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WorksheetsISTQB-CTFL 11222022a
Total questions: 28
Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker
a)
Because the author of the requirements was unfamiliar with the domain of fitness training, he therefore wrongly assumed that users wanted heartbeat in beats per hour
b)
The tester of the smartphone interface had not been trained in state transition testing, so missed a major defect
c)
An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause location problems during daylight saving times
d)
Because the designer had never worked on wearable devices before, she as designer of the user interface therefore misunderstood the effects of reflected sunlightAs a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects than average.
2.
Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is true?
a)
100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage
b)
100% statement coverage also guarantees 100% decision coverage
c)
50% decision coverage also guarantees 50% statement coverage
d)
Decision coverage can never reach 100%
3.
Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?
a)
A technique based on analysis of the architecture
b)
A technique checking that the test object is working according to the detailed design
c)
A technique based on the knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures
d)
A technique based on formal requirements
4.
During a period of intensive project overtime, a system architecture document is sent to various project participants, announcing a previously unplanned technical review to occur in one week. No adjustments are made to the participants’ list of assigned tasks. Based on this information alone, which of the following is a factor for review success that is MISSING?
a)
Appropriate review type
b)
Adequate time to prepare
c)
Sufficient metrics to evaluate the author
d)
Well-managed review meeting
5.
Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review?
a)
Collection of metrics for the evaluation of the effectiveness of the review
b)
Answer any questions the participants may have
c)
Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review
d)
Evaluation of the review findings against the exit criteria
6.
Which of the following are two factors that can be used to determine the level of risk?
a)
Testing and development
b)
Dynamic and reactive
c)
Statement and decision
d)
Likelihood and impact
7.
Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and regression testing?
a)
The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that all previously run tests still work correctly, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to ensure that any fixes made to one part of the system have not adversely affected other parts
b)
The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system have been adversely affected by the fix
c)
The purpose of regression testing is to ensure that any changes to one part of the system have not caused another part to fail, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to check that all previously run tests still provide the same results as before
d)
The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that changes to the system were made successfully, while the purpose of regression testing is to run tests that previously failed to ensure that they now work correctly
8.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
Informal Review
b)
Walkthrough
c)
Technical Review
d)
Inspection
9.
Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?
a)
Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews
b)
Review Leader - Ensures effective running of review meetings
c)
Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review
d)
Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness
10.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
Web server logs show error 0x44AB27 when running test 07.005, which is not an expected error message in /tmp filesystem
b)
Developers have introduced major availability defect which will seriously upset our customers
c)
Performance is slow and reliability flaky under load
d)
Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect
11.
Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system
a)
The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-paste operation
b)
Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in the system
c)
The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or decreased
d)
The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds
12.
Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?
a)
The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and set the tools usage guidelines
b)
The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests
c)
The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests and decides on the release of the test object
d)
The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester executes the tests
13.
Which of the following BEST defines risk level?
a)
Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all problem situations and the financial harm that results from them
b)
Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result in financial damage
c)
Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event
d)
Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied by the sum of all potential losses from that system
14.
What is checklist-based testing?
a)
A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester's knowledge of past faults, or general knowledge of failures
b)
A test technique based on an analysis of the specification of a component or system
c)
An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must be verified
d)
An approach to testing where the testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests
15.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
Methodical, analytical, reactive, and regression-averse
b)
Analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive
c)
Model-based, methodical, analytical, and consultative
d)
Regression-averse, consultative, reactive, and methodical
16.
Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?
a)
Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors
b)
Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these components
c)
Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use
d)
Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision coverage of these flows
17.
Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying?
a)
White-box
b)
Black-box
c)
Experience-based
d)
Error guessing
18.
Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?
a)
Budget which was used by a previous similar test project
b)
Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers
c)
Estimation of effort for test automation agreed in the test team
d)
Average of calculations collected from business experts
19.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4
b)
Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5
c)
Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6
d)
Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4
20.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
DT1, DT2
b)
DT2, DT3
c)
DT2, DT4
d)
DT3, DT4
21.
A batch application has been in production unchanged for over two years. It runs overnight once a month to produce statements that will be e-mailed to customers. For each customer, the application goes through every account and lists every transaction on that account in the last month. It uses a nested-loop structure to process customers (outer loop), each customer’s accounts (middle loop), and each account’s transactions (inner loop).</br>One night, the batch application terminates prematurely, failing to e-mail statements to some customers, when it encounters a customer with one account for which no transactions occurred in the last month. This is a very unusual situation and has not occurred in the years since this application was placed in production.</br>While fixing the defect, a programmer asks you to recommend test techniques that are effective against this kind of defect. Which of the following test techniques would most likely have been able to detect the underlying defect?
a)
Decision testing
b)
Statement testing
c)
Checklist-based testing
d)
Error guessing
22.
Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?
a)
Percentage of executed test cases
b)
Average number of testers involved in the test execution
c)
Coverage of requirements by source code
d)
Percentage of test cases already created and reviewed
23.
Which of the following testing principles is being applied
a)
Beware of the pesticide paradox
b)
Testing is context dependent
c)
Absence-of-errors is a fallacy
d)
Defects cluster together
24.
What is decision coverage?
a)
The coverage of condition outcomes
b)
Decision coverage is a synonym for statement coverage
c)
The coverage of executable statements
d)
The coverage of decision outcomes
25.
To answer this question, please use the information contained in the image enclosed.
a)
3
b)
5
c)
2
d)
4
26.
Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?
a)
Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing
b)
Review tests developed by others
c)
Prepare and acquire test data
d)
Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications, and models for testability
27.
You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.</br>Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?
a)
10.0, 28.0
b)
0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1
c)
0.2, 0.9, 29.5
d)
12.3
28.
You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.</br>Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field?
a)
10.0, 28.0
b)
0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1
c)
0.2, 0.9, 29.5
d)
12.3
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