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MOC20345

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which service on Exchange Server accepts client connections?

a)

The Hub Transport Service

b)

The front-end client access service

c)

The back-end client access service

d)

The Edge Transport service

e)

Unified Messaging

2.

Exchange Server is a Microsoft on-premises messaging solution that provides:

a)

Protection of organization data

b)

Continuous availability of the messaging system

c)

Role-based access control

d)

Compliance to policies and regulations

e)

All of the above

3.

The reasons why an organization may consider migrating to Exchange Online are Cost, Disaster recovery effort and Flexibility

a)

True

b)

False

4.

With Exchange server On-Premises - organisation does not need to maintain a local installation of Exchange Server in their data center?

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Edge transport server role is placed within a  (a)   network.

6.

How can you configure high availability options for Exchange Online?

How does it differ from Exchange deployed on-premises?

4 lines
7.

What should you do to verify if the Exchange Server installation was successful?

4 lines
8.

Which methods can you use to perform Exchange Server installation?

You can perform the installation by using the (a)   , or by using ​ (b)   through the ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
GUI
unattended installation
CLI
Exchange Online Service
Active Directory tools
9.

 In which Active Directory partition does Exchange Server store its configuration?

a)

Application partition

b)

Domain Partition

c)

Schema Partition

d)

Configuration Partition

e)

Global catalog

10.

To prepare the Active Directory schema and configuration partition, you must use an account that is a member of the Schema Admins and Enterprise Admins groups.

a)

True

b)

false

11.

Multiple Exchange servers are typically required for non–scalability?

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Which of the following settings are recommended in the Exchange Server 2019 preferred architecture?

a)

Enable circular logging.

b)

Disable circular logging.

c)

Do not perform backups; use Exchange Native Data Protection instead.

d)

Store databases and transaction logs on separate disks.

e)

Use SSD (solid-state drive) drives along with JBOD (Just Bunch of Disks) drives.

13.

MCDB (metacache database ) works only if SSD disks are used together with JBOD disks.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

When you create a mailbox database from the Exchange admin center, you need to specify the mailbox database name, the server that will host the database, and paths for the database file and logs.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

What is the full form of DAG?

(a)  

16.

What are the steps for configuring MCDB?

4 lines
17.

Mailbox stores in Exchange Server consist of the following files:

Mailbox database (.edb file)

Transaction log (.log file)

Checkpoint file (.chk)

Temporary file (Tmp.edb)

Reserve log files (E##res0001.jrs - E##res000A.log per database, where ## is the log prefix)

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Can you move existing mailbox databases to a different path by using the Exchange admin center?

a)

Yes

b)

No

19.

Why would you choose to use SATA drives instead of a SAN or SCSI drives for your Mailbox servers?

a)

SATA is Cheaper

b)

SATA is Faster

c)

SATA has Better Performance

20.

What customizations can you make on mailbox databases?

4 lines
21.

Name any type of exchange server recipients?

Tip: You're expected to know at least 3, but any one will be marked correct

(a)  

22.

After the Send As permission is assigned to a delegate, any message that the delegate sends from the mailbox will appear to have been sent by the mailbox owner

a)

True

b)

False

23.

A user does not have control over the level of calendar information shared with other users in the same Exchange organization

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Linked mailboxes provide mailboxes for users in separate, (a)   forests?

25.

The 2 types of resource mailboxes are?

a)

Mail contacts

b)

Room mailbox

c)

Mail users

d)

Equipment mailbox

e)

Shared mailbox

26.

What are public folder mailboxes?

a)

Public folders are stored in a special type of mailbox called a public folder mailbox

b)

Public folder mailboxes can be stored in mailbox databases that are part of a DAG

c)

Public folders are spread across multiple public folder mailboxes

d)

Public folders are accessed by users with Outlook 2007 or later

e)

All of the above

27.

In Exchange Server, you can use address-book policies to configure (a)   segmentation

28.

The offline address book is cached on the dynamic distribution list client so that users can search the GAL when sending messages

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is the full form of LDAP?

(a)  

30.

When you install Exchange Server in an organisation, the following address lists are available by default.

a)

All Contacts

b)

All Rooms

c)

Public Folders

d)

All groups

e)

Mail contacts

31.

How would you ensure that meeting requests to room mailboxes are validated manually before being approved?

Assign a ________ for the resource, and allow the ________ to make the decision to approve or deny meeting requests that do not fit standard policies.

Tip: A single answer fits both spaces

(a)  

32.

How would you give access to allow a user to send messages from another mailbox without giving the user access to the mailbox contents?

Assign the user (a)   permissions to the mailbox.

33.

An organization has two large divisions and one Exchange organization. Employees in the two divisions rarely communicate with each other. What can you do to reduce the number of recipients that the employees of each division see when they open the Exchange Server address list?

Create (a)   .

34.

An organization has a large number of projects that leverage distribution groups. Managing group members takes considerable time. You need to reduce the time that the help desk staff spends managing groups so that they can work on other issues. What should you do?

Allow users to (a)   .

35.

You employ contractors who need an email address from your organization. You do not want the contractors to sign in to your network, but you want their names to appear in the GAL. The organization needs to enable the contractors to receive messages in their current third-party mailboxes. What should you do?

Create (a)   for each of the contractors, and use the contractors’ third-party email address as the destination address.

36.

When configuring multiple delegates for a resource mailbox, you can specify a group instead of multiple users. What are the requirements for a resource delegate group?

A resource delegate group should be a (a)   .

37.

Your organization coordinates schedules of resources and equipment with outside partners. You want to provide a solution that allows anyone from outside the organization who has an internet browser to view the scheduling information without deploying additional software. How might you accomplish this?

You can enable internet calendar publishing in your Exchange organization for the resource mailboxes by using a (a)   to support anonymous domains.

38.

The Exchange Server management tools are required to use the Windows PowerShell cmdlets for Exchange Server.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you pipe output to when you want to return specified properties of an object?

a)

Where-Object

b)

Select-Object

c)

Measure-Object

d)

Sort-Object

e)

Format-List

40.

Which Exchange Management Shell cmdlet should you use when you want to remove a mailbox but leave the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) user account otherwise intact?

a)

Remove-Mailbox

b)

Enable-MailUser

c)

Disable-Mailbox

d)

Set-Mailbox-Status Disabled

e)

Disable-MailUser

41.

Which cmdlet allows you use pipelining when the output of a cmdlet is not compatible with the cmdlet to which you want to pipe the output?

a)

Select-Object

b)

Where-Object

c)

Convert-Object

d)

ForEach-Object

e)

Convert-Pipeline

42.

Which cmdlets can you use to monitor your Exchange Server environment?

a)

Get-MailboxDatabaseCopyStatus

b)

Test-ReplicationHealth

c)

Test-MAPIConnectivity

d)

Test-MRSHealth

e)

Test-ServiceHealth

43.

What is the default Windows PowerShell execution policy on Windows Server 2012 R2 and later?

a)

Restricted

b)

Unrestricted

c)

AllSigned

d)

RemoteSigned

e)

Bypass

44.

Before running a community-provided Exchange Management Shell script, which of the following should you ensure?

a)

You trust the website from which you downloaded it

b)

You trust the author who wrote it

c)

The code is documented properly

d)

You understand what the code is doing

e)

You run the script in a lab environment before you run it in production

45.

For which types of tasks might you want to create a script?

(a)  

46.

What happens if you try to run an Exchange Server cmdlet and have not imported the Exchange Management Shell module?

Windows PowerShell will (a)   the cmdlets

47.

Which cmdlet enables a new mailbox for an existing user account.

(a)  

48.

Which cmdlet mounts a database.

(a)  

49.

POP3 and IMAP4 are automatically enabled on a server that runs Exchange Server 2019.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

If Autodiscover is not available, you can configure Outlook clients manually with the correct server name.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

There are often users in your organization that are away for extended periods of time. While those users are away, they are not checking email. To warn other users that they are away for an extended period of time, you want to implement MailTips. How should you do this?

a)

Configure a MailTip for an Extended Leave group and add users to the group when they leave.

b)

Create a MailTip object with a standard message and associate the MailTip object with each user when the absence starts.

c)

Create a MailTip policy with a standard message and associate the MailTip policy with each user when the absence starts.

d)

Associate the MailTip with an organizational unit (OU) and move users to the OU when the absence starts.

e)

Set a MailTip for each specific user when the absence starts.

52.

 When MAPI over HTTP is enabled, older clients can still use Outlook Anywhere.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Why is it beneficial to use mobile versions of Outlook with Exchange ActiveSync instead of the native messaging client on a mobile device?

(a)  

54.

After installing an add-in for Outlook, it is automatically available in both Outlook and Outlook on the web.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

In the default configuration, why is the ability to differentiate between private and public computers not very useful?

(a)  

56.

Your organization has recently migrated to Exchange Server from a non-Microsoft messaging platform. A co-worker with previous Exchange Server experience is very concerned about the number of mobile device associations that a user can have. In a position with another organization, they often had users hit the limit for device associates and this resulted in calls to the help desk, which were difficult to figure out. How many device associations can a user have in Exchange Server?

(a)  

57.

You do not need Intune to manage mobile devices with Configuration Manager

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Database Availability Groups (DAG) technology was first introduced in Exchange Server 2010?

a)

True

b)

False

59.

DAG allows up to (a)   copies of a single database on separate servers.

60.

The active database copy uses continuous replication to keep the passive copies synchronized.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

To load balance Client Access services running on two or more Exchange Servers Assigning Exchange Servers to the load balancer is not mandatory.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which services do you need to deploy to use DAGS?

a)

AD DS

b)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

c)

Failover clustering

d)

Network Load Balancing (NLB)

e)

MX records in DNS

63.

 You can use Network Load Balancing to make Client Access services highly available.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

If you want to use a Layer 4 load balancer with a health check for each service, what should you implement?

a)

Session affinity

b)

DNS round robin

c)

Another Layer 7 load balancer

d)

Single namespace

e)

Multiple namespaces

65.

When implementing highly available client access  services, consider the following

a)

All servers should have a certificate to match their address space

b)

All servers should have the same protocols enabled

c)

Use a hardware or software network load balancer

d)

Consider Layer 4 versus Layer 7 load balancing

e)

Deploy servers with similar hardware, memory, and performance

66.

What is the main purpose of Primary Active Manager?

(a)  

67.

On which service does DAG replication depend?

(a)  

68.

(a)   defines the maximum allowable time for data loss because of a service interruption

69.

(a)   defines how quickly you should recover the service.

70.

Before enabling Exchange Native Data Protection, consider a minimum of three non-lagged database copies

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Match the following

a)

Disk

1.

Increases backup performance

b)

SAN

2.

Backs up data using a dedicated network

c)

Tape

3.

Is physically easy to transport and is very durable

72.

Match the following

a)

Dial-Tone Recovery

1.

Restores server functionality rapidly before restoring historical mailbox contents

b)

DAG Recovery

2.

Mounts a database copy on a different Exchange server with the mailbox role installed

c)

Recovery Database

3.

Restores a database to an alternative location for data recovery

73.

(a)   is the process of implementing access to email services without restoring data to the user’s mailbox

74.

Write the full form of RTO

(a)  

75.

Write the full form of RPO

(a)  

76.

Write the full form of SLA

(a)  

77.

Write the full form of SAN

(a)  

78.

 Data loss mitigation features include

a)

Deleted items recovery

b)

Single item recovery

c)

In-Place Hold

d)

Deleted mailbox retention

e)

DAGs

79.

Data backup enables you to restore the data immediately / on the spot, either in the event of data loss or corruption or for test purposes

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Refer to the picture to reorder the following.

a)

Front-end transport service

b)

(Hub) transport service

c)

Mailbox transport service

1)
2)
3)
81.

(a)   is a process that requires that messages matching specific criteria are approved before delivery to the recipient

82.

Which Transport Service can setup RPC connection then access user’s MailBox

(a)  

83.

Instead of transport rules which provide simple text search, (a)   are a mechanism to prevent sensitive or business critical information from leaking outside of your organisation via email

84.

Which feature in the MBX can be used to restrict email transmission or modify the content of an email?

(a)  

85.

 By implementing DLP policies, you can guarantee that sensitive information is never sent outside your organization.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Match the following

a)

Actions

1.

Specify what is to be done to the selected messages.

b)

Conditions

2.

Specify which message attribute are used to identify the message to act upon.

c)

Exceptions

3.

Specifies messages attributes that define messages that are not acted upon.

87.

Journaling mailboxes in exchange server:

a)

Should be separate from other mailboxes

b)

Require large amounts of storage

c)

Should have unlimited access

88.

 The edge transport server role provides

a)

Antimalware and Antispam protection

b)

Address rewriting

c)

Internet message delivery

d)

Edge transport rule

e)

All of the above

89.

The edge transport server role can be managed and configure by using graphical management interface – Exchange admin center?

a)

True

b)

False

90.

 Which following statement about Edge Transport server is NOT correct?

a)

Can be deployed with any other Exchange server role

b)

Should not be a member of the internal AD DS

c)

Should be deployed in perimeter network

d)

Must be configured with a FQDN

91.

  (a)   is a process that replicates required Exchange configuration settings and recipients from AD DS to AD LDS on Edge Transport server

92.

What is the full form of EOP

(a)  

93.

What is the full form of SCL

(a)  

94.

What is the full form of NDR

(a)  

95.

Antispam agents implemented during the default installation of the Mailbox server role include

a)

Recipient filtering

b)

Sender ID

c)

Sender Filtering

d)

Attachment Filtering

e)

Connection Filtering

96.

Is it possible to delete messages without sending an non delivery report while configuring senders ID filtering?

a)

True (Yes)

b)

False (No)

97.

 SCL (Spam confidence level) is a numerical value between ​ (a)   and ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
0
9
99
1
100
98.

Referring to SCL, A value of 0 means the message is ​ (a)   , while a value of 9 means the message is ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
unlikely to be spam
likely to be spam
guaranteed to be spam
guaranteed to not be spam
99.

The Performance Monitor allows you to group different performance counters into ​ (a)   that organize multiple data points into a single component for easier

Choose from the below words
Data Collector Sets
Resource Groups
Counter Collections
Performance Sets
Counter Sets
100.

While establishing performance baseline - server updates, hardware upgrades, or maintenance can happen in the background

a)

True

b)

False

101.

The following tools can be used to help monitor system health

a)

Operations Manager (with Exchange Server 2013 Management Pack)

b)

Managed Availability

c)

Azure Monitor

d)

Performance Monitor

e)

Use Import-Counter and Export-Counter cmdlets to create customized data views

102.

As a messaging administrator one should not rely solely on end-user feedback to determine when a performance issue is present

a)

True

b)

False

103.

 If the logical disk on which your databases are located is full, the database is dismounted automatically?

a)

True

b)

False

104.

What is the full form of RBAC

(a)  

105.

Which is not a component of Role Group?

a)

Role Holder

b)

Role Entries

c)

Role Contacts

d)

Scope

e)

Role Assignment

106.

Match the following

a)

Role holders have access to Exchange Server configuration. They do not have access to administer recipient configuration.

1.

Server Management

b)

Role holders can manage Exchange Server anti-spam features and grant permissions for antivirus products to integrate with Exchange Server.

2.

Hygiene Management

c)

Role holders have access to create or modify Exchange Server recipients within the Exchange Server organization.

3.

Recipient Management

d)

role holders have access to the entire Exchange Server organization and can perform almost any task against any Exchange Server object.

4.

Organization Management

107.

Organisation can change / modify the management role assignment policy if they have different requirements regarding how users can interact with their mailboxes or groups?

a)

True

b)

False

108.

When using RBAC, you should assign administrative roles by using

a)

Management role groups

b)

Management role entries

c)

Management role assignment policies

d)

Split permissions

e)

Direct role assignment

109.

To modify the default role assignment policy for all new and existing mailboxes, you can

a)

Create new custom management roles that start with the prefix My.

b)

Add or remove management roles on the existing default role assignment policy.

c)

Place users in the management role groups that correspond to the user roles they should be assigned.

d)

Define a new role assignment policy and make it the default policy.

e)

Define a new role assignment policy and make it the default policy. Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to configure all previously created mailboxes to use the new policy.

110.

Which one of the following cmdlets must you use to enable mailbox audit logging?

a)

Enable-MailboxAuditLog

b)

New-MailboxAuditLog

c)

Set-Mailbox

d)

Set-AdminAuditLogConfig

e)

Enable-AdminAuditLog

111.

When performing maintenance on an Exchange Mailbox server, you should

a)

Use the Exchange Management Shell commands to enable the maintenance mode.

b)

Use the StartDagServerMaintenance.ps1 script to enable the maintenance mode.

c)

Restart or shut down the server and let the Primary Active Manager handle database failover automatically.

d)

Use the Exchange Management Shell commands to disable the maintenance mode.

e)

Use the StopDagServerMaintenance.ps1 script to disable the maintenance mode.

112.

Which of the following statements regarding Exchange Server cumulative updates are true?

a)

They replaced update rollups as part of the new servicing strategy introduced with Exchange Server 2010.

b)

They are released on a quarterly basis.

c)

They are available from the public Microsoft download sites.

d)

You can use them to perform a full installation of Exchange Server or an upgrade from a previous release.

e)

They may contain schema updates for AD DS.

113.

What are some of the primary Microsoft services Office 365 provides?

Tip: There are multiple correct answers, any one will be accepted.

(a)  

114.

Identity and access management for Office 365 is provided by Azure AD?

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Office 365 can be managed by using a Web interface or Windows PowerShell?

a)

True

b)

False

116.

The Office 365 web-based administrative portals include

a)

Teams admin center

b)

SharePoint admin center

c)

Exchange admin center

d)

Security and Compliance Center

e)

All of the above

117.

Match the following

a)

Migration email only from non-Exchange organisation to Exchange organisation;

Doesn’t support co-existence

1.

IMAP migration

b)

Support staged migration,

Support co-existence

Requires AD synchronisation first

2.

Stage Exchange migration

c)

It’s the smoothest migration method, and has the lowest impact on users;

Support co-existence

3.

Hybrid deployment

d)

Doesn’t support co-existence;

Have to create empty mailboxes in Exchange online first;

Then export mailbox data to PST files, then import to exchange online

4.

PST migration

e)

Copy all mailboxes from on-premises exchange server to exchange online.

Doesn’t support co-existence

5.

Cutover Exchange migration

118.

Match the following

a)

is best suited for mid-sized organizations that will complete the migration process quickly and want to decommission the Exchange Server on-premises environment when the migration is complete.

1.

Minimal Hybrid

b)

performs a one-time synchronization of AD DS with Azure AD to set up recipients and migrate mailboxes to Exchange Online.

2.

Express Migration

c)

This model requires the greatest amount of configuration and synchronization between Exchange Server and Exchange Online. However, it also provides the most complete integration.

3.

Full Hybrid

119.

While migrating to Exchange online some of the steps required to follow are

a)

Connect directory and message routing to Exchange Online

b)

Migrate the mailboxes

c)

Switch the MX resource record so that it points to Exchange Server On-premise

d)

Complete the migration and keep all the old Mailbox servers in Exchange Server

e)

All of the above

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