ______ bus.

a)

TR2 / AC ESS SHED / DC ESS SHED

b)

TR1 / AC ESS SHED / DC ESS

c)

TR1 / AC ESS / AC ESS SHED

d)

TR1 / AC ESS / DC ESS SHED

132.

The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is:

a)

External power, engine generators then APU

b)

External power, APU, then engine generators

c)

APU, external power then engine generators

d)

Engine generators, external power then APU

133.

The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by:

a)

DC BUS 2

b)

DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2

c)

DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay

d)

DC bus 2 through a DC tie control relay.

134.

The A-320 has _______ batteries in its main electrical system.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

3 (4 when ETOPS capable)

135.

When no other power is available in flight, the static inverter converts _____ power to AC power for the ______ bus; and ______ powers the _______ bus.

a)

BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / BAT2 / DC ESS

b)

BAT1 DC / AC ESS SHED / BAT2 / DC ESS SHED

c)

BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / BAT2 / DC ESS SHED

d)

BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / DC ESS

136.

An AC ESS FEED switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power source for the AC ESS bus from:

a)

AC bus1 to AC bus 2

b)

AC bus 1 to AC Grnd/Flt bus

c)

AC bus 2 to AC bus 1

137.

Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the emergency generator?

a)

AC bus 1

b)

AC bus 2

c)

AC ESS bus / AC ESS SHED bus

138.

The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator

a)

True

b)

False

139.

The emergency generator supplies power as long as:

a)

The landing gear is down.

b)

The RAT is deployed

c)

The RAT is deployed and the landing gear is down

d)

The landing gear is up.

140.

After landing, in the emergency electrical configuration: the batteries automatically connect to the DC BAT bus when speed decreases below _______ knots.

a)

50

b)

70

c)

90

d)

100

141.

The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when:

a)

Battery voltage is low

b)

Charging current increases at an abnormal rate

c)

Charging current decreases at an abnormal rate.

142.

Do not depress the IDG DISCONNECT switch for more than _______ to prevent damage to the disconnect mechanism.

a)

3 seconds

b)

7 seconds

c)

10 seconds

d)

15 seconds

143.

The IDG Fault light indicates:

a)

An IDG oil overheat

b)

IDG low oil pressure

c)

IDG low oil pressure or IDG oil overheat

d)

IDG has been disconnected

144.

If normal electrical power is lost; essential cockpit lighting is maintained for the:

a)

Captain’s instrument panel

b)

Standby compass

c)

Right dome light (provided the dome selector is not off)

d)

All of the above

145.

You enter a dark cockpit, what action is necessary before checking the battery voltages?

a)

You have to check that the external power is on

b)

You have to ensure that at least one battery is on

c)

You have to ensure that both batteries are on.

d)

You have to verify that both batteries are off

146.

Having started the APU, how can you get the APU generator to power the electrical system?

a)

The APU generator must be switch on

b)

By pushing the EXT PWR pushbutton thus disconnecting the external power.

c)

By pushing the BUS TIE pushbutton

d)

You are unable to as the APU power output is outside normal parameters.

147.

Are there any limitations associated with disconnecting an IDG?

a)

Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 30 seconds.

b)

There is no limitation

c)

Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 5 seconds

d)

Never disconnect an IDG unless the engine is running, nor push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 3 seconds.

148.

Which voltage requires recharging or replacing the batteries?

a)

20 volts or less

b)

24 volts or less.

c)

25 volts or less.

d)

26 volts or less.

149.

The APU is supplying the electrical system. What is the order of priority for the different generators?

a)

Engines, external power, APU

b)

APU, engines, external power

c)

External power, engines, APU

d)

APU, external power, engines.

150.

What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers?

a)

Green collared circuit breakers are pulled when flying on battery power only

b)

Green collared circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM.

c)

Green collared circuit breakers are not to be reset.

d)

Green collared circuit breakers are AC powered

151.

With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, which situation will activate the emergency lights and exit signs?

a)

AC SHED bus unpowered

b)

AC bus #1 unpowered

c)

DC ESS SHED bus unpowered

d)

DC bus #2 unpowered

152.

If batteries are the only source of power in flight, how long will battery power be available?

a)

Between 22 and 30 minutes depending on equipment in use

b)

Until the APU is started

c)

Two hours and 30 minutes dependent on equipment in use.

d)

45 minutes dependent on equipment in use.

153.

What is the minimum voltage when conducting a BATTERY CHECK?

a)

28 volts

b)

ess than 60 amps in 10 seconds

c)

Greater than 24 volts

d)

Greater than 25 volts

154.

A battery fault light will illuminate when:

a)

The batteries have auto disconnected due to low voltage

b)

Battery voltage drops below a predetermined level

c)

Battery charging current increases at an abnormal rate

155.

Which flight control computer will be inoperative with gear extension while in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

a)

FAC 1 and ELAC 1.

b)

SEC 1

c)

SEC 1 and ELAC 1

d)

FAC 1

156.

If the battery voltages are below the minimum, how do you charge them?

a)

You have to call a mechanic because the batteries can only be charged by maintenance

b)

I have to check that the BAT pushbuttons are on and switch the external power on.

c)

I have to switch the external power to ON and switch the batteries off.

d)

I have to start the APU as the batteries can only be charged by the APU generator.

157.

What is the function of APU GEN push button located on the overhead electrical panel?

a)

Push this button to automatically start the APU

b)

When selected to OFF the APU generator field is de-energized.

c)

Both are correct.

158.

Is it possible to parallel generators?

a)

Of course yes.

b)

Only with the RAT deployed.

c)

The electrical system will not allow “paralleling” of generators

d)

Only one engine generator may be paralleled with the APU.

159.

While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the following control laws is in effect?

a)

Backup

b)

Direct

c)

Alternate

d)

Backup or alternate