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TN Leadership

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Leadership is the influencing process between leaders and followers to achieve organizational objectives through change.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

2.

If a person is not interested and not willing to be in charge, he or she may still be well-suited as a follower.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

3.

Taking advantage of followers for personal gain is a part of leadership.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

4.

Research indicates that leadership success is associated with being a hard-nosed (dứt khoát, không khoan nhượng), tough manager.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

5.

Leaders tend to (thường) be born with (sẵn có) some leadership ability and develop that ability over time.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

6.

The interpersonal leadership roles include figurehead, leader, and monitor.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

7.

Spokesperson is a decisional role.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

8.

Individual and group performance are based on organizational performance.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

9.

Relationships are critical to leadership success, and they are built on interpersonal skills.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

10.

Out of Henry Mintzberg's ten ​managerial roles, the leader role is the most important.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

The leader-follower relationship represents the influence:

a)

a. of the leader on the follower.

b)

b. of the follower on the leader.

c)

c. of the leader on the group.

d)

d. between the leader and the follower.

12.

Successful leaders need these 3 managerial leadership skills:

a)

a. technical, intrapersonal, and decision-making.

b)

b. planning, decision-making,and organizing.

c)

c. decision-making,interpersonal, and technical.

d)

d. leading, planning, and decision-making.

13.

Most employees are promoted to their first management position primarily because of their ____ skills.

a)

a. interpersonal

b)

b. team-building

c)

c. decision-making

d)

d. technical

14.

Which of the following is NOT one of Mintzberg's interpersonal leadership roles?

a)

a. Figurehead

b)

b. Entrepreneur

c)

c. Leader

d)

d. Connection (Liaison)

15.

Which of the following is an example of a spokesperson role?

a)

a. Reporting information to the government.

b)

b. Attending professional/trade association meetings.

c)

c. Visiting competitor facilities.

d)

d. Purchasing new equipment.

16.

The ____ level of analysis can also be called the dyadic process.

a)

a. group

b)

b. individual

c)

c. organizational

d)

d. executive

17.

Leadership theory classifications include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

a. behavioral.

b)

b. integrative

c)

c. contingency.

d)

d. individual.

18.

The leadership paradigm that assumes leaders are born, not made, is ____ theory.

a)

a. trait

b)

b. behavioral

c)

c. integrative

d)

d. contingency

19.

____ and ____ leadership theories are also called universal theories.

a)

a. Contingency; integrative

b)

b. Trait; behavioral

c)

c. Behavioral; contingency

d)

d. Trait; integrative

20.

Contingency leadership theories attempt to explain the appropriate leadership style based on the:

a)

a. leader, followers, and situation.

b)

b. leader, manager, and subordinates.

c)

c. leader, mentor, and entrepreneur.

d)

d. individual, group, and situation.

21.

Research has confirmed that there is a limited number of confirmed and agreed upon traits these leaders have.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

22.

The Big Five Model of Personality is the most widely accepted way to classify personalities.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

23.

The majority of CEOs, but not all CEOs are extroverts.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

24.

The 4 components of emotional intelligence (EQ) are self-awareness, self-efficacy, social awareness, and self-management.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

25.

People with strong n Pow tend to seek entrepreneurial type positions and are attuned to power and politics.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

26.

Without power, there is no leadership.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

27.

People with Theory X attitudes hold that employees like to work and do not need to be closely supervised.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

Self-efficacy is the belief in your own capability to perform in a specific situation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

29.

An effective leader tends to have Theory X attitudes with a positive self-concept.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

30.

Which of the following statements regarding personality is NOT true?

a)

a. Personality is developed based on genetics and environmental factors.

b)

b. Personality involves distinguishing personal characteristics.

c)

c. Personality affects behavior as well as perceptions and attitudes.

d)

d. Personality predicts behavior and job performance.

31.

Ethics are the standards of right and wrong that influence behavior.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

32.

Which of the following is NOT a Big Five personality dimension?

a)

a. Surgency.

b)

b. Agreeableness.

c)

c. Adjustment.

d)

d. Attractiveness

33.

Of the Big Five personality dimensions, the highest correlation with leadership is:

a)

a. conscientiousness.

b)

b. openness to experience.

c)

c. surgency.

d)

d. adjustment

34.

Emotional intelligence includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

a. self-awareness.

b)

b. social awareness.

c)

c. self-management.

d)

d. self-concept.

35.

The Leader Motive Profile (LMP) defines which motive as the highest need for leaders?

a)

a. Achievement.

b)

b. Power.

c)

c. Affiliation.

d)

d. Enjoyment.

36.

____ are positive or negative feelings about people, things, and issues.

a)

a. Attitudes

b)

b. Norms

c)

c. Beliefs

d)

d. Features

37.

Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines to developing a more positive attitude and self-concept?

a)

a. Be a positive role model.

b)

b. Accept compliments.

c)

c. Set and achieve goals.

d)

d. When things go wrong, buy yourself something nice.

38.

All of the following affect ethical behavior EXCEPT:

a)

a. personality traits.

b)

b. attitudes.

c)

c. leader−follower relations.

d)

d. the situation.

39.

The 3 levels of moral development are:

a)

a. preconventional, conventional, and postconventional.

b)

b. pre-ethical, ethical, and postethical.

c)

c. bad choice, neutral, and good choice.

d)

d. undeveloped, developed, and well developed.

40.

According to studies at The University of Iowa, leadership styles include autocratic, democratic, and participative.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

41.

The high-high leader has concern for both production and people, which is also called the team leadership style.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

Through the motivation process, employees go from motive to need to behavior to consequence to satisfaction.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

43.

Like traits, a person's motives can be observed.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Based on Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, a major recommendation to leaders is to meet employees' higher level needs first.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

45.

Herzberg contends that providing maintenance factors will make employees satisfied or motivate them.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

46.

The 3 process motivation theories are equity theory, hierarchy of needs theory, and expectancy theory.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

47.

Instrumentality refers to belief that the performance will result in getting the reward.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

48.

"To increase sales by 50 percent and decrease turnover by 25 percent in 2011" is an effective objective.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

49.

"You're a good worker" is an effective statement for giving praise.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

50.

All of the following are levels of needs in the Hierarchy of needs theory EXCEPT: 

a)

a. physiological.

b)

b. safety.

c)

c. social.

d)

d. psychological.

51.

All of the following are considered extrinsic motivators (maintenance factors) in Herzberg's two-factor theory EXCEPT:

a)

a. weekly paycheck.

b)

b. fringe benefits.

c)

c. the work itself.

d)

d. the working conditions.

52.

The process of building motivators into the job itself by making it more interesting and challenging is known as:

a)

a. job enlargement.

b)

b. job enrichment.

c)

c. job enhancement.

d)

d. job performance.

53.

Which of the following is NOT a category of needs in the acquired needs theory?

a)

a. Success.

b)

b. Power.

c)

c. Achievement.

d)

d. Affiliation.

54.

The process motivation theories are alike in that all focus on:

a)

a. understanding how people choose behavior to fulfill their needs.

b)

b. explaining and predicting behavior based on people's needs.

c)

c. reinforcement of positive behaviors.

d)

d. giving praise.

55.

Managers should be aware that equity is based on:

a)

a. rewards.

b)

b. employee perceptions.

c)

c. exerted effort.

d)

d. performance.

56.

According to expectancy theory, _______ refers to the person's perception of his or her ability to accomplish an objective.

a)

a. expectancy

b)

b. instrumentality

c)

c. valence

d)

d. capability

57.

Which of the following is NOT a criteria for writing an effective objective?

a)

a. An action verb.

b)

b. A singular, specific, and measurable result to be achieved.

c)

c. A target date.

d)

d. A plan of action.

58.

Which of the following is NOT a type of reinforcement?

a)

a. Positive.

b)

b. Extinction.

c)

c. Continuous.

d)

d. Avoidance.

59.

Fines and demotions are examples of which type of reinforcement?

a)

a. Positive.

b)

b. Avoidance.

c)

c. Punishment.

d)

d. Extinction.

60.

Contingency leadership theories require that managers adapt different leadership styles to meet the situation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

61.

Fred E. Fiedler's Contingency Theory of Leadership states that leadership styles are basically constant.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

62.

Situational favorableness refers to the degree a situation enables the leader to exert influence over the followers.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

63.

The three variables of situational favorableness include task structure, position power, and leadership style.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

64.

If the leadership style does not match the situation, Fiedler recommends changing the leadership style

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

The two major continuum leadership model styles are boss-centered and subordinate-centered.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

66.

Fred E. Fiedler developed the Path-goal leadership theory.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

67.

Path-goal leadership theory is based on motivation theories of goal setting and expectancy theory.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

68.

Environment situational factors include Task structure, Formal authority, and Work group.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

69.

Normative leadership theory led to the development of the theory of charismatic leadership.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

70.

A ____ is an example for use in a given situation

a)

a. leadership theory

b)

b. leadership model

c)

c. contingency theory

d)

d. substitute for leadership

71.

The contingency leadership model variables include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

a. the leader.

b)

b. the followers.

c)

c. the situation.

d)

d. the task.

72.

Fiedler believed that one's leadership style is a reflection of ____________.

a)

a. heredity

b)

b. personality

c)

c. behavior and personality

d)

d. heredity and behavior

73.

The most powerful determinant of overall situational favorableness is:

a)

a. task structure.

b)

b. locus of control.

c)

c. position power.

d)

d. leader-member relations.

74.

Unlike other contingency leadership models, the path-goal leadership model does not have a ____ trait.

a)

a. followers

b)

b. leader

c)

c. situation

d)

d. behavior

75.

The path-goal leadership styles include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

a. directive.

b)

b. supportive.

c)

c. participative.

d)

d. affiliation-oriented.

76.

______ is the degree to which employees defer to others, want to be told what to do and how to do the job.

a)

a. Locus of control

b)

b. Authoritarianism

c)

c. Formal authority

d)

d. Path clarification

77.

Based on the situational factors, the ____ leadership style provides high structure.

a)

a. directive

b)

b. supportive

c)

c. participative

d)

d. achievement-oriented

78.

Based on the situational factors, the ____ leadership style is most appropriate when followers want to be involved.

a)

a. directive

b)

b. supportive

c)

c. participative

d)

d. achievement-oriented

79.

The NORMATIVE leadership model has ____ leadership styles.

a)

a. 5

b)

b. 2

c)

c. 4

d)

d. 3

80.

Position power is derived from top management, and it is delegated down the chain of command.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

81.

Referent power is a form of personal power.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

82.

When you use rational persuasion, you should develop a persuasive case based on your needs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

83.

To increase your legitimate power, you should be persistent.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

84.

Leaders use information power when making rational persuasion.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

85.

Politics is the process of gaining and using power.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

86.

One of the guidelines for developing political skills is to learn the power players in your organization.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

87.

Negotiation is often a zero-sum game in which one party's gain is the other party's loss.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

88.

While negotiating, you should let the other party make the first offer.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

89.

Power can be ethical and unethical.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

90.

You, as an employee and not a manager in your organization, can only have ____ power.

a)

a. position

b)

b. personal

c)

c. organizational

d)

d. earned

91.

Most day-to-day manager-employee interactions are based on ____ power.

a)

a. legitimate

b)

b. reward

c)

c. coercive

d)

d. referent

92.

To increase your reward power:

a)

a. exercise your authority regularly.

b)

b. develop your people skills.

c)

c. let people know you control rewards.

d)

d. use rewards for personal benefit.

93.

Experts commonly use:

a)

a. inspirational appeals.

b)

b. rational persuasion.

c)

c. referent power.

d)

d. ingratiation.

94.

____ is the process of getting a person whose support you need to join your coalition rather than compete.

a)

a. Reciprocity

b)

b. coalition-building

c)

c. networking

d)

d. Co-optation

95.

The first step of the networking process is to:

a)

a. develop your network.

b)

b. perform a self-assessment and set goals.

c)

c. create your one-minute self-sell.

d)

d. conduct networking interviews.

96.

Your one-minute self-sell should do all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

a. identify your career field and key results you've achieved.

b)

b. give the listener a sense of your background.

c)

c. provide the direction of your next job.

d)

d. identify your specific salary requirements.

97.

____ is a process in which two or more parties are in conflict and attempt to come to an agreement.

a)

a. problem solving

b)

b. decision-making

c)

c. Negotiating

d)

d. Influencing

98.

The most appropriate time for developing options and trade-offs in the negotiation process is during:

a)

a. negotiations.

b)

b. the planning stage.

c)

c. postponement.

d)

d. project closeout.

99.

In negotiation, when the other party postpones a decision, this:

a)

a. tend to diminish trust.

b)

b. is used as a way to play mind games with the other party.

c)

c. may be followed by your attempt to create urgency.

d)

d. Is a signal for you to use the hard sell.

100.

Communication is the process of conveying information and meaning.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

101.

The message-receiving process includes:

a)

a. listening, analyzing, and checking understanding

b)

b. listening, paraphrasing, and analyzing.

c)

c. listening, analyzing, and following up.

d)

d. listening, analyzing, and giving feedback.

102.

The purpose of 360-degree feedback is to:

a)

a. network with as many stakeholders or coworkers as possible.

b)

b.take the informal methods of improving communication and formalize them

c)

c. receive performance evaluations from many people.

d)

d. close the feedback loop and continue the next stage of the process

103.

The richest communication channel is a written memo because it allows you to go into much more detail.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

104.

In written communication, one important tip is to set an objective for your communication before you begin writing.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

105.

Analyzing is the process of thinking about, decoding, and evaluating the message.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

106.

Paraphrasing is the process of verifying messages and determining if objectives are being met.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

107.

Coaching is the process of giving motivational feedback to maintain and improve performance.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

108.

Feedback should be given two weeks after an incident to allow reflection.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

109.

Criticism is the process of pointing out mistakes, which places blame and is embarrassing.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

110.

The performance formula explains performance as a function of ability, motivation, and skills.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

111.

The one best conflict management style for all situations is collaborating, a win-win approach.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

112.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the oral message-sending process?

a)

a. Develop rapport.

b)

b. State your communication objective.

c)

c. Transmit your message.

d)

d. Analyze the feedback.

113.

The value of stating the objectives of communication is to:

a)

a. establish rapport.

b)

b. get buy-in from the recipient.

c)

c. elicit feedback before continuing the communication.

d)

d. help the receiver put the details into context.

114.

Having employees assess their own performance is a part of ____.

a)

a. mentoring

b)

b. analyzing

c)

c. conflict resolution

d)

d. coaching

115.

The three factors that make up the performance formula are:

a)

a. ability, motivation, and goals.

b)

b. ability, goals, and resources.

c)

c. ability, motivation, and resources.

d)

d. goals, motivation, and resources.

116.

The _______ is the unwritten implicit expectations of each party in a relationship.

a)

a. oral message-sending process

b)

b. performance formula

c)

c. attribution theory

d)

d. psychological contract

117.

____ exists when disagreement and opposition support the achievement of organizational objectives.

a)

a. Functional conflict

b)

b. Dysfunctional conflict

c)

c. Friction

d)

d. A dilemma

118.

Which of the following conflict management styles involves passive behavior?

a)

a. Negotiating.

b)

b. Accommodating.

c)

c. Forcing.

d)

d. Collaborating.

119.

A(n) ____ is a neutral third party who makes a binding decision to resolve a conflict.

a)

a. mediator

b)

b. consultant

c)

c. arbitrator

d)

d. negotiator

120.

Dyadic refers to the individualized relationship between a leader and each follower in a work unit.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

121.

The leader-member exchange (LMX) is the quality of the exchange relationship between a leader and a follower.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

122.

A strength of LMX Theory is the inherent bias in favor of in-group members.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

123.

The basis of LMX theory is that leaders or superiors interact with all followers equally.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

124.

Leaders mostly use reward, legitimate, and coercive power to influence out-group members.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

125.

_______ is the effort to appear competent and dependable.

a)

a. Impressions management

b)

b. Ingratiation

c)

c. Self-promotion

d)

d. Followership

126.

The ____ follower is someone who is high on involvement but low on critical thinking.

a)

a. alienated

b)

b. conformist

c)

c. passive

d)

d. pragmatic

127.

The ____ follower is someone who is neither high on critical thinking nor involvement.

a)

a. alienated

b)

b. conformist

c)

c. passive

d)

d. pragmatic

128.

Leaders who have difficulty meeting deadlines and who take work home from the job are showing signs of:

a)

a. having optimal stress levels.

b)

b. participative management.

c)

c. delegating too little.

d)

d. directive leadership.

129.

A person’s beliefs in his or her capabilities to produce at a certain level of performance​ is known as:

a)

a. ​dyadic theory.

b)

b. ​organizational citizenship behavior.

c)

c. ​locus of control.

d)

d. ​self-efficacy.

130.

Current estimates are that over 80 percent of all organizations use some form of teams.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

131.

It is more likely the case that in a group, the typical group member mentality is "what's in it for me."

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

132.

Shirking (trốn tránh) of individual responsibility, also known as social loafing, is a possible limitation of teams.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

133.

Team norms are standards of behavior dictated by the organization.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

134.

Self-managed team members' skills are typically highly specialized.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

135.

____ is an understanding and commitment to common goals on the part of all team members. 

a)

a.Goal congruence.

b)

b. Teamwork

c)

c. Team cohesion.

d)

d. Social loafing

136.

Which of the following is NOT one of the components of team effectiveness?

a)

a.Knowledge management.

b)

b.Individual satisfaction.

c)

c.Group process.

d)

d. Task performance.

137.

Which of the following statements regarding team norms is NOT true?

a)

a.Norms determine what behavior is acceptable and unacceptable.

b)

b.Norms are typically developed after a team has been together for awhile

c)

c.Norms influence how a team makes decisions.

d)

d.Norms provide the underpinnings for team cohesion.

138.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a cross-functional team?

a)

a.Improved coordination.

b)

b.Members learn new skills.

c)

c.Creative potential exceeds a single functional team.

d)

d. Their singular perspective keeps them focused

139.

The three parts of conducting effective meetings include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

a.identify objectives.

b)

b.cover agenda items.

c)

c. summarize and review assignments.

d)

d.read the minutes.

140.

Researchers consistently emphasize the role of ______ in charismatic and transformational leadership.

a)

a.coercion

b)

b.vision

c)

c.influence

d)

d.rewards

141.

Max Weber used the term "charisma" to explain the influence based on traditional or legal−rational authority systems.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

142.

Followers of charismatic leaders assume greater risk than they would under other types of leaders.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

143.

Followers' acceptance of charismatic leaders is conditional on receiving some external reward such as money.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

144.

People are born with charisma, it is impossible to acquire or enhance your charismatic qualities.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

145.

Transformational leaders are more a function of follower attributions than the leader’s vision or accomplishments.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

146.

Transformational leaders are brought into an organization to keep the status quo.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

147.

Transactional leaders are more effective at engendering follower innovative behavior than transformational leaders.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

148.

A main difference between a charismatic & transformational leader is that the former articulates a vision of the future.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

149.

Charismatic leaders most often use position power to motivate followers.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

150.

Stewardship, more than Servant Leadership, calls for the highest level of selflessness.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

151.

Which of the following statements about charisma is NOT true?

a)

a.It has been called "a fire that ignites followers".

b)

b.It is relational in nature.

c)

c. It is found solely in the leader as a psychological phenomenon.

d)

d.It is a social relationship between the leader and the follower.

152.

The Greek word charisma means:

a)

a."extraordinary quality."

b)

b."divinely inspired gift."

c)

c."exceptional ability."

d)

d."attribute of wisdom."

153.

Which of the following is NOT one of the behavior attributes that distinguish charismatic from noncharismatic leaders?

a)

a.Ability to inspire and build confidence.

b)

b.Oratorical ability.

c)

c.Ability to visualize a course of action.

d)

d.Ability to motivate followers through rewards and incentives.

154.

A major behavior pattern of charismatic leaders is their combination of:

a)

a.enthusiasm, aggressiveness,discretion, and narcissism.

b)

b.vision, enthusiasm, optimism, and high energy level.

c)

c.vision, coerciveness, reliability, and high energy level.

d)

d.pessimism, resourcefulness,analytical mind, and work ethic.

155.

In the four stage model of the transformation process, which of the following is the first stage?

a)

a.Institutionalize change.

b)

b.Challenge the status quo and make a convincing case for change.

c)

c.Inspire a shared vision of the future.

d)

d.Provide effective leadership during the change.