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Lecture Exam 3 Review

Total questions: 214

Worksheet time: 2hrs 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ability to reproduce in kind is a property of all living things.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Which type of reproduction requires fertilization (sperm and egg to fuse)?

a)

Binary Fission

b)

Sexual

c)

Asexual

d)

Budding

3.

If a cell is described as 2N it is a _________ cell.

a)

polyploidy

b)

haploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

diploid

4.

If a cell is described as n it is a _______ cell.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

polyploidy

d)

aneuploidy

5.

Sex cells are known as (sperm and eggs)

a)

somatic

b)

gametes

6.

Skin, stomach, and nerve cells are known as

a)

somatic

b)

gametes

7.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of asexual reproduction?

a)

no mate needed

b)

offspring are identical to parents

c)

genetic variation

d)

reproduces quickly

8.

The Red Queen hypothesis describes all the following except...

a)

with no variations in the gene pool adaption will take place

b)

no species can get too far ahead of other species

c)

every small advantage gives a species an "edge"

d)

all species coevolve

e)

species that can't keep up go extinct

9.

Before replication, germ cells have how many chromosomes?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

10.

After replication, germ cells have how many chromatids?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

11.

After meiosis, gamete cells have how many chromatids?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

12.

In sexual reproduction where do the chromosomes come from

a)

all chromosomes come from one parent

b)

chromosomes are randomly dispersed until the correct number is achieved

c)

one chromosome comes from each parent

d)

chromosomes come from sisters

13.

Mitosis produces ______ daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell.

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

14.

Meiosis produces ______ daughter cells that are unique from each other and the parent cell.

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

15.

What cell is used to produce gametes?

a)

skin

b)

brain

c)

germ

d)

gametic

16.

Mitosis has how many rounds of division (enter number)?

(a)  

17.

Meiosis has how many rounds of division (enter number)?

(a)  

18.

Mitosis produces cells that are

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

19.

Meiosis produces cells that are

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

20.

Before mitosis or meiosis, what stage must take place?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Interphase

c)

Meiosis I

d)

Meiosis II

21.

DNA Replication takes place before both meiosis I and meiosis II.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Select the processes that take place during meiosis that contribute to genetic variation

a)

independent assortment

b)

homologous chromosomes separating

c)

sister chromatids separating

d)

crossing over

23.

Crossing over takes place during

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Metaphase II

24.

Independent assortment takes place in

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Anaphase II

25.

Meiosis I is all about separating

a)

sister chromatids

b)

chromosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

centrioles

26.

Meiosis II is all about separating

a)

sister chromatids

b)

chromosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

centrioles

27.

Which round of meiosis is similar to mitosis?

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

28.

Meiosis reduces chromosome number by half. This is why it is referred to as a _________________ process.

a)

reduction

b)

difficult

c)

reductional division

d)

dividing

29.

Identify the phase where chromosomes condense, nuclear envelope disappears, spindles form, and crossing over takes place.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

30.

Identify the phase where pairs of homologous chromosomes move to the equator.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

31.

Identify the phase where pairs of homologous chromosomes move away to the opposite parts of the cell.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

32.

Identify the phase where pairs of homologous chromosomes gather at the poles and cytoplasm splits into two cells.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I and Cytokinesis

33.

Identify the phase where spindles form, nucleus disappears, and centrioles move to the poles.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II and Cytokinesis

34.

Identify the phase where sister chromatids line up at the equator.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II and Cytokinesis

35.

Identify the phase where sister chromatids move away to the opposite ends of the cell.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II and Cytokinesis

36.

Identify the phase where nucleus reforms, spindle breaks down, and cytoplasm splits to produce a total of 4 cells.

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II and Cytokinesis

37.

When homologous pairs line up in close interaction it is called

a)

chiasma

b)

synapsis

c)

centromere

d)

kinetochore

38.

When homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material they are referred to as ______________ chromosomes.

a)

changed

b)

sister chromatids

c)

non-recombinant

d)

recombinant

39.

Some homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material and some do not. When they don't exchange genetic material they are referred to as ______________ chromosomes.

a)

changed

b)

sister chromatids

c)

non-recombinant

d)

recombinant

40.

The point of contact where non-sister chromatids exchange genetic material is known as

a)

chiasma

b)

synapsis

c)

centromere

d)

kinetochore

41.

When homologous chromosomes pairs line up in metaphase I they do so at random. This is known as

a)

Crossing Over

b)

Segregation

c)

Independent Assortment

d)

Original Orientation

42.

If an organism gametes contain 4 chromosomes, then how many combinations could be made based on independent assortment?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

43.

If an organism diploid cells contain 16 chromosomes, then how many combinations could be made based on independent assortment?

a)

16

b)

256

c)

586

d)

65,536

44.

X-inactivation can only take place in

a)

males

b)

females

45.

The X chromosome that undergoes inactivation is known as

a)

Barr body

b)

bad X

c)

inactive X

d)

active X

46.

This refers to the number of chromosomes in a cell

a)

ploidy

b)

euploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

polyploidy

47.

If an organism has the correct number of chromosomes per cell they are

a)

ploidy

b)

euploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

polyploidy

48.

If an organism has the incorrect number of chromosomes per cell they are

a)

ploidy

b)

euploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

polyploidy

49.

If an organism has three or more sets of chromosomes per cell they are

a)

ploidy

b)

euploid

c)

aneuploidy

d)

polyploidy

50.

This image is known as a

a)

chromosome picture

b)

karyotype

c)

polyploidy

d)

aneuploidy

51.

This karyotype is of a

a)

male

b)

female

52.

This karyotype is of a

a)

male

b)

female

53.

If a gamete experiences the loss of a chromosome due to nondisjunction it is known as

a)

eusomy

b)

monosomy

c)

disomy

d)

trisomy

54.

If a gamete experiences the gain of a chromosome due to nondisjunction it is known as

a)

eusomy

b)

monosomy

c)

disomy

d)

trisomy

55.

This karyotype belongs to an individual that has

a)

euploid cells

b)

monosomy

c)

trisomy

d)

polyploidy

56.

This karyotype belongs to an individual with

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

57.

This karyotype belongs to an individual with

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

58.

If an individual is aneuploidy and is said to have "XO" for their sex chromosomes they have

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

59.

If an individual is aneuploidy and is said to have "XXY" for their sex chromosomes they have

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Trisomy 21

d)

Klinefelter Syndrome

60.

When a chromosome segment breaks from the chromosome, reverses its orientation, and then reattaches in it's original position it is known as an

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

deletion

61.

When a chromosome segment breaks from a chromosome and reattaches to a nonhomologous chromosome it is known as a

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

deletion

62.

When a chromosome segment is copied it is known as a

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

deletion

63.

When a chromosome segment is deleted it is known as a

a)

inversion

b)

translocation

c)

duplication

d)

deletion

64.

Polyploidy is common in

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

bacteria

d)

archea

65.

Which life cycle is defined as the dominant stage being diploid

a)

diploid-dominant

b)

haploid-dominant

c)

alteration of generations

66.

Which life cycle is defined as the dominant stage being haploid

a)

diploid-dominant

b)

haploid-dominant

c)

alteration of generations

67.

Which life cycle has both stages apparent

a)

diploid-dominant

b)

haploid-dominant

c)

alteration of generations

68.

The science of heredity and variation in living organisms

a)

gene

b)

genetics

c)

molecular genetics

d)

mendelian genetics

69.

The field of biology that studies the structure and function of genes at a molecular level

a)

gene

b)

genetics

c)

molecular genetics

d)

mendelian genetics

70.

A set of basic principles relating to the transmission of hereditary characteristics from parent organisms to their children.

a)

gene

b)

genetics

c)

molecular genetics

d)

mendelian genetics

71.

Who is the father of genetics?

a)

James Watson

b)

Francis Crick

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Charles Darwin

72.

Mendel was praised during his time for his work with pea plants.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

When characteristics can be seen as a range of small differences among indviduals ("blend" of parents")?

a)

continuous variation

b)

discontinuous variation

c)

dominant-recessive traits

d)

intermediate variation

74.

When characteristics can be seen as one of two distinguishable trait)?

a)

continuous variation

b)

discontinuous variation

c)

dominant-recessive traits

d)

intermediate variation

75.

Mendel experimented with

a)

bacteria

b)

garden pea plants

c)

daphnia

d)

drosophila

76.

Select the advantages of using pea plants

a)

controlled matings

b)

true-breeding strains

c)

observable traits with 2 distinct forms

d)

only 3 characteristics can be seen

77.

Mendel is the father of genetics becuase of his work we know:

a)

genes are carried on chromosomes

b)

chromosomes are the basic unit of heredity

c)

chromosomes replicate, express, or mutate

d)

homologous chromosomes code for different genes

78.

Mendel studied how many characteristics of pea plants?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

7

d)

11

79.

Which of the following are characteristic that were studied by Mendel?

a)

seed shape

b)

flower color

c)

pod size

d)

size of flower

80.

Which generation consists of true-breeders that only produce one trait for a gene?

a)

parental generation

b)

first filial generation

c)

second filial generation

81.

Which generation consists of hybrid progeny that show only the dominant trait?

a)

parental generation

b)

first filial generation

c)

second filial generation

82.

Which generation consists of offspring from hybrid plants undergoing self-fertilization?

a)

parental generation

b)

first filial generation

c)

second filial generation

83.

Which of the following is NOT a hypothesis Medel came up with?

a)

genes are found in alternative versions (alleles)

b)

an organism inherits two alleles for each characteristic

c)

in hybrids, the dominant allele determines the organism's appearance

d)

in hybrids, the domninant and recessive allele appear

e)

law of segregation

84.

The physical expression of a trait

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

allele

d)

gene

85.

The genetic makeup of an individual

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

allele

d)

gene

86.

A unit of inheritance

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

allele

d)

gene

87.

alternative form of a single gene

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

allele

d)

gene

88.

When both alleles inherited are capital (S S)

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous recessive

89.

When both alleles inherited are lowercase (s s)

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous recessive

90.

When the alleles inherited are different (S s)

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous recessive

91.

The predictive tool used to determine genotypic and phenotypic ratios of offspring

a)

Mendel Rectangle

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Gregor Circle

d)

Watson Triangle

92.

Capital letters represent the ________________ trait.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

93.

Lowercase letters represent the ________________ trait.

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

94.

Which Punnett Square cross is used to study one characteristic?

a)

Dihybrid

b)

Hybrid

c)

Trihybrid

d)

Monohybrid

95.

Which Punnett Square cross is used to study two characteristic?

a)

Dihybrid

b)

Hybrid

c)

Trihybrid

d)

Monohybrid

96.

In heterozygotes, one trait conceals the other trait it is which inheritance pattern?

a)

dominant-recessive

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

multiple alleles

e)

sex-linked

97.

Heterozygous individuals show a blending of traits; it is which inheritance pattern?

a)

dominant-recessive

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

multiple alleles

e)

sex-linked

98.

Heterozygous individuals show both traits; it is which inheritance pattern?

a)

dominant-recessive

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

multiple alleles

e)

sex-linked

99.

When more than two alleles exist for a trait it is which inheritance pattern?

a)

dominant-recessive

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

multiple alleles

e)

sex-linked

100.

Inheritance of traits that lie on sex chromosomes is which inheritance pattern?

a)

dominant-recessive

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

multiple alleles

e)

sex-linked

101.

Inheritance of traits that are governed by more than one gene is which inheritance pattern?

a)

epistasis

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenic

d)

multiple alleles

102.

When one gene interferes with the expression of another gene it is which inheritance pattern?

a)

epistasis

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenic

d)

multiple alleles

103.

If genes are linked it violates the law of independent assortment.

a)

true

b)

false

104.

When true breeding pea plants are crossed the offspring are all _____________.

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous recessive

105.

In Mendel's studies of monohybrid crosses, when the F1 generation underwent self fertilization the offspring showed the following genotypic ratio?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

3:1

d)

2:2

106.

In Mendel's studies of monohybrid crosses, when the F1 generation underwent self fertilization the offspring showed the following phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

3:1

d)

2:2

107.

In pea plants, flowers that bud on the top of the plant (terminal position) is dominant, and flowers that bud on the sides of the plant (axial position) is recessive. Cross a heterozygous terminal flowering plant with a homozygous terminal flowering plant. Which of the following genotypes is seen in the offspring?

a)

TT

b)

Tt

c)

tt

108.

In pea plants, flowers that bud on the top of the plant (terminal position) is dominant, and flowers that bud on the sides of the plant (axial position) is recessive. Cross a heterozygous terminal flowering plant with a homozygous terminal flowering plant. Which of the following phenotypes is seen in the offspring?

a)

terminal flowering plants

b)

axial terminal plants

109.

This can be used to determine whether an organism expressing the dominant trait is homozygous or heterozygous for the trait.

a)

dominant test

b)

test cross

c)

Punnett Square

d)

recessive test

110.

When completing a test cross, one parent always has to be ____________________?

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous recessive

111.

In Mendel's studies of dihybrid crosses, when the F1 generation underwent self fertilization the offspring showed the following phenotypic ratio?

a)

8:8

b)

7:4:4:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

3:1

112.

Genes assort randomly because they are on different chromosomes which algin randomly at the metaphase plate, this is known as the

a)

Principle of Dominance

b)

Principle of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Segregation

d)

Law of Randomness

113.

Each gamete only gets ONE copy of each allele due to the separation of chromosomes during anaphase I, this is known as the

a)

Principle of Dominance

b)

Principle of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Segregation

d)

Law of Randomness

114.

What method can be used to determine the gametes of the parents in a dihybrid cross?

a)

What gametes?

b)

BOIL

c)

FOIL

d)

SOIL

115.

A long neck yellow giraffe (TtYy), mates with a short neck orange giraffe (ttyy). What is the phenotype are seen in the offspring?

a)

long neck and yellow

b)

long neck and orange

c)

short neck and yellow

d)

short neck and orange

116.

A individual will be called a __________ if they are heterozygous for a recessive disease.

a)

carrier

b)

homozygous dominant

c)

homozygous recessive

d)

lethal carrier

117.

X-linked traits affect both males and females because they both will receive at least one X, but it affects females more because they get two.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Y-linked traits only affect males.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Males are considered ___________ because they only have one allele for any X-linked trait.

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

heterozygous

c)

hemizygous

d)

homozygous recessive

120.

A woman who is a carrier for hemophilia marries a normal man. What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

1:1:1:1

b)

2:2

c)

3:1

d)

1:1

121.

A woman who is a carrier for hemophilia marries a normal man. What is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

a)

2:1:1

b)

2:2

c)

3:1

d)

1:1

122.

In mice, coat color follows this expression Yellow (Y) and white (W) -colored mice are homozygous, while cream-colored mice are heterozygous (YW). This is known as

a)

dominant-recessive

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

epistasis

123.

In mice, coat color follows this expression Yellow (Y) and white (W) -colored mice are homozygous, while cream-colored mice are heterozygous (YW). If two cream-colored mice mate, what percentage of yellow mice are expected?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

0%

124.

In mice, coat color follows this expression Yellow (Y) and white (W) -colored mice are homozygous, while cream-colored mice are heterozygous (YW). If two cream-colored mice mate, what percentage of cream mice are expected?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

0%

125.

In mice, coat color follows this expression Yellow (Y) and white (W) -colored mice are homozygous, while cream-colored mice are heterozygous (YW). If two cream-colored mice mate, what percentage of white mice are expected?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

0%

126.

In some chickens the allele for black coat is B and the allele for white coat is W. The heterozygous phenotype is known as erminette (black and white spotted). This is which type of inheritance?

a)

dominant-recessive

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

epistasis

127.

A black chicken and a white chicken are crossed. All offspring will be

a)

black chickens

b)

white chickens

c)

erminette chickens

d)

albino chickens

128.

What are the two genotypes possible for a person who has A blood?

a)

IAIA

b)

IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

129.

What genotype is possible for a person who has O blood?

a)

IAIA

b)

IAi

c)

IBi

d)

ii

130.

A woman with heterozygous type A blood is married to a heterozygous type B person, what proportion of their children will have A blood type?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

131.

A woman with heterozygous type A blood is married to a heterozygous type B person, what proportion of their children will have B blood type?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

132.

A woman with heterozygous type A blood is married to a heterozygous type B person, what proportion of their children will have AB blood type?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

133.

A woman with heterozygous type A blood is married to a heterozygous type B person, what proportion of their children will have O blood type?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

134.

A man with type AB blood is married to a woman with type O blood. They have two natural children and one adopted child. Jane has type A blood, Bobby has type B blood, and Grace has type O blood. Which child was adopted?

a)

Jane

b)

Bobby

c)

Grace

d)

None of them

135.

Which of the following traits in humans show polygenic inheritance?

a)

freckles

b)

skin color

c)

height

d)

colorblindness

136.

In cats, there is a gene which produces ticked fur (bands of different colors on each hair) called Agouti (H). The recessive allele (h) for this gene produces hair which is a solid color from end to end. In addition, there is a coat color gene which has a recessive albino allele (a) which, in the homozygote, prevents the production of any coat color pigment, resulting in a white cat with pink eyes, the traditional albino. This inheritance pattern is known as

a)

dominant-recessive

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

epistasis

137.

Which of the following scientists contributed to understanding the structure of DNA?

a)

James Watson

b)

Francis Crick

c)

Maclyn McCarty

d)

Rosalind Franklin

138.

The condensed form of chromatin is known as ____________.

a)

nucleosomes

b)

chromsomes

c)

chromatin

d)

nucleotides

139.

The double helix of DNA is made up of ____________________.

a)

nucleosomes

b)

chromsomes

c)

chromatin

d)

nucleotides

140.

The double helix is wraped around _____________.

a)

nucleosomes

b)

chromsomes

c)

chromatin

d)

nucleotides

141.

The uncondensed form of chromosomes is known as ____________.

a)

nucleosomes

b)

chromsomes

c)

chromatin

d)

nucleotides

142.

The twisted molecule made up of two strands that contains hereditary information is known as ______________.

a)

chromosome

b)

chromatin

c)

double helix

d)

nucleotides

143.

A nucleotide consists of the following:

a)

phosphate

b)

pentose sugar

c)

nitrogenous base

d)

hexose sugar

144.

Which bases are purines?

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

guanine

d)

cytosine

145.

Which bases are pyrimidines?

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

guanine

d)

cytosine

146.

The strands of the double helix run in opposite directions this is known as _____________.

a)

complementary base pairing

b)

backwards ladder

c)

antiparallel

d)

reverse ladder

147.

What type of bond is formed between bases?

a)

nonpolar

b)

ionic

c)

covalent

d)

hydrogen

148.

What makes up the backbone of the double helix?

a)

sugar

b)

phosphate

c)

adenine

d)

guanine

149.

What base always pairs with thymine?

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

guanine

d)

cytosine

150.

What base always pairs with cytosine?

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

guanine

d)

cytosine

151.

If a DNA sequence has the following: 5'ACTCCGAAT3'. What would be the complimentary strand?

a)

3'TGAGGCTTA5'

b)

5'TGAGGCTTA3'

c)

5'CTGTTACCG3'

d)

5'CTGTTACCG5'

152.

Which sugar is found in RNA?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

ribose

153.

Which sugar is found in DNA?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

ribose

154.

Which of the following are bases found in DNA?

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

guanine

d)

cytosine

e)

uracil

155.

Which of the following are bases found in RNA?

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

guanine

d)

cytosine

e)

uracil

156.

Which of the following is double stranded?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

157.

Which of the following is single stranded?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

158.

Which of these is confined to the nucleus?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

159.

Which of these is not confined to the nucleus?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

160.

In prokaryotes, the entire genome is located on a single chromosome found in the _________ region of the cell.

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

nucleoid

161.

When DNA is wrapped very tightly it is described as ______________?

a)

supertightening

b)

condensing

c)

supercoiling

d)

plasmids

162.

Small pieces of non essential DNA commonly found in prokaryotes is known as ___________.

a)

chromosomes

b)

chromatin

c)

nucleiod

d)

plasmids

163.

Eukaryotic DNA is separated from everything in the cell becuase it is housed in the __________.

a)

ribosomes

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

nucleiod

164.

Which stage of DNA replication is described as DNA polymerase adding complimentary base pairs to create a new strand?

a)

Initiation

b)

Elongation

c)

Termination

165.

Which stage of DNA replication is described as helicase unzipping the double helix?

a)

Initiation

b)

Elongation

c)

Termination

166.

Which stage of DNA replication is described as when two complementary strands are complete and bound together?

a)

Initiation

b)

Elongation

c)

Termination

167.

DNA replication is known as ___________________ becuase each new molecule consists of one original strand and one new strand.

a)

conservative

b)

semiconservative

c)

dispersive

d)

complementary

168.

Which enzyme unzips DNA separating two stands?

a)

helicase

b)

ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

topoisomerase

169.

Which enzyme joins small fragments into a continuous chain?

a)

helicase

b)

ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

topoisomerase

170.

Which enzyme adds complementary nucleotides to the elongating chain?

a)

helicase

b)

ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

topoisomerase

171.

When DNA polymerase is able to continually add bases until the strand is complete it is known as the _________ strand?

a)

Leading

b)

Lagging

172.

When DNA polymerase cannot continually add bases until the strand is complete it is known as the _________ strand?

a)

Leading

b)

Lagging

173.

On the lagging strand, the pieces of nucleotides that are added are known as __________________.

a)

Okazaki fragments

b)

DNA segments

c)

nucleotide fragments

d)

polymerase segments

174.

What is at the end of a DNA strand? It is a repitive sequence that repeats 100-1000 times, and helps to extend the life of a cell.

a)

repeaters

b)

telomeres

c)

telomerase

d)

primases

175.

Telomeres allow for shortening of the DNA to take place without losing necessary genes.

a)

True

b)

False

176.

Which enzyme replaces telomere as they are lost after DNA replication?

a)

helicase

b)

ligase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

telomerase

177.

DNA polymerase has the ability to proofread and replace bases as needed.

a)

True

b)

False

178.

If DNA polymerase misses an incorrect base pair, then this mechanism is activated which allows enzymes to recognize incorrect bases and replace them.

a)

nucleotide excision repair

b)

mismatch repair mechanism

c)

proofreading

d)

transcription

179.

To repair incorrect bases the DNA can be unwound and the strands unzipped, the incorrect base with be removed and then replaced by DNA polymerase, this repiar mechanism is known as _____________.

a)

nucleotide excision repair

b)

mismatch repair mechanism

c)

proofreading

d)

transcription

180.

The central dogma describes how DNA is made from proteins.

a)

True

b)

False

181.

When DNA is turned into mRNA, it is known as __________.

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

RNA synthesis

182.

When mRNA is turned into a polypeptide chain, it is known as __________.

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

protein synthesis

183.

Which processes takes place in the nucleus?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

protein synthesis

184.

Which processes takes place in the cytoplasm?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

mRNA synthesis

185.

Codons are

a)

3 bases of DNA that code for mRNA

b)

3 bases of mRNA that code for DNA

c)

3 bases of mRNA that code for an amino acid

d)

3 bases of DNA that code for an amino acid

186.

Initiation, elongation, and termination are all steps for which process

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

187.

When RNA polymerase binds to the promoter on DNA and causes it to unwind and unzip, it is which stage?

a)

initiation

b)

elongation

c)

termination

d)

translation

188.

When RNA polymerase moves along the DNA making a complimentary mRNA strand, it is which stage?

a)

initiation

b)

elongation

c)

termination

d)

translation

189.

When RNA polymerase encounters a terminator sequence, stops transcribing DNA, and releases immature mRNA, it is which stage?

a)

initiation

b)

elongation

c)

termination

d)

translation

190.

RNA splicing removes _______ from the immature mRNA and joins ________ to produce a continuous mRNA molecule.

a)

introns; exons

b)

exons; introns

c)

5' cap; poly-A tail

d)

Poly-A tail; 5' cap

191.

These are added to the mRNA moleucle to protect it when it enters the cytoplasm.

a)

5' cap

b)

introns

c)

exons

d)

poly-A tail

192.

mRNA has to travel to the cytoplasm and meet up with a mitochondria to be tranlated.

a)

True

b)

False

193.

_________ describes the specific sequence that determines which proteins are made and ultimately dictates structure and function of cells

a)

codons

b)

redundant

c)

genetic code

d)

unambiguous

194.

When more than one codon gives you the same amino acid?

a)

unambiguous

b)

redundant

195.

When any one codon codes for only one amino acid?

a)

unambiguous

b)

redundant

196.

AUG codes for which amino acid?

a)

Val

b)

Met

c)

Ile

d)

Stop

197.

UAA, UAG, and UGA code for which amino acid?

a)

Val

b)

Met

c)

Ile

d)

Stop

198.

UUU code for which amino acid?

a)

Val

b)

Phe

c)

Ile

d)

Ser

199.

CAA code for which amino acid?

a)

Gln

b)

His

c)

Pro

d)

Arg

200.

Which of the followign RNAs is made by RNA polymerase from the DNA sequence?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

?RNA

201.

Which of the followign RNAs makes up ribosomes?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

?RNA

202.

Which of the following RNAs brings in amino acids and adds them to the growing polypeptide chain?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

?RNA

203.

As tRNA molecules continue to add amino acids to a growing peptide chain and mRNA is read, it is which stage?

a)

initiation

b)

elongation

c)

termination

204.

tRNA is bound to a specific amino acid, what does a tRNA molecule have that matches up to a condon on mRNA?

a)

amino acid

b)

gene sequence

c)

anticodon

d)

codon

205.

When mRNA attaches to the small subunit of a ribosome and is read until "AUG" is found which causes a tRNA and the large subunit to bind is which step of translation?

a)

initiation

b)

elongation

c)

termination

206.

The peptide chain continues to grow until a stop codon which leads to the dissociation of all machinery and the polypeptide chain?

a)

initiation

b)

elongation

c)

termination

207.

What is a change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA?

(a)  

208.

If a mutation is harmless it is known as a _________ mutation.

a)

quiet

b)

silent

c)

nondescript

d)

mutagen

209.

All mutations are harmful.

a)

True

b)

False

210.

Mutations can be spontaneous or induced by mutagens.

a)

True

b)

False

211.

The ability to turn a gene "on" is known as

a)

gene expression

b)

gene promotion

c)

gene communication

d)

gene transcription

212.

Prokaryotic gene regulation takes place at which levels

a)

epigenetic

b)

transcriptional

c)

post-transcriptional

d)

translational

e)

post-translationsl

213.

Eukaryotic gene regulation takes place at which levels

a)

epigenetic

b)

transcriptional

c)

post-transcriptional

d)

translational

e)

post-translationsl

214.

In prokaryotes, transcription and translation happen at the same time.

a)

True

b)

False