wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NS.M6 *

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following actions:   handwashing
a)

susceptible of host

b)

mode of transmission

c)

portal of entry

2.
Area where the causative agent can live 
a)

mode of transmission

b)

portal of exit

c)

reservoir

d)

portal of entry

3.

Infection acquired while in a hospital setting

a)

direct contact

b)

opportunistic infection

c)

indirect contact

d)

nosocomial infection

4.

Person who gets a disease because of weak defenses

a)

causative agent

b)

susceptible host

c)

reservoir

d)

portal of entry

5.

Infection acquired while body defenses are weak

a)

nosocomial

b)

opportunistic 

c)

direct

d)

indirect

6.

Person to person contact

a)

direct

b)

indirect

c)

mode of transmission

d)

reservoir

7.

Pathogen transmitted through air, soil, food or feces

a)

direct contact

b)

indirect contact

c)

opportunistic infection

d)

nosocomial infection

8.

Infection control purpose:

a)

remind all staff to wear gloves.

b)

encourage good handwashing.

c)

disrupt the chain of infection.

d)

isolate patients with diseases.

9.

Match the following

a)

N95

1.

Airborne

TB

Varicella

b)

Airborne isolation rooms

2.

HEPA filter

Negative Air flow and Doors kept closed

c)

Influenza

3.

Droplet

d)

VRE

4.

Contact Precautions

e)

Clostridium difficile

5.

Spores

10.

Match the following

a)

Vitamin C

1.

Citrus fruits and strawberries

b)

Native American beliefs

2.

Tobacco, music, and storytelling produce healing energy

c)

Therapeutic touch

3.

Decreases pain, and anxiety, promotes relaxation

d)

Chiropractic treatment

4.

Manual therapy and spinal manipulation

e)

Holistic nursing

5.

empowers clients to actively participate in their care

11.

Match the following

a)

Pertussis

Whooping Cough

1.

Droplet

b)

Prodromal Stage of Infection

2.

Vague, nonspecific chills, fever, headache and malaise, as the agent replicates

c)

Throat Culture

3.

Swab the tonsillar area or the back of the pharyngeal wall.

d)

Inflammatory response

4.

Natural defense of the body against a foreign substance, an infectious agent, or an irritation

12.

Mrs. Kelch reports being very lethargic. You worry about her because you know she is a Vegan. What vitamin deficiency is she prone to based on her diet?

4 lines
13.

Match the following

a)

Homeopathy

1.

Substances that can cause a disease can also cure the disease

b)

Ginkgo Biloba

2.

Bleeding is a side effect

c)

Chinese medicine

3.

Herbal remedies, acupuncture, Tai Chi, diet and exercise

d)

Meditation

4.

Non-pharmacological mind and body therapy to relieve stress

14.

A nurse is explaining the practice of Ayurveda to a newly licensed nurse. The nurse explains that Ayurveda establishes a balance between the body, mind, and spirit with which of the following elements?

a)

Earth

b)

Air

c)

Water

d)

Sunlight

e)

Darkness

15.

Complementary and Integrative Health

a)

Aloe Vera

1.

Sunburn

b)

Naturopathy

2.

Dietary supplements

Exercise

Traditional Chinese medicine

Homeopathy

c)

FDA regulation of nutritional supplements must contain

3.

At least one nutritional component

FDA does not approve supplements for safety

16.

Infection Control

a)
1.

Open the first flap away from the body

b)
2.

Surgical Asepsis hand hygiene

(Pathogen removal)

c)
3.

Swab the tonsillar surface or back of the pharyngeal wall

d)

CAUTIs intervention bundle

4.

Try alternatives methods of urine collection before inserting indwelling catheters

e)

When removing a mask and goggles (cleanest to dirtiest)

5.

touch only the mask strings and earpieces.

17.

Three lab tests which indicate generalized inflammation.

4 lines
18.

Which client is at the lowest risk for an adverse effect from a massage?​ (a)   Massage therapy can relax the mind, reduce anxiety and depression, and relieve pain.

Choose from the below words
Postpartum depression
Client with thrombophlebitis
Client with osteoporosis
Client on anticoagulants following surgery
19.

Donning PPE​ ​

1st ​ (a)   2nd ​ (b)   3rd​ (c)   4th​ ​ (d)   ​ 5th ​ (e)  

Choose from the below words
Hand hygiene
Gown
Mask
Gloves
Googles
20.

Remove PPE in the following sequence:

1st ​ (a)   2nd​ (b)   3rd (c)   4th ​ (d)   5th ​ (e)  

Choose from the below words
Gloves
Face shields/goggles
Gown
Mask
Hand Hygiene
21.

Transmission Based Precautions:

a)

Droplet

1.

Surgical Mask

b)

Contact

2.

Gown and Gloves

c)

Airborne

3.

Fit tested N95, N99, or N100

22.

Chain of Infection

a)

Infectious Agent

b)

Reservoir

c)

Portal of Exit

Mode of Transmission

d)

Portal of Entry

e)

Susceptible Host

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
23.

Why is the nurse worried about Mr. Jones's Stage 3 decubitus ulcer located on his coccyx?

4 lines
24.

​ (a)   refers to antibodies called immunoglobins that activate the WBCs​ to destroy the infectious agents. (MMR, DTAP vaccines and the person develops immunity to that specific infection)

​ (b)   is maintained by neutrophils and macrophages (inflammatory response) that work as phagocytes that eat and destroy harmful microorganisms. (example = fever, pus - your body fights its war)

Choose from the below words
Specific immunity
Nonspecific immunity
25.

Stages of infection order:

a)

Incubation

timeframe= from exposure to feeling ill

b)

Prodromal

agent replicates and initial symptoms of fever, aches, malaise

c)

Acute illness

infection is obvious and severe

d)

Period of decline

client begins to regain strength

e)

Period of convalescence

return to homeostasis or left with the permanent effects from the infection

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
26.

Inflammatory Response and Infection

a)

Localized Infection

1.

One body area example knee

b)

Systemic Infection

2.

Entire body example blood stream

c)

Increased WBC blood test indicates the presence of

3.

Infection or inflammation

d)

WBC with Differential

4.

Shows the measurement of each individual type of WBC's

e)

Expected WBC count 5,000 to 10,000 so if elevated

5.

The more severe the infection process

27.

Medical Asepsis and Surgical Asepsis

a)
1.

Spores

Alcohol-based products are ineffective

Ex= C-diff is a spore

b)

Medical asepsis

2.

Clean

Not STERILE

c)

Surgical asepsis and Sterilization

3.

Destruction of all living microorganisms including

SPORES

d)

Disinfection

4.

Medical asepsis

28.

When opening a sterile package/drape the (a)   inch border of the drape is considered contaminated.

29.

Splashing or dripping of solution on the sterile field will cause the field to become contaminated this is referred to as (a)   contamination.

30.

If there is a question/concern that the sterile field has become contaminated, the field must be discarded.

Explain why this statement is so IMPORTANT to your clients health.

4 lines
31.

To prevent a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI bundle). Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

Day 1: Client admitted with a hx of dyspnea and inspiratory pain. Breath sounds decreased at right upper lobe.

Day 1: T 38.0° C (100.4° F) BP 114/56 mm Hg Heart rate 99/min Respiratory rate 32/min SPO2 85% on room air

Day 1: Chest x-ray shows soft tissue mass at right upper lobe,

Day 3: Lung biopsy positive for lung cancer

Day 3: Central venous access device (CVAD) inserted into right subclavian vein for chemotherapy. Gauze dressing applied over insertion site. 

a)

Use clean technique when changing the catheter dressing. 

b)

Change the catheter dressings every 2 days.

c)

Clean the access port on the CVAD line with povidone-iodine prior to use.

d)

Perform hand hygiene for 10 sec prior to changing the catheter dressing. 

e)

Use friction when cleaning the access port. 

32.

A nurse is teaching about alternative medicine.  Which of the following therapies is part of traditional Chinese medicine?

a)

Hypnotherapy

b)

Massage

c)

Chiropractic medicine

d)

Herbal remedies

e)

Acupuncture

33.

Which findings increase the client's susceptibility to infection. (Select all that apply)

Budesonide 6 mg PO daily

Hct 47% (37% to 52%), Hgb 16 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL), Potassium 3.6 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L), Client has a BMI of 16

History of type 2 diabetes mellitus, Client is a nonsmoker, Admitted with new diagnosis of Crohn's disease.

a)

Client has a BMI of 16

b)

History of type 2 diabetes mellitus

c)

Hct 47%

d)

Budesonide 6 mg PO qd

Corticosteroid prescribed for Chron's disease

34.

Which of the following practices is used in traditional Native American medicine to promote healing energy.

a)

Storytelling

b)

Cupping

c)

Tai Chi

d)

Acupressure

35.

Maria has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes since she turned 45. She lives alone and does not properly take care of herself. After turning 66, Maria's doctor informed her that she is suffering from a decrease in the kidneys' ability to filter waste and fluid from the blood due to a progressive loss of neurons. Maria is likely diagnosed with...

a)

acute renal failure

b)

glomerulonephritis

c)

chronic renal failure

d)

cystinosis

36.

Functions of the Urinary System:

a)

Excrete Wastes

b)

Regulate BP

c)

Fluid and Electrolyte Balance

d)

Storage of Fat

e)

Filters Blood

37.

Kidneys are protected by

a)

rib cage & adipose tissue

b)

pelvic bone & epithelial tissue

c)

sternum

d)

kidney stones

38.

What products are filtered from the blood and released as waste?

a)

Toxins

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

Proteins

e)

Ketones

39.

How do the kidneys control your blood pressure?

If filtration happens because of pressure it makes sense that kidneys have the ability to increase your BP naturally

. But how do they do that?

4 lines
40.

Terms used to describe complementary & integrative health approaches?

a)

Holistic, eastern, complementary, & alternative medicine

b)

Western, modern, & conventional medicine

c)

Biomedical, allopathic, &pharmaceutical approaches

d)

Traditional, chemical, & synthetic therapies

41.

Which of the following is NOT a focus area of the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH)?

a)

Botanical medicines

b)

Mind-body therapies

c)

Manual therapies

d)

Pharmaceutical drug development

42.

What is conventional medicine also known as?

a)

Biomedicine

b)

Alternative medicine

c)

Integrative medicine

d)

Eastern medicine

43.

The primary characteristic of integrative therapies?

a)

They predominantly use pharmaceutical drugs

b)

They are practiced by doctors of osteopathy (DOs) only

c)

Gather and use conventional, complementary, and alternative therapies

d)

Focus solely on the physical functions of the body

44.

Holistic nursing focus:

a)

Treatment of specific diseases

b)

The use of medication only

c)

Consideration of the whole person, mind, body, and spirit

d)

Use of surgical procedures

45.

Main purpose of acupuncture:

a)

Improve mental health through counseling

b)

Enhance physical function by stimulating specific points on the body

c)

Provide immediate pain relief through medication

d)

Promote weight loss through diet regulation

46.

Which of the following is a benefit of deep breathing as a mind-body intervention?

a)

It increases the need for sleep

b)

It controls breathing and reduces pain and anxiety

c)

It strengthens the immune system directly

d)

It improves cardiovascular health through exercise

47.

What is the primary goal of biofeedback?

a)

To provide a form of entertainment

b)

Regulate bodily functions using electronic devices

c)

Replace traditional medical treatments

d)

Enhance athletic performance

48.

What is the art of contemplative relaxation to promote mental tranquility called?

a)

Aromatherapy

b)

Biofeedback

c)

Meditation

d)

Hypnotherapy

49.

Aromatherapy primarily involves which of the following?

a)

The use of water and hydrotherapy

b)

Breathing in the scent of natural plant extracts

c)

Physical exercises to improve body strength

d)

The use of light therapy to improve mood

50.

What is the primary focus of chiropractic care?

a)

Dietary supplements

b)

Energy field rebalancing

c)

Manual therapy and spinal manipulation

d)

Ancient therapy of manipulation

51.

Reflexology is related to which part of the body?

a)

The spine

b)

The feet and hands

c)

The energy field

d)

The diet

52.

What is the main purpose of osteopathic medicine?

a)

Provide dietary guidelines

b)

Rebalance the body's energy field

c)

Focus on structural and functional rebalancing

d)

Manipulate ancient energy pathways

53.

Healing touch therapy is based on which of the following?

a)

Spinal adjustments

b)

Nutrient absorption

c)

Energy field obstructions

d)

Ancient dietary practices

54.

According to the text, most Americans can meet their nutritional needs by:

a)

Taking dietary supplements of any type

b)

Following ancient reflexology charts

c)

Meeting USDA requirements through a varied diet

d)

Undergoing chiropractic care

55.

What is a reservoir in the context of infection control?

a)

Process by which an infectious agent is spread.

b)

Habitat of the infectious agent where it lives, grows, and reproduces.

c)

The method used to isolate an infectious agent.

d)

Medication used to treat infections.

56.

Which of the following is considered a portal of entry for an infectious agent?

a)

A vaccine injection site.

b)

Any body orifice such as ears, nose, mouth, or a break in the skin.

c)

A health care professional's hands.

d)

A sterilized surgical instrument.

57.

What does the chain of infection include?

a)

Only the infectious agent and the susceptible host.

b)

The infectious agent, reservoir, and mode of transmission only.

c)

The infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.

d)

The infectious agent, vaccination, and antibiotics.

58.

What is an infectious agent?

a)

A medication that fights infection.

b)

A person who spreads infectious diseases.

c)

Something that contains bacteria, fungus, virus, parasite, or prion.

d)

A tool used for sterilizing medical equipment.

59.

What is the role of a portal of exit in the spread of infection?

a)

It is where the infectious agent is treated and eliminated.

b)

It is the means by which the infectious agent can leave the reservoir.

c)

It is the entry point for vaccines to fight the infection.

d)

It is the location where new infectious agents are created.

60.

What is required for an infectious agent to take hold and become a reservoir for infection?

a)

A) A nonspecific immune response

b)

B) A specific immune response

c)

C) A susceptible host

d)

D) An inflammatory response

61.

Which type of immunity involves neutrophils and macrophages that work as phagocytes?

a)

A) Susceptible Host Immunity

b)

B) Specific Immunity

c)

C) Nonspecific Immunity

d)

D) Passive Immunity

62.

How does direct contact transmission of microorganisms occur?

a)

A) Through the air and into the mucous of a host

b)

B) When small particulates move into the airspace of another person

c)

C) When microorganisms are directly moved from the infected person to another person without involving a contaminated object

d)

D) When microorganisms are moved from the infected person to another person via a contaminated object

63.

What is the role of antibodies in specific immunity?

a)

A) They recognize harmful stimuli and activate inflammatory pathways

b)

B) They are released during the inflammatory response

c)

C) They bind to infectious agents and call to the white blood cells and complement to destroy them

d)

D) They recruit inflammatory cells

64.

What is a key feature of the inflammatory response?

a)

A) Microorganisms are directly moved from one person to another

b)

B) Antibodies bind to infectious agents to destroy them

c)

C) Pattern receptors on the surface of cells recognize harmful stimuli

d)

D) A susceptible host is required for the infectious agent to take hold

65.

What is the term used to define the elimination of absence of disease-causing microorganisms?

a)

Incubation

b)

Convalescence

c)

Medical asepsis

d)

Systemic infection

66.

During which stage of infection does the client begin to show symptoms?

a)

Incubation

b)

Prodromal

c)

Decline

d)

Convalescence

67.

Standard precautions are applied to all clients, whether or not they are known to have an infectious agent, to prevent practices applied to:

a)

Infection

b)

Asepsis

c)

Transmission

d)

Contamination

68.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four major Health Care-Associated Infections (HAIs)?

a)

Central Line-Associated Bloodstream Infections (CLABSIs)

b)

Surgical Site Infections (SSIs)

c)

Ventilator-associated Pneumonias (VAPs)

d)

Incubation infections

69.

Hand hygiene is a broad term that covers any type of cleansing of the hands. Which of the following is NOT a method of hand hygiene?

a)

Using soap and water to wash the hands

b)

Using an antiseptic handwash or hand rub

c)

Using surgical hand antisepsis

d)

Using a sterile towel to dry hands only

70.

Whose responsibility is it to know what types of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) are needed to care for clients and to don and doff PPE appropriately?

a)

The hospital's administration

b)

The client's family members

c)

The nurse's

d)

The equipment manufacturer

71.

A reservoir in the context of infection control is the:

a)

process by which an infectious agent is spread.

b)

habitat of the infectious agent where it lives, grows, and reproduces.

c)

method used to isolate an infectious agent.

d)

medication used to treat infections.

72.

Which of the following is considered a portal of entry for an infectious agent?

a)

A vaccine injection site.

b)

Any body orifice such as ears, nose, mouth, or a break in the skin.

c)

A health care professional's hands.

d)

A sterilized surgical instrument.

73.

What is an infectious agent?

a)

A medication that fights infection.

b)

A person who spreads infectious diseases.

c)

Something that contains bacteria, fungus, virus, parasite, or prion.

d)

A tool used for sterilizing medical equipment.

74.

What is the role of a portal of exit in the spread of infection?

a)

It is where the infectious agent is treated and eliminated.

b)

It is the means by which the infectious agent can leave the reservoir.

c)

It is the entry point for vaccines to fight the infection.

d)

It is the location where new infectious agents are created.

75.

What is required for an infectious agent to take hold and become a reservoir for infection?

a)

A) A nonspecific immune response

b)

B) A specific immune response

c)

C) A susceptible host

d)

D) An inflammatory response

76.

Which type of immunity involves neutrophils and macrophages that work as phagocytes?

a)

Susceptible Host Immunity

b)

Specific Immunity

c)

Nonspecific Immunity

d)

Passive Immunity

77.

How does direct contact transmission of microorganisms occur?

a)

Through the air and into the mucous of a host

b)

Small particulates move into the airspace of another person

c)

When microorganisms are directly moved from the infected person to another person without involving a contaminated object

d)

When microorganisms are moved from the infected person to another person via a contaminated object

78.

What is the role of antibodies in specific immunity?

a)

Recognize harmful stimuli and activate inflammatory pathways

b)

They are released during the inflammatory response

c)

Bind to infectious agents and call to the WBC's and complement to destroy them

d)

Recruit inflammatory cells

79.

A key feature of the inflammatory response:

a)

Microorganisms are directly moved from one person to another

b)

Antibodies bind to infectious agents to destroy them

c)

Pattern receptors on the surface of cells recognize harmful stimuli

d)

A susceptible host is required for the infectious agent to take hold

80.

What is the term used to define the elimination of absence of disease-causing microorganisms?

a)

Incubation

b)

Convalescence

c)

Medical asepsis

d)

Systemic infection

81.

Stage of infection: The client begins to show symptoms

a)

Incubation

b)

Prodromal

c)

Decline

d)

Convalescence

82.

What type of infections are confined to one area of the body?

a)

Systemic infections

b)

Local infections

c)

Hand hygiene

d)

HAIs

83.

Standard precautions are applied to all clients, whether or not they are known to have an infectious agent, to prevent practices applied to:

a)

Infection

b)

Asepsis

c)

Transmission (spread)

d)

Contamination

84.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four major Health Care-Associated Infections (HAIs)?

a)

Central Line-Associated Bloodstream Infections (CLABSIs)

b)

Surgical Site Infections (SSIs)

c)

Ventilator-associated Pneumonias (VAPs)

d)

Incubation infections

85.

Hand hygiene = cleansing of the hands. Which of the following is NOT a method of hand hygiene?

a)

Using soap and water to wash the hands

b)

Using an antiseptic handwash or hand rub

c)

Using surgical hand antisepsis

d)

Using a sterile towel to dry hands only

86.

Whose responsibility is it to know what types of PPE is needed to care for clients and to don and doff PPE appropriately?

a)

The hospital's administration

b)

The client's family members

c)

The nurse's

d)

The equipment manufacturer