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AWS Practice Exam (IT 335-01)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How do you typically pay for the use of cloud resources?

a)

Reserved Instances

b)

Prepaid/Fixed Subscriptions

c)

On a pay-as-you-go basis

d)

AWS Savings Plan

2.

Which technology provides oversight for the cloud?

a)

mainframes

b)

virtual machines

c)

dumb terminals

d)

Hypervising

3.

Why do many people choose to use the cloud for everyday tasks?

a)

for enhanced security and privacy

b)

for convenience, collaboration, and sophistication

c)

for advertising and growing fans and customers

d)

for simplicity and ease of operations

4.

What marks the origin of cloud computing, and when did it occur?

a)

the development of networking in the 1960s

b)

the development of mainframe computing in the 1950s

c)

the invention of the transistor in the 1940s

5.

Which of the below is not a “best practice” concept for deploying Cloud infrastructure?

a)

Security

b)

Reliability

c)

Performance Efficiency

d)

Hybrid Cloud

6.

Which cloud concepts are you responsible for knowing for the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam?

a)

advantages over legacy IT, models and deployments, and architecture

b)

history, security, and technology

c)

software, platforms, and infrastructure

7.

How do economies of scale provide an advantage for the use of cloud computing over establishing a data center?

a)

with faster performance

b)

by providing the latest in hardware and software

c)

with lower prices due to competition between cloud services

d)

by offering a portion of a large, optimized service

8.

Your team wants to configure custom applications without worrying as much about security and hardware configurations. Which service model is most appropriate?

a)

SaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

MaaS

d)

IaaS

9.

MedOpal is an aggregator of personal medical records for professionals who need to travel extensively. Security is paramount. Which type of deployment suits MedOpal best?

a)

hybrid

b)

cluster

c)

cloud

d)

private

10.

Why did Amazon originally venture into cloud computing?

a)

to increase market share

b)

to serve third-party vendors

c)

to reduce costs

d)

to facilitate scale-up

11.

Why do many large organizations use cloud computing?

a)

for scalability, rapid deployment, and efficiency

b)

for scalability, rapid deployment, and efficiency

c)

to segment customer populations by geography and age

d)

for simplicity, popular appeal, and ease of obtaining expertise

12.

How should you use AWS Free Tier?

a)

as a way to explore

b)

as an in-depth resource

c)

as a routine service

d)

as a toy

13.

How can you make the URL for your weblog simpler than the long AWS string?

a)

by using the correct EC2

b)

by using WordPress

c)

by using the paid AWS domain registrar

d)

by using an AMI

14.

Your team has some extensive calculations to conduct for an engineering design. Which type of service would be most helpful?

a)

database

b)

storage

c)

machine learning

d)

compute

15.

What information is necessary for AWS account creation?

a)

telephone number and credit card credentials

b)

physical address and mobile phone number

c)

name and banking details

d)

Amazon ID and password

16.

What does the acronym SIP PHO stand for?

a)

Software, Infrastructure, Public, Private, Hybrid, Other

b)

Stand-Alone, Independent, Private, Public, Hybrid, On-Premises

c)

Stand-Alone, Independent, Public, Platform, Hybrid, Other

d)

Software, Infrastructure, Platform, Public, Hybrid, On-Premises

17.

Which areas remain for you to learn about before taking the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner exam?

a)

billing and pricing, technology, and security

b)

pricing, machine learning, and storage

c)

security, privacy, and parallel computing

d)

encryption, operating systems, and storage

18.

Which description best characterizes the cloud?

a)

The internet

b)

The Cloud

c)

The VMs

d)

The MIS

19.

Which statement is TRUE for the AWS global infrastructure?

a)

A Region consists of a single Availability Zone.

b)

An Availability Zone consists of two or more Regions.

c)

A Region consists of two or more Availability Zones.

d)

An Availability Zone consists of a single Region.

20.

Which factors should be considered when selecting a Region? (Select TWO.)

a)

Compliance with data governance and legal requirements

b)

Proximity to your customers

21.

Which statement best describes Amazon CloudFront?

a)

A service that enables you to run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach

b)

A serverless compute engine for containers

c)

A service that enables you to send and receive messages between software components through a queue

d)

A global content delivery service

22.

Which site does Amazon CloudFront use to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location?

a)

Region

b)

Availability Zone

c)

Edge location

d)

Origin

23.

Which action can you perform with AWS Outposts?

a)

Automate actions for AWS services and applications through scripts.

b)

Access wizards and automated workflows to perform tasks in AWS services.

c)

Develop AWS applications in supported programming languages.

d)

Extend AWS infrastructure and services to your on-premises data center.

24.

Your company has an application that uses Amazon EC2 instances to run the customer-facing website and Amazon RDS database instances to store customers’ personal information. How should the developer configure the VPC according to best practices?

a)

Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a private subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a public subnet.

b)

Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a public subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.

c)

Place the Amazon EC2 instances and the Amazon RDS database instances in a public subnet.

d)

Place the Amazon EC2 instances and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.

25.

Which component can be used to establish a private dedicated connection between your company’s data center and AWS?

a)

Private subnet

b)

DNS

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

Virtual private gateway

26.

Which statement best describes security groups?

a)

They are stateful and deny all inbound traffic by default.

b)

They are stateful and allow all inbound traffic by default.

c)

They are stateless and deny all inbound traffic by default.

d)

They are stateless and allow all inbound traffic by default.

27.

Which component is used to connect a VPC to the internet?

a)

Public subnet

b)

Edge location

c)

Security group

d)

Internet gateway

28.

Which service is used to manage the DNS records for domain names?

a)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud

b)

AWS Direct Connect

c)

Amazon CloudFront

d)

Amazon Route 53

29.

Which Amazon S3 storage classes are optimized for archival data? (Select TWO.)

a)

Amazon S3 Standard

b)

Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval

c)

Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering

d)

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive

30.

Which statement or statements are TRUE about Amazon EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems?

a)

EBS volumes store data within a single Availability Zone. Amazon EFS file systems store data across multiple Availability Zones.

b)

EBS volumes store data across multiple Availability Zones. Amazon EFS file systems store data within a single Availability Zone.

c)

EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data within a single Availability Zone.

d)

EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data across multiple Availability Zones.

31.

You want to store data in an object storage service. Which AWS service is best for this type of storage?

a)

Amazon Managed Blockchain

b)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

c)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

d)

Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

32.

Which statement best describes Amazon DynamoDB?

a)

A service that enables you to run relational databases in the AWS Cloud

b)

A service that you can use to migrate relational databases, nonrelational databases, and other types of data stores

c)

An enterprise-class relational database

d)

A serverless key-value database service

33.

Which service is used to query and analyze data across a data warehouse?

a)

Amazon Redshift

b)

Amazon Neptune

c)

Amazon DocumentDB

d)

Amazon ElastiCache

34.

Which statement best describes an IAM policy?

a)

An authentication process that provides an extra layer of protection for your AWS account

b)

A document that grants or denies permissions to AWS services and resources

c)

An identity that you can assume to gain temporary access to permissions

d)

The identity that is established when you first create an AWS account

35.

An employee requires temporary access to create several Amazon S3 buckets. Which option would be the best choice for this task?

a)

AWS account root user

b)

IAM group

c)

IAM role

d)

Service control policy (SCP)

36.

Which statement best describes the principle of least privilege?

a)

Adding an IAM user into at least one IAM group

b)

Checking a packet’s permissions against an access control list

c)

Granting only the permissions that are needed to perform specific tasks

d)

Performing a denial of service attack that originates from at least one device

37.

Which service helps protect your applications against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks?

a)

Amazon GuardDuty

b)

Amazon Inspector

c)

AWS Shield

d)

AWS Artifact

38.

Which task can AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) perform?

a)

Configure multi-factor authentication (MFA).

b)

Update the AWS account root user password.

c)

Create cryptographic keys.

d)

Assign permissions to users and groups.

39.

Which actions can you perform using Amazon CloudWatch? (Select TWO.)

a)

Monitor your resources’ utilization and performance

b)

Receive real-time guidance for improving your AWS environment

c)

Compare your infrastructure to AWS best practices in five categories

d)

Access metrics from a single dashboard

40.

Which service enables you to review the security of your Amazon S3 buckets by checking for open access permissions?

a)

Amazon CloudWatch

b)

AWS CloudTrail

c)

AWS Trusted Advisor

d)

Amazon GuardDuty

41.

Which categories are included in the AWS Trusted Advisor dashboard? (Select TWO.)

a)

Reliability

b)

Performance

c)

Scalability

d)

Fault tolerance

42.

Which action can you perform with consolidated billing?

a)

Review how much cost your predicted AWS usage will incur by the end of the month.

b)

Create an estimate for the cost of your use cases on AWS.

c)

Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricing discounts.

d)

Visualize and manage your AWS costs and usage over time.

43.

Which pricing tool is used to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time?

a)

AWS Pricing Calculator

b)

AWS Budgets

c)

AWS Cost Explorer

d)

AWS Free Tier

44.

Which pricing tool enables you to receive alerts when your service usage exceeds a threshold that you have defined?

a)

Billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console

b)

AWS Budgets

c)

AWS Free Tier

d)

AWS Cost Explorer

45.

Your company wants to receive support from an AWS Technical Account Manager (TAM). Which support plan should you choose?

a)

Developer

b)

Enterprise

c)

Basic

d)

Business

46.

Which service or resource is used to find third-party software that runs on AWS?

a)

AWS Marketplace

b)

AWS Free Tier

c)

AWS Support

d)

Billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console

47.

Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework helps you structure the selection and implementation of permissions?

a)

Governance Perspective

b)

Security Perspective

c)

Operations Perspective

d)

Business Perspective

48.

Which strategies are included in the six strategies for application migration? (Select TWO.)

a)

Revisiting

b)

Retaining

c)

Rehosting

d)

Redeveloping

49.

What is the storage capacity of AWS Snowmobile?

a)

40 PB

b)

60 PB

c)

80 PB

d)

100 PB

50.

Which statement best describes Amazon Lex?

a)

A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text

b)

A machine learning service that automatically extracts text and data from scanned documents

c)

A document database service that supports MongoDB workloads

d)

A service that enables you to identify potentially fraudulent online activities