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Fall Final Review

Total questions: 210

Worksheet time: 4hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Glucose is a _____.
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein 
d)
nucleic acid
2.
Proteins are composed of what smaller building blocks?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleic acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
3.
Which group of organic molecules serve as long-term energy storage and make the cell membrane is?
a)
proteins
b)
carbohydrates
c)
lipids
d)
nucleic acids
4.
The primary purpose the body uses monosaccharides for is?
a)
Building muscles
b)
Helping the Immune System
c)
Immediate Energy
d)
Generating Heat
5.
Building blocks of polymers.
a)
monomer
b)
polypeptide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
glycerol
6.
Based on the graph, what temperature does this enzyme work best? 
a)
15 C
b)
40 C
c)
30 C
7.
Which of the following binds to the active site of an enzyme? 
a)
substrate
b)
product
c)
codon
d)
none of the above
8.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
9.
Enzymes are
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
10.
Enzymes are _________ that __________ chemical reactions.
a)
proteins, slow down
b)
proteins, speed up
c)
lipids, slow down
d)
lipids, speed up
11.
Which statement describes all enzymes?
a)
They control the transport of materials.
b)
They provide energy for chemical reactions.
c)
They affect the rate of chemical reactions.
d)
They absorb oxygen from the environment.
12.
Base your answers on the graph and your knowledge of biology.
Neither enzyme works at a pH of
a)
1
b)
5
c)
3
d)
13
13.
In the reaction illustrated in the diagram below, which structure represents the enzyme?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
14.
Vegetable oils, such as corn oil, belong to which general class of organic substances?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
salts
15.
Which group of organic molecules serve as long-term energy storage and make the cell membrane is?
a)
proteins
b)
carbohydrates
c)
lipids
d)
nucleic acids
16.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
17.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
18.
Which of the following is NOT a biomolecule?
a)
Water
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Protein
d)
Lipid
19.
Carbohydrates are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
20.
How do lipids function for cells?
a)
store information
b)
store energy
c)
breakdown wastes
d)
join with substrates
21.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
22.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
23.
Also known as simple sugars, these are the monomers of carbohydrates.
a)
lipids
b)
nucleotide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
monomer
24.
For the quickest source of energy if going for a run, you should eat a food that contains a high percentage of 
a)
sodium
b)
protein
c)
fats
d)
carbohydrates
25.
What is the term for the amount of energy that needs to be added for a chemical reaction to start?
a)
bond energy
b)
chemical energy
c)
activation energy
d)
reactant energy
26.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
27.

A piece of one chromosome detaches and reattaches to a different chromosome

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

28.

Which phrase best describes the process of meiosis?

a)

occurs in body cells

b)

results in genetically identical cells

c)

happens only in haploid cells

d)

produces haploid gametes

29.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
30.
How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
31.

The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.

a)

heterozygous

b)

asexual

c)

homologous

d)

gene

32.
Which of the following is NOT a gamete (sex cell)?
a)
egg
b)
sperm
c)
skin cell
d)
all of the above are gametes
33.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

34.
What is the chromosomal condition of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Monosomy X (Turner's Syndrome)
b)
Trisomy 21 (Down's Syndrome)
c)
Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)
d)
Trisomy 18 (Edwards's Syndrome)
35.
Nondisjunction can result in 
a)
trisomy conditions
b)
monosomy conditions
c)
additional sex chromosomes
d)
all of these
36.

What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?

a)

Haploid Gametes

b)

Diploid Somatic Cells

c)

Skin Cells

d)

Liver Cells

37.

What causes genetic variation in meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

crossing over of homologous chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

38.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
39.

Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to as

a)

sex chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

a karyotype

d)

autosomes

40.

Which of the following laws claims that alleles will separate during meiosis, one going to half the sex cells, the other allele going to the other half.

a)

Law of Domination

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Speciation

d)

Law of Genetics

41.
Which would be considered a somatic cell?
a)
Sperm cell
b)
Egg Cell
c)
Skin Cell
d)
All of these
42.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

43.

Which of the following statements is true of homologous chromosomes?

a)

They are exact copies.

b)

They contain the same genes.

c)

They divide during meiosis II.

d)

They connect to each other.

44.

Which of the following laws claims that alleles will come together independently of each other in the offspring?

a)

Law of Independent Assortment

b)

Law of Probable Expression

c)

Law of Typical Collection

d)

Law of Assorted Assignment

45.

A piece of a chromosome is lost

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

46.

A piece of the chromosome detaches, reverses itself end to end, and reattaches

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

47.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

48.

A piece of a chromosome is copied and remains within the chromosome

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

49.

The chromosomal mutation shown in the image is a

a)

deletion

b)

duplication

c)

inversion

d)

translocation

50.

Which of the following definitions explains the Law of Crossing Over?

a)

Allele pairs separate and come back together randomly during fertilization.

b)

Homologous chromosomes exchange genes.

c)

Genes for one trait are not inherited together with another trait.

d)

None of the above.

51.
All living things want to remain in...
a)
chaos
b)
homeostasis
c)
limbo
d)
plasmolysis
52.
The amount of particles in a given space.
a)
diffusion
b)
concentration
c)
permeable
d)
active transport
53.
When the concentration of particles inside of a cell is the same as the concentration of particles outside of the cell. 
a)
active transport
b)
concentration
c)
diffusion
d)
equilibrium
54.
The process where only water is allowed to pass through the cell membrane from a high to low concentration.
a)
meiosis
b)
respiration
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
55.
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
a)
Osmosis
b)
Respiration
c)
Diffusion
d)
Active Transport
56.
Cells use energy to move materials across a membrane (low to high concentration).
a)
Active transport
b)
Passive transport
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
57.

The process of cells taking large packages of molecules IN TO the cell.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Permeable

d)

In high concentration

58.
Cells transport material across a cell membrane without using energy (high to low concentration)
a)
Passive transport
b)
Concentration
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Active Transport
59.

The process of cells making large packages of molecules EXIT the cell.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Permeable

d)

In high concentration

60.

A cell membrane has pores that allow certain materials to pass through. This is a type of cell membrane.

a)

semipermeable

b)

In high concentration

c)

At equilibrium

d)

In low concentration

61.
Which of the following is an example of osmosis?
a)
Oxygen exiting leaves after photosynthesis
b)
A raisin swelling in a cup of water
c)
Water changing from a liquid to a gas
d)
Oxygen moving into an animal cell
62.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
63.

What is it called when molecules move across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a carrier protein (aka protein channel/protein pump)?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

64.
Cell membrane surrounds a particle and encloses it (for large particles)
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Permeable
d)
In high concentration
65.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
66.

Which part of the cell controls the movement of substances?

a)

mitochondria

b)

cell membrane

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

67.

All of the following are functions of a cell membrane EXCEPT

a)

surrounding and protecting the contents of the cell.

b)

releasing waste products from the cell.

c)

producing energy for the cell processes.

d)

allowing gases to enter the cell.

68.

The cell membrane is mostly made of what 2 biomolecules?

a)

Lipids and Nucleic acids

b)

Protein and Nucleic acids

c)

Carbohydrates and lipids

d)

Lipids and Proteins

69.

Proteins in the cell membrane serve what major function ?

a)

They provide the framework of the cell

b)

They serve as attachment site

c)

They help with transport of materials in and out of the cell

d)

They allow cells to communicate with other cells

70.

Which is not a form of passive transport?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Diffusion

71.

Passive transport moves molecules from...

a)

low concentration to high concentration

b)

high concentration to low concentration

72.

Which type of Passive transport uses the help of a transport protein?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Simple diffusion

73.

What type of passive transport moves water molecules from high concentration to low concentration?

a)

Simple diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

74.

What biomolecule is number one pointing to?

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Carbohydrate

75.

What is the name of structure 2?

a)

Glucosamine

b)

Phospholipid bilayer

c)

Hydrophrenous

d)

Protein channel

76.

Active transport is the movement of large materials across a cell membrane from ______ to ______ concentration

a)

high to low

b)

low to high

c)

high to high

d)

low to low

77.

Active transport across a cell membrane from low to high concentration, requires

a)

energy (ATP)

b)

no energy

c)

water

d)

oxygen

78.

white blood cells engulfing invading bacteria is an example of

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

79.

small compartment enclosed by a membrane formed during transport of material during endo + exocytosis

a)

vesicles

b)

large vacuole

c)

mitochondria

d)

lysosome

80.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Deletion
c)
Base Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
81.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
82.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
83.
Where do mutations occur?
a)
DNA and RNA
b)
DNA 
c)
RNA
d)
mRNA and tRNA
84.
What kind of mutation is the result of an insertion?
a)
Silent Mutation
b)
Missense mutation
c)
Nonsense mutation
d)
Frameshift mutation
85.

Name the mutation that happens when an extra base has been added to the sequence of bases.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Inversion

d)

Insertion

86.
When one base replaces another, this is a common type of mutation called what?
a)
Insertion
b)
Substitution
c)
Inversion
d)
Deletion
87.

Deletion

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

88.

Substitution

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

89.

Insertion

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

90.

When using your codon chart, what sequence can you use to find the correct amino acid?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

Any of these will do

91.

What organelle reads the mRNA and finds the correct amino acid?

a)

DNA

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Chloroplast

92.

How many nucleotides make up a codon?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

15

93.

How many codons: AAU GCG AUG

a)

9

b)

1

c)

3

d)

15

94.

How many nucleotides? AAU GCG AUG

a)

9

b)

3

c)

1

d)

15

95.
Translation is a process that produces
a)
mRNA
b)
Protein
c)
Polypeptide Chains
d)
tRNA
96.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
97.

What is the order for Protein Synthesis?

a)

Transcription -> Translation -> Protein

b)

Translation - > Transcription -> Protein

c)

Protein -> Transcription -> Translation

d)

Translation -> Protein -> Transcription

98.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
99.
Which Seq could be found in RNA?
a)
ACCTGT
b)
CGCATT
c)
AUGCUU
100.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
101.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
102.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
103.

What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA

a)

Met-Pro-Ala-Val

b)

Met-Pro-Val

c)

Tyr-Gly-His

d)

Tyr-Gly-Arg-His

104.
The codon CCU codes for what amino acid?
a)
Isoleucine
b)
Stop
c)
Methionine
d)
Proline
105.
Which amino acid pairs with the codon AGA
a)
Thr
b)
Arg
c)
Ala
d)
Glu
106.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
107.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
108.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
109.
Which of the following describes RNA?
a)
RNA is usually double-stranded and contains the base thymine
b)
RNA is usually single-stranded and contains the base uracil
c)
RNA is longer than DNA and uses five bases to encode information
d)
RNA is made in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and stays there to carry out its functions
110.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
111.
Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true?
a)
A codon can specify more than one amino acid
b)
Every codon specifies a different amino acid
c)
Some codons specify the same amino acid
d)
Some codons have no function at all
112.
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
molecular biology
113.
Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as
a)
replications
b)
mutations
c)
transformations
d)
translations
114.

Which is heterozygous ?

a)

Tt

b)

TT

115.

Which is homozygous ?

a)

Ee

b)

EE

116.

What is a phenotype?

a)

The genetic make up (code or letters)

b)

The physical appearance of a gene

117.
An organism's appearance is known as its
a)
heredity
b)
phenotype
c)
genotype
d)
pedigree
118.
One form of a gene is called_______________
a)
a DNA
b)
a Phenotype
c)
a trait
d)
an allele
119.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Bb
b)
Black fur
120.
A red flowered plant (RR) is crossed with a white flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
121.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together? 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
122.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
123.
This is an example of ___________.
a)
 Incomplete Dominance
b)
 Codominance
124.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
125.
If a male has an affected x chromosome for a sex-linked trait such as colorblindness, where did he get the chromosome from?
a)
His father
b)
His mother
126.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
127.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
128.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
129.

This laboratory procedure is known as

a)

CLONING

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

chromatography

d)

use of a dichotomous key

130.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
131.
Which two bat species are most closely related?
a)
 Bat 1 and Bat 2
b)
Bat 1 and Bat 3
c)
Bat 2 and Bat 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
132.

Prokaryotes are

a)

double stranded

b)

single cell

c)

multiple cellec

d)

have no cell

133.

Which has no true nucleus

a)

eukaryote

b)

prokaryotes

134.

They lack internal structures surrounded by a membrane

a)

eukaryotes

b)

prokaryotes

135.

plants animals mushroom amoeba

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

136.

bacteria and archae

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

137.
Which organelle belongs in plant cells only?
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
138.
Which organelle belongs in plant cells only?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Nucleus
139.
Which organelle belongs in plant cells only?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Large Central Vacuole
d)
Cell Membrane
140.

Which cell organelle/structure is responsible for allowing materials in and out of the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

cell wall

d)

cell membrane

141.

Which of the following pictures shows a higher concentration?

a)
b)
142.

Which of the following are characteristics of passive transport? (Select all that apply.)

a)

High to Low Concentration

b)

Does NOT require energy

c)

Applies to liquids only

d)

Involves smaller molecules, like oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water

143.

The picture below is an example of _________________.

a)

osmosis

b)

isotonic

c)

diffusion

d)

active transport

144.
In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion 
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis 
145.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
146.

What type of transport is this?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Osmosis

147.

What type of transport is this?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Diffusion

148.
The picture is an example of...
a)
active transport
b)
passive transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
149.
ATP is a form of energy.
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
150.
The diagram below represents a cell and some molecules in its environment. Which molecule would require the use of energy in order to be brought into the cell?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
151.

What changes to this model need to be made to make it more accurate?

a)

It needs to show energy being used.

b)

The concentration labels need to switch sides.

c)

The nucleus needs to be labeled.

d)

No changes needed. The model is accurate.

152.

which of these is not a characteristic of living things?

a)

can do respiration

b)

can do metabolic action

c)

able to adapt

d)

able to communicate

153.

Which of these IS one of the 9 characteristic of living things we wrote in our science notebook?

a)

ability to swim

b)

breaths in oxygen

c)

able to grow

d)

able to walk

154.
Which of the following correctly describes viruses?
a)
non-living because they grow and develop
b)
living because they can use energy
c)
non-living because they cannot reproduce on their own
d)
living because they can maintain homeostasis
155.

Why do viruses have projections on the outside?

a)

To send signals to other viruses.

b)

To maintain their structure.

c)

To attach to the host cell.

d)

To reproduce.

156.
Which of the following is a trait that a virus shares with a living organism?
a)
They use oxygen
b)
They have genetic material
c)
They grow
d)
They digest food
157.
Which of the following is something bacteria and viruses have in common?
a)
they are both living
b)
they are both cells
c)
they can both cause disease
d)
they are both non-living
158.
When a virus invades a living cell, its _______
takes over the cell's functions.
a)
outer coat
b)
genetic material
c)
core
d)
cytoplasm
159.

Which of these are part of Mitosis?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokines

160.

What are the "X" shaped things in the drawing.

a)

PMATs

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Telophase

161.

During what phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the Middle

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

162.

Which stage of the Life Cycle of the cell is this cell in (look close-the DNA hasn't formed Chromosomes (X) yet)

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

163.

PMAT helps us remember the correct order of the phases of Mitosis. Which of the following has the phases of Mitosis in the correct Order

a)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase

c)

Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

164.

Which of the following is the correct order of the Cell Cycle?

a)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

b)

Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Interphase, Prohase, Cytokinesis

165.

In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromosomes pull Apart

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

166.
Identify the stage.
a)
interphase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
167.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
168.
Identify the stage of mitosis.
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
anaphase
d)
cytokinesis
169.
Identify the stage of mitosis. 
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
anaphase
d)
cytokinesis
170.
Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the double helix?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
171.
A DNA nucleotide contains all of the following, except...
a)
Deoxyribose
b)
Phosphate group
c)
Nitrogenous base
d)
Cholesterol
172.
What is the shape of DNA?
a)
Double helix
b)
Triple helix
c)
Flat, bilayer
d)
Three-pronged rigid ladder
173.
DNA replication turns one strand of DNA into two new strands of DNA. What percent of each new strand is the old strand?
a)
Half of each new DNA is the old DNA
b)
The old strand of DNA was digested, so none
c)
The new DNA is entirely made up of the old DNA
d)
About every sixth base comes from the old DNA
174.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

175.

Match he nucleotide with its complementary nucleotide. (DNA to DNA).


Adenine -

a)

Thymine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

176.

Match he nucleotide with its complementary nucleotide. (DNA to DNA).


Cytosine-

a)

Thymine

b)

Guanine

c)

Adenine

177.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding the free nucleotides to the replicating DNA? ​

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

178.

Which is the third step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

179.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
180.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
181.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
182.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
183.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
184.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
185.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
186.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
187.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
188.
Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?
a)
nitrogenous base
b)
nucleic acid
c)
cholesterol
d)
fatty acid
189.
What part of DNA is different between individuals?
a)
Sugar
b)
Phosphate
c)
Order of nitrogen bases
190.
Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a
a)
carcinogen
b)
nicolyte
c)
pathogen
d)
retrovirus
191.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
192.
Cancer is best and fully described by ...
a)
Uncontrolled cell growth
b)
Cells which grow abnormally and no longer function correctly
c)
Cells which have lost the ability to reproduce
d)
Cells which create abnormal tissues
193.
During the cell cycle, the resting phase is ...
a)
G0
b)
G1
c)
G2
d)
S
194.

Which statement is true?

a)

Animals use only photosynthesis, while plants use both photosynthesis and respiration.

b)

Animals use both photosynthesis and respiration, while plants use only respiration.

c)

Animals use both photosynthesis and respiration, while plants use only photosynthesis.

d)

Animals use only respiration, while plants use both photosynthesis and respiration.

195.

Which of the following processes adds oxygen to the atmosphere?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

combustion

c)

decomposition

d)

photosynthesis

196.

What describes an important link between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Photosynthesis produces CO2 needed for cellular respiration

b)

Cellular respiration provides ATP so that photosynthesis can happen

c)

Photosynthesis makes oxygen and glucose needed for cellular respiration

d)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are independent of each other

197.

What is the chemical equation for photosynthesis? Choose the BEST answer

a)

C6H12O6 + O2 -> CO2 + H2O

b)

CO2 + H2O --> C6H12O6 + O2

c)

6 CO2 + 6 H2O --> C6H12O6 + 6 O2

d)

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 -> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O

198.

What is the pigment responsible for absorbing light energy in chloroplasts during photosynthesis?

a)

None of the Above

b)

Carotenoids

c)

Xenophylls

d)

Chlorophyll

199.

Cellular Respiration involves the chemical breakdown of _____ to form ATP Energy

a)

Fats

b)

Fructose

c)

Glucose

d)

Proteins

200.

Which of the following chemical equations properly demonstrates Cellular Respiration? Choose the BEST answer.

a)

C6H12O6 + O2 --> H2O + CO2

b)

H2O + CO2 -> C6H12O6 + O2

c)

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 -> 6 H2O + 6 CO2

d)

6 H2O + 6 CO2 -> C6H12O6 + 6 O2

201.

Where do the reactions of Aerobic respiration take place? (Krebs Cycle & Electron Transport Chain)

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Cell Wall

202.

True of False, Plants can perform Cellular Respiration and Photosynthesis

a)

False

b)

True

203.
What are the two products that are formed in photosynthesis?
a)
Oxygen and carbon dioxide
b)
Water and oxygen
c)
Oxygen and glucose
d)
Water and glucose
204.
What are the reactants (what's needed) for photosynthesis?
a)
glucose and oxygen
b)
light, water, and carbon dioxide
c)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

light and water

205.

In what organelle does cellular respiration take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chromosomes

c)

lysosomes

d)

nucleus

206.

What does aerobic mean?

a)

without ATP

b)

without oxygen

c)

with ATP

d)

with oxygen

207.

Where does anaerobic respiration occur in the cell?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplast

208.

What does anaerobic mean?

a)

without oxygen

b)

with oxygen

c)

without ATP

d)

with ATP

209.

Which type of respiration makes more ATP?

a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

210.

How many net ATP are produced in the electron transport chain?

a)

14

b)

2

c)

24

d)

32