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MGMT 695 - Test 2

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the four major perspectives that we learned about which offer explanations for how to motivate employees?

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2.

According to self-determination theory, people find activities to be satisfying and intrinsically motivating when they fulfill our desire for ____, ____, and ____.

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3.

Which of the following is not one of the elements of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?

a)

need for affection, belongingness, and friendship

b)

need for achievement

c)

need for growth and self-fulfillment

d)

need for legitimate power

4.

Elias strives to succeed in all that he does. In addition, he feels the need for close relationships with others. According to McClelland's Needs theory, Elias has a high need for _____ and ______.

a)

growth and power

b)

growth and relatedness

c)

achievement and growth

d)

achievement and affiliation

5.

According to the job characteristics model (JCM), motivation to perform in a certain job can be enhanced with which five core job characteristics?

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6.

According to the job characteristics model (JCM), there are five job characteristics that impact which three psychological states?

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7.

According to the job characteristics model, the job characteristic of "autonomy" impacts which psychological state?

a)

Knowledge of results

b)

Responsibility

c)

Experienced meaningfulness

d)

Feedback

8.

Which of the following scenarios depicts a worker with "high knowledge of the work results"?

a)

Gerard, an employee at a bagel store, who enjoys his coworkers more than the customers

b)

Latifa, a manager in an architectural firm who views her work as worthwhile and consistent with her values

c)

Randy, a guitar repair man at a small music store who feels personally accountable for the quality of his work

d)

Nora, a young reporter who receives extensive feedback on her work from her manager

9.

According to the job characteristics model, job characteristics will be more likely to engender employee motivation and satisfaction when employees (Select all that apply.)

a)

have a desire for challenge and personal growth.

b)

possess job related knowledge and skills.

c)

have a need for power.

d)

have a need for equity.

10.

George, the manager, stopped praising his team for putting in extra time at the office. Team members began to feel taken for granted and less likely to put in extra time in the future. According to reinforcement theory, George's behavior reflects

a)

negative reinforcement

b)

expectancy

c)

punishment

d)

extinction

11.

What are the key components of the reinforcement theory of motivation? (Select all that apply.)

a)

the use of a favorable consequence to encourage desirable behavior

b)

the removal of an unpleasant consequence to encourage desirable behavior

c)

the withholding of positive consequences that will discourage the desirable behavior

d)

the use of negative consequences to encourage undesirable behavior

12.

In goal setting theory, ____ are used to encourage employees to reach levels of performance they have never considered before.

a)

Feedback mechanisms

b)

Stretch goals

c)

Specific goals

d)

Attainable goals

13.

According to the expectancy theory of motivation, what questions are employees likely to ask themselves as they decide how much effort to devote to a task? (Select all that apply.)

a)

If I exert more effort, will I be able to perform at a higher level?

b)

How engaged am I in the activity?

c)

If I perform at a higher level, will I receive outcomes?

d)

How much do I desire the outcomes?

14.

According to equity theory, inputs are ______ and outcomes are _____. The ratios that are compared are ______.

a)

individuals' perceptions regarding what they have put into an activity; the things one perceives as gained from engaging in an activity; one's ratio of outcomes to inputs compared to someone else's ratio of inputs to outcomes

b)

individuals' perceptions regarding what they have put into an activity; the things one perceives as gained from engaging in an activity; one's ratio of outcomes to inputs compared to someone else's ratio of outcomes to inputs

c)

individuals' perceptions regarding what they have put into an activity; the things one perceives as gained from engaging in an activity; one's ratio of inputs to outcomes compared to someone else's ratio of outcomes to inputs

d)

individuals' perceptions regarding what they have put into an activity; the things one perceives as gained from engaging in an activity; one's ratio of inputs to outcomes compared to someone else's ratio of inputs to outcomes

15.

The force that reflects the degree to which individuals direct their attention and energy to a specific task or activity is called

a)

growth need strength

b)

motivation

c)

self-efficacy

d)

expectancy

16.

Extrinsic motivation refers to the allocation of energies and attention toward a particular activity because of

a)

a need to fulfill an innate desire.

b)

some outcome or consequence other than participating in the activity itself.

c)

the feeling of inherent satisfaction that results from engaging in that activity.

d)

needs for personal growth and achievement.

17.

Individuals are _______ when they allocate their attention and energies toward a particular activity with intensity and persistence because of the feeling of inherent satisfaction that results from engaging in that activity.

a)

self-actualized

b)

self-determined

c)

extrinsically motivated

d)

intrinsically motivated

18.

What component of "life stages theory" is most helpful for managers attempting to motivate their employees?

a)

The idea that employees more easily motivated as they mature through their life stages

b)

The idea that people at different life stages will be motivated in different ways

c)

The idea that reinforcement of behavior improves motivation for younger employees more than it does for older employers

d)

The idea that people in later life stages feel more in control over their outcomes at work.

19.

What are the 8 needs identified in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, from bottom (most basic) to top?

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20.

According to McClelland's Acquired Needs Theory, the three specific needs that are major motives in determining people's behavior in the workplace are:

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21.

From the in-class assessment based on McClelland's Acquired Needs Theory, 1) what is your most dominant need?, 2) what does this imply about how you are motivated at work?

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22.

While ____ try to understand employees' needs, ____ try to understand why employees have different needs, what behaviors they select to satisfy them, and how they decide if their choices were successful.

a)

Cognition-based theories; Behavior-based theories

b)

Needs-based theories; Job-based theories

c)

Behavior-based theories; Cognition-based theories

d)

Needs-based theories; Cognition-based theories

23.

____ theory is based on the idea that employees are motivated to see fairness in the rewards they expect for task performance and are motivated to resolve feelings of injustice.

a)

Expectancy theory

b)

Equity theory

c)

Self-determination theory

d)

Reinforcement theory

24.

What are the 3 key elements in equity theory?

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25.

Ricardo believes he can influence important outcomes, has meaningful and supportive relationships, and has control over the outcomes he receives. In the context of self-determination theory, these feelings represent (in order):

a)

relatedness, competence, autonomy

b)

autonomy, relatedness, competence

c)

competence, relatedness, autonomy

d)

competence, autonomy, relatedness

26.

Which of the following are cognition-based theories of motivation?

a)

Reinforcement theory

b)

Equity theory

c)

Goal setting theory

d)

Expectancy theory

27.

In Maslow's Hierarchy, esteem needs are those needs related to

a)

securing affection, belongingness, and friendship.

b)

finding protection from physical and emotional harm.

c)

satisfying hunger, thirst, and other bodily needs.

d)

achieving status, recognition, and attention.

28.

A "living wage" is the minimum income necessary for a worker to meet basic needs. Which element of Maslow's Hierarchy of needs is most relevant to the living wage discussion?

a)

physiological needs

b)

esteem needs

c)

social needs

d)

safety needs

29.

Joy's work place is stressful. The manager is often overheard yelling at employees and calling them unseemly names for even minor mistakes. This type of abusive workplace most likely directly affects which of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?

a)

physiological

b)

safety

c)

esteem

d)

social

30.

According to McClelland's theory, which of the following needs is represented by striving to excel, succeed, and reach a certain performance level?

a)

power

b)

achievement

c)

affiliation

d)

self-actualization

31.

Matias performs well with challenging but attainable goals, while Carlos prefers to focus on influencing others. According to McClelland's Needs theory, Matias likely has a high level of _______ and Carlos has a high level of ________.

a)

need for achievement; need for power

b)

need for growth; need for relatedness

c)

need for self-actualization; need for affiliation

d)

need for achievement; need for affiliation

32.

The practice of structuring work tasks so they are motivational is called

a)

reinforcement

b)

engagement

c)

job design

d)

motivational structuring

33.

According to the job characteristics model (JCM), the different knowledge and abilities individuals must use in performing a job relate to the core job characteristic of

a)

skill variety

b)

autonomy

c)

task significance

d)

task identity

34.

Within expectancy theory, which element refers to the "perceived probability that good performance will lead to desired outcomes"?

a)

Expectancy

b)

Instrumentality

c)

Valence

d)

Effort

35.

According to the job characteristics model (JCM), the degree to which there are visible, clear outcomes from an employee's work represents the core job characteristic of

a)

autonomy

b)

feedback

c)

task identity

d)

task significance

36.

According to the job characteristics model (JCM), the motivation potential for a job can be enhanced with five core job characteristics as long as (Select all that apply.)

a)

the work context is generally satisfying

b)

employees have a high need for power

c)

employees value opportunities for growth

d)

employees possess job-related knowledge and skills

37.

Which of the following statements accurately explains the main principles behind the job characteristics model (JCM)?

a)

There are 5 core job characteristics that drive a job's motivation potential by impacting 3 psychological states.

b)

The model applies to all individuals regardless of whether they value opportunities for growth.

c)

All of the core job characteristics have to be at a high level for a job to be motivational.

d)

The organization's work context is not important for this model.

38.

Kara feels personally accountable for the effectiveness of her work. In the job characteristics model (JCM), this is known as

a)

relatedness

b)

self-actualization

c)

responsibility

d)

knowledge of results

39.

Nora was just hired as a manager at a vegetable canning company. The majority of employees at this company have worked on an assembly line for years. She plans to motivate and satisfy the employees by adding new challenges to their work by increasing the skill variety and autonomy of the jobs. According to the job characteristics model, what does she need to consider that may affect whether the change in job characteristics will be motivational?

a)

whether they have high levels of emotional maturity

b)

whether they have a need for power

c)

whether employees have a desire for challenge and personal growth

d)

whether they have a need for affiliation

40.

Using favorable consequences to encourage desirable behaviors is known as

a)

expectancy

b)

instrumentality

c)

positive equity

d)

positive reinforcement

41.

Removing an unpleasant consequence in order to encourage a desirable behavior is known as

a)

punishment

b)

extinction

c)

negative reinforcement

d)

behavior modification

42.

Discouraging an undesirable behavior by applying negative consequences to it is known as

a)

extinction

b)

negative reinforcement

c)

punishment

d)

behavior modification

43.

Sally, the sales manager, is always yelling at her sales staff for not meeting their individual quotas of selling two cars per week. Finally, Clarence has a great week and sells three cars. Instead of rewarding Clarence, Sally just withholds nagging comments. What type of reinforcement does this scenario represent?

a)

passive

b)

extinction

c)

negative

d)

positive

44.

Which of the following statements best summarizes the reinforcement theory of motivation?

a)

According to reinforcement theory, when someone engages in a behavior, and then receives a reward or penalty, an unconscious association is formed between the reinforcement and the behavior.

b)

According to reinforcement theory, only the use of favorable consequences has been shown to produce positive results.

c)

According to reinforcement theory, there is little evidence that reinforcement theory is beneficial to managers.

d)

According to reinforcement theory, the application of negative consequences should never be used in an organization.

45.

According to goal setting theory, goal attainability represents the degree to which

a)

the goal can be used to encourage employees to reach levels of performance they have never considered before.

b)

a goal has a clear and unambiguous focus.

c)

an individual believes it is possible to achieve a goal.

d)

there is a gap between a goal and one's standing as it relates to attaining that goal.

46.

What is the relationship between feedback and motivation? To motivate employees (Select all that apply.)

a)

goals should be intertwined with other goals to make feedback more complex.

b)

feedback should not be provided to poor performers because it will reduce their self-efficacy.

c)

feedback on performance should be available to employees.

d)

goals should be developed with feedback metrics that are quantifiable and easy to comprehend.

47.

One unintended consequence of goal setting is that goals may lead to

a)

unethical behaviors.

b)

behaviors that are always in the best interest of the shareholders.

c)

behaviors that stretch employees.

d)

motivated employees.

48.

In goal setting theory, _____ focuses on whether the goal has an unambiguous and clear focus, while _____ focuses on one's ability to access information regarding his or her performance related to a goal.

a)

goal specificity; feedback

b)

goal specificity; a stretch goal

c)

goal difficulty; feedback

d)

goal specificity; goal attainability

49.

According to equity theory, what are the three types of comparisons individuals make (usually unconsciously)?

4 lines
50.

What component of justice theory refers to the perceived fairness of how rewards an resources are allocated?

a)

Distributive justice

b)

Procedural justice

c)

Interactional justice

d)

Fairness

51.

What are the three elements of expectancy theory?

4 lines
52.

What are SMART goals?

4 lines
53.

What are the 8 components of the communication process?

4 lines
54.

As part of its growth strategy, Coffee Break is planning an aggressive marketing campaign to business owners and managers in the U.S. Northeast. Orpah wants to convey the benefits of using Coffee Break’s service while also introducing potential customers to the company’s culture. Which of the following media is the richest, and will therefore allow Orpah to convey the most information about Coffee Break?

a)

a brief video introduction

b)

an email message

c)

a glossy print ad

d)

a printed letter sent via the U.S. postal service

55.

____ refers to interpreting and trying to make sense of the message, and ____ refers to translating a message into understandable symbols and language.

a)

Transferring; translating

b)

Sense-making; symbolic translation

c)

Encoding; decoding

d)

Decoding; encoding

56.

Rank the following in terms of low to high "media richness": email, face-to-face discussion, Zoom, phone call

4 lines
57.

____ occurs when occurs when the receiver fully understands the intended meaning, and ____ occurs occurs at a minimum cost to the sender in terms of resources (e.g., time, convenience).

a)

Comprehension; Profit

b)

Effective Communication; Efficient Communication

c)

Efficient Communication; Interpretation

d)

Efficient Communication; Effective Communication

58.

____ refers to the flow of messages up and down the hierarchy in an organization; ____ refers to the flow of messages within and between work units; and ____ refers to the flow of messages between people inside and outside the organization.

4 lines
59.

What kind of barrier exists when the recipient does not understand the message?

a)

Medium barrier

b)

Receiver barrier

c)

Encoding barrier

d)

Decoding barrier

60.

List three "personal barriers" to communication we discussed in class (i.e., individual attributes that hinder communication).

4 lines
61.

According to the article we read, what are the "three conversations" within a difficult conversation?

4 lines
62.

What are the "three triggers" that cause us to reject feedback?

4 lines
63.

How can you "regain your footing" following an "identity trigger" when receiving feedback?

a)

Dig deeper and ask questions to learn, not defend

b)

Dismantle distortions and step back to reflect

c)

Give each topic its own conversation

d)

Say "no" to the feedback

64.

What are 2 questions you can ask yourself to determine if a conflict or issue is work addressing?

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65.

Should you address this issue: Your coworker puts up posters in his cubicle that you think are an eyesore.

a)

Yes

b)

No

66.

Should you address this issue: A member of your team maintains odd working hours, which makes it difficult for you to complete your work on time.

a)

Yes

b)

No

67.

Which of the following communication styles are "toward defensiveness"?

descriptive, strategizing, superior, straightforward, controlling, evaluative, problem solving, certain

4 lines
68.

The difference between "hearing" and "listening" is (a)   .

69.

Kristin is attending a weekly meeting with her boss. She is taking in information, but is faking her attentiveness. She is not expending much motivation or energy in decoding or receiving messages and assumes that her boss is responsible for the quality of the interaction. What form of "listening investment" does Kristin have?

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Detached

d)

Involved

70.

What are 2 benefits of active listening?

4 lines
71.

According to Julian's TED talk, in a typical conversation, we retain ___ of what we hear.

a)

50%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

15%

72.

What are the 4 active listening skills?

4 lines
73.

What are some words to avoid when communicating with others to reduce their tendency to become defensive?

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