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Worksheets

Medical Assisting Skills

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Height and Weight measurements are used to determine whether a pt is over or under weight.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Shoes should be removed before a pt is weighed.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

An undershirt and diaper can be left on an infant while the infant is being weighed.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

The ht, wt and head circumference measurements of infants and toddlers are monitored frequently because growth is rapid.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Microencephaly can be caused by a congenital defect, infections during pregnancy and or drug/alcohol abuse during pregnancy.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following statements does not pertain to taking the daily wt of a pt?

a)

make sure the pt wears the exact same clothes

b)

make sure the scale is balanced

c)

use the same scale each day

d)

weigh the pt at the same time each day

7.

Chest circumference may be measured to determine the progression of diseases such as ____________________.

a)

myocardial infactions or MIs

b)

chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases

c)

CVA or strokes

d)

all of the above

8.

The equivalent wt in lbs for 60 kgs is ______________

a)

90 lbs

b)

120 lbs

c)

132 lbs

d)

186 lbs

9.

The position used to facilitate breathing and examine the chest is ____________________________?

a)

prone

b)

Fowler's

c)

Sims

d)

horizontal recumbent

10.

The main position used for a sigmoidoscopic examination is ______________________.

a)

horizontal recumbent

b)

lithotomy

c)

jacknife

d)

knee to chest

11.

The position used for simple rectal exams, enemas, and rectal temperatures is ___________________________.

a)

Sims'

b)

Fowler's

c)

lithotomy

d)

dorsal recumbent

12.

The position used for examination or treatment of the back or spine is______________________________.

a)

horizontal recumbent

b)

Sim's

c)

dorsal recumbent

d)

prone

13.

What position would be used for circulatory shock?

a)

jacknife

b)

dorsal recumbent

c)

trendelenburg

d)

lithotomy

14.

Both eyes

a)

OU

b)

OD

c)

OB

d)

OS

15.

A technique used during a physical examination in which a physician taps and listens for sounds coming from various body organs is _________________________________.

a)

observation

b)

palpation

c)

percussion

d)

auscultation

16.

The physician listens to sounds coming from with in the pt's body usually done with a stethoscope.

a)

auscultation

b)

percussion

c)

palpation

d)

observation

17.

The physician uses the hands and fingers to feel various parts of the body.

a)

observation

b)

palpation

c)

auscultation

d)

percussion

18.

The physician looks at the pt carefully to observe things such as skin color, growths, swelling, scars, condition of hair and nails and general appearance

a)

palpation

b)

observation

c)

percussion

d)

auscultation

19.

A _____________________ is a wooden or plastic blade used to scrape cells from the cervix during a papanicolaou test.

a)

cervical spatula (ayer blade)

b)

Laryngeal mirror

c)

ophthalmoscope

d)

sigmoidoscope

20.

_________________ is an instrument with a mirror on one end, used to examine the larynx in the throat.

a)

otoscope

b)

ayer blade

c)

percussion hammer

d)

laryngeal mirror

21.

A lighted instrument used to examine the eyes.

a)

ophthalmoscope

b)

otoscope

c)

speculum

d)

stethoscope

22.

A lighted instrument used to examine the ears.

a)

Otoscope

b)

Ophthalmoscope

c)

sigmoidoscope

d)

speculum

23.

An instrument used to test tendon reflexes.

a)

percussion hammer

b)

speculum

c)

ayer blade

24.

An instrument used to measure blood pressure.

a)

sphymomanometer

b)

stethoscope

c)

tuning fork

25.

An instrument with two prong that is used to test hearing auity.

a)

stethoscope

b)

tuning fork

c)

tongue blade

26.

An instrument used to examine internal canals of the body,

a)

speculum

b)

tunning fork

c)

sphygmomanometer

27.

A below-normal value for head circumference in an infant can be an indication of hydrocephalus.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

It is essential to make sure that a patient is not exposed during any examination or procedure.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

A patient who has 20/40 vision can see character 20 millimeters high while standing 40 feet from the Snellen Chart

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Snellen charts test only for defects in close vision or myopia.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

A common test for defects in color vision of color blindness is the Ishihara method.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

During a physical examination, a physician uses a stethoscope to auscultate sounds coming from within a patient's body.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

One kilogram is equal to 2.2 pounds.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Patients with cancer or patients on chemotherapy are weighted frequently to monitor weight loss.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

What position is this patient in?

a)

Fowlers

b)

Supine

c)

Prone

d)

Sims

36.

Name the patient position shown here.

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Lateral

d)

Sitting

37.

Name this position.

a)

Lateral

b)

Supine

c)

Sims

d)

Prone

38.

What position is the patient in?

a)

Sims

b)

Supine

c)

Prone

d)

Lateral

39.

What position is the patient in?

a)

Fowlers

b)

Prone

c)

Sims

d)

Supine

40.

What position is the patient in?

a)

Sitting

b)

Prone

c)

Semi-fowlers

d)

Lateral

41.

Name the position.

a)

Lateral

b)

Fowlers

c)

Supine

d)

Sitting

42.

Name the position.

a)

Sitting

b)

High Fowlers

c)

Sims

d)

Supine

43.

What position is this patient in?

a)

horizontal recumbent

b)

dorsal recumbent

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Fowler's

44.

What position is this patient in?

a)

Trendelenberg

b)

Sim's

c)

Fowler's

d)

Lithotomy

45.

What position is this patient in?

a)

Lithotomy

b)

High Fowler's

c)

Sim's

d)

Trendelenberg

46.

What position is this patient in?

a)

Knee chest

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Trendelenberg

d)

Sim's

47.

Assessment is performed in a head-to-toe sequence, beginning with the head and neck, progressing to the chest and abdomen, and then to the four extremities.

a)

true

b)

false

48.
Normal Respiratory Rate in Adult Patient:
a)
5-10
b)
12-20
c)
15-30
d)
20-30
49.
What is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?
a)
Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope
b)
Looking for accessory muscle use
c)
Applying a pulse oximeter
d)
Checking for cyanosis
50.
A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:
a)
weak 
b)
regular
c)
irregular
d)
strong
51.
When assessing an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint. This is called:
a)
mottling
b)
pallor
c)
flushing
d)
cyanosis
52.
Normal skin conditions should be:
a)
Flushed, cool, and dry
b)
pale, cool, and moist
c)
pink, warm, and dry
d)
pink, warm, and moist
53.

A nurse plans his abdominal assessment and will start with which technique?

a)

Palpation

b)

Inspection

c)

Percussion

d)

Auscultation

54.

When auscultating over the lung fields the nurse hears a high-pitched, musical sound like a "squeak" on expiration. What is the proper documentation of this sound?

a)

crackles

b)

a squeak

c)

rhonchi

d)

wheezes

55.

When doing a physical assessment how many body systems do you assess?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

56.

When assessing the posterior lung sounds, in which position would it be most appropriate to place the patient?

a)

High Fowler's

b)

Sims position

c)

Dorsal recumbent

d)

Semi-Fowler's

57.

When auscultating for lung sounds, which part of the stethoscope is designed to transmit the higher pitch of the abnormal sounds?

a)

Ear piece

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Bell

d)

Tubes

58.

Before the beginning of a physical assessment, to make the patient more comfortable, what should be done first?

a)

Offer patient to empty his/her bladder

b)

Give the patient a small snack

c)

Give the patient a warm blanket

d)

Ask if patient wants a cup of water

59.

Harsh, grating, or squeaky lung sounds upon auscultation; as if two pieces of leather are being rubbed together.

a)

Pulmonary friction

b)

Pulmonary bruising

c)

Pleural friction rub

d)

Whooping cough

60.

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:

a)

rales

b)

stridor

c)

rhonchi

d)

wheezing

61.

HIPAA stands for

a)

Health Information Protection and Accountability Act.

b)

Health Information Privacy Assurance Act.

c)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.

d)

Health International Privacy Assistance Act.

62.

Which of the following is included in personal protective equipment?

a)

masks

b)

gloves

c)

gown

d)

all of the above

63.

Choose two patient identifiers:

a)

Social Security Number

b)

Name

c)

Room Number

d)

Telephone Number

e)

Date of Birth

64.

Order: A. Smith 25u Insulin R c meal SQ

A. Smith was given her insulin R 2 hours before her lunch. Which right was violated?

a)

Right PT.

b)

Right Medication

c)

Right Dose

d)

Right Time/Frequency

65.

Order: A. Smith 25u Insulin R c meal SQ

C. Smith was given her insulin R with breakfast. Which right was violated?

a)

Right PT.

b)

Right Medication

c)

Right Dose

d)

Right Time/Frequency

66.

Order: A. Smith 25u Insulin R c meal SQ

A. Smith was given her insulin NPH with breakfast. Which right was violated?

a)

Right PT.

b)

Right Medication

c)

Right Dose

d)

Right Time/Frequency

67.

Order: A. Smith 25u Insulin R c meal SQ

A. Smith was given 45 units of insulin R with breakfast. Which right was violated?

a)

Right PT.

b)

Right Medication

c)

Right Dose

d)

Right Time/Frequency

68.

Common intramascular injection site for infants?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Right Dorsogluteal

c)

Left Dorsogluteal

d)

Vastus Lateralis

69.

gtt

a)

teaspoon

b)

mililliter

c)

drop

d)

Tablespoon

70.

BID

a)

every day

b)

twice a day

c)

three times a day

d)

four times a day

71.

As Needed

a)

NPO

b)

PRN

c)

PO

d)

PPN

72.

Which of the following is not an appropriate site for an intramuscular injection?

a)

Dorsogluteal

b)

Deltoid

c)

Vastus Lateralis

d)

Dermal

73.

Darlene is about to give her patient an intramuscular injection. What angle should the injection be given?

a)

90 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

15 degrees

d)

It depends on the size of the needle and size of the patient

74.

Sylvie is going to give her 1-year-old patient an IM injection. Which is the preferred IM site?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Vastus Lateralis

c)

Dorso Gluteal

d)

Ventrogluteal

75.

Michael is going to give his patient an injection of iron. To help minimize the pain, what can Michael do?

a)

Use the largest gauge needle that is appropriate.

b)

Inject the medication quickly.

c)

Use the Z-track technique.

d)

Do not tell the patient when he is going to give the injection.

76.

What size and gauge needle are used to give intramuscular injections?

a)

1/2- to 1-inch needle that is 23 to 25 gauge

b)

1- to 1 1/2-inch needle that is 20 to 23 gauge

c)

1/2- to 5/8-inch needle that is 20 to 23 gauge

d)

2- to 2 1/2-inch needle that is 20 to 23 gauge

77.
A medication that is taken twice a day:
a)
TID
b)
BID
c)
QID
d)
q8h
78.

Sites for Sub- Q injections

a)

forearm

b)

deltoid

c)

upper outer arm

d)

front of thigh

e)

rectus femoris