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BTECH 3321 FULL EXAM 1 REVIEW

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

"The class grading system includes homework, short quizzes, class participation, three exams and a paper. "

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

2.

What was developed after a series of manufacturing mishaps in the 60's and 70's?

a)

Good Documentation Practices

b)

FDA

c)

current Good Manufacturing Practices

d)

validation processes

e)

DEA

3.

Which congressional act recognized USP?

a)

Act of 1848

b)

Act of 1937

c)

Act of 1938

d)

Act of 1906

e)

Wiley Act

4.

The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) is an agency within the Department of Health and Human Services and consists of nine centers/offices.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

5.

"Thalidomide, a sedative marketed to combat morning sickness, caused birth defects in thousands of babies born in Western Europe"

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

6.

The FDA's portion of the CFR is Title 21 of CFR.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

7.

Which conflict brought regulation to US importation of drugs?

a)

Thalidomide Crisis

b)

The Elixir Sulfanilamide Crisis

c)

Spanish-American War

d)

Mexican-American war

e)

War of 1812

8.

Weekly quizzes will be posted by Friday and due Mondays by 11:59pm.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

9.

Each homework should be submitted two ways in Blackboard- the Turn It In Submission and the Blackboard Submission.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

10.

Which of the following is not a branch of the FDA?

a)

Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)

b)

Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH)

c)

National Center for Toxicological Research (NCTR)

d)

Center for Vaccine Evaluation and Research (CVER)

e)

Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN)

11.

"The CFR is in place to ensure identity, strength, quality and taste of drug products. Failure to comply renders the drug as adulterated and the firm could be subject to regulatory action. "

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

12.

"Samuel Hopkin Adams, Upton Sinclair, Harvey W. Wiley, M.D were the prominent muckrakers. "

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

"If there is a conflict between regulations, the less specific regulation applicable to the product will supersede the more general"

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

14.

What is not a benefit of cGMPS?

a)

Prevents and controls contamination and cross-contamination

b)

Minimizes variations in potency of the drug

c)

Ensures reproducibility of processes and manufacturing of drug products

d)

Ensures products are safe for use in humans

e)

Promotes side effects and toxicity due to variations in drug content and potency

15.

Quinine was used to treat:

a)

headaches

b)

influenza

c)

Yellow Fever

d)

Jaundice

e)

Ebola

16.

"Nearly 500 deaths and injuries from sulfathiazole tablets, an antibiotic, tainted with the sedative, phenobarbital. "

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

What company does Ashley work for?

a)

Hope Biosciences

b)

Novartis

c)

Moderna

d)

Lonza

18.

What did the Biologics Control Act of 1902 did not require the federal government to issue pre-market approval for biological drugs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

What is subpart F of Title 21 CFR Part 211?

a)

production and process controls

b)

records and reports

c)

laboratory controls

d)

buildings and facilities

20.

In 1963 the first set of GMPs were published: A drug shall be deemed unadulterated if the methods used in, or the facilities or controls used for its manufacture, processing, packing, or holding, do not conform with current good manufacturing practice to assure that such drug meets the requirements of this Act as to safety, and has the identity and strength, and meets the quality and purity characteristics, which it purport to possess. 

a)

True

b)

False

21.

What does CFR stand for?

a)

Code of Federal Regulations

b)

Correct Federal Regulations

c)

Code of Federal Regulatory

d)

Code of Federal Radiobiology

22.

Kefauver-Harris Amendments of 1962

a)

Required drug makers to prove safety and efficacy of drug before the FDA will approve commercialization

b)

Did not require drug manufacturers to notify FDA before a company begins human testing

c)

Adverse reaction reports to FDA are optional

d)

Recommended label warnings on habit-forming drugs

23.

The Elixir Sulfanilamide crisis of 1937 contained a solvent in the drug that was a highly toxic variant of _________.

a)

antifreeze

b)

alcohol

c)

diethylene glycol

d)

isopropyl alcohol

24.

Samuel Hopkins Adams wrote "The Jungle" exposing the meat industry in 1906. 

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The FDA only regulates food, drugs, biologics and medical devices. 

a)

True

b)

False

26.

"_________________ means a finished dosage form, for example, tablet, capsule, solution, etc., that contains an active drug ingredient generally in association with inactive ingredients."

a)

Drug Product

b)

Biologic

c)

Raw Material

d)

Component

27.

What does cGMP stand for?

a)

current Good Manufacturing Practices

b)

correct Good Manufacturing Practices

c)

current Good Manufacturing Purposes

d)

current Goods Making Practices

28.

The Biologics Control Act of 1902 required federal government to issue pre-market approval for biological drugs.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

"_____ is the drug product component that is intended to furnish pharmacological property or other direct effect in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or preventation of disease. "

a)

Active Ingredient

b)

Inactive Ingredient

c)

Excipient

d)

Component

30.

Thalidomide, a sedative marketed to combat morning sickness, caused birth defects in thousands of babies born in Western Europe.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

"FDA stands for ________________________ and started out as BOC, which stands for _________________ and was under the US Department of Agriculture."

a)

"Food and Drug Administration, Bureau of Chemistry "

b)

"Food and Drug Administration, Bureau of Wizardry "

c)

"Food and Drug Administration, Bureau of Conservation "

d)

"Field and Drug Administration, Bureau of Chemistry"

32.

What does API stand for?

a)

Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Active Performance Ingredient

c)

Inactive Pharmaceutical Ingredient

d)

Active Pharmacology Ingredient

33.

The crisis of a sedative in antibiotic caused nearly 300 deaths and injuries from sulfathiazole tablets, an antibiotic, tainted with the sedative, phenobarbital. A major cause of this was the tableting machines of two different products were in the same room.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

"Required all medications entering U.S. to be inspected by the US Customs Service and analyzed for ""quality, purity, and fitness for medical purposes.”"

a)

Drug Importation Act 1848

b)

U.S. Pharmacopeia (USP)

c)

Tetanus-contaminated serum

d)

Biologics Control Act of 1902

35.

"cGMP regulations for finished pharmaceuticals are covered in CFR title _____, Parts ____ and _____. "

a)

"21, 210 and 211"

b)

"22, 210 and 211"

c)

"21, 211 and 212"

d)

"21, 209 and 210"

36.

Which of the following is not one of the eight centers or offices of the FDA?

a)

Center for Vaccine Evaluation and Research (CVER)

b)

Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)

c)

Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER)

d)

Office of Regulatory Affairs (ORA)

37.

The Pure Food and Drugs Act 1906 (Wiley Act)

a)

"Prohibits interstate commerce in misbranded and adulterated foods, drinks, and drugs"

b)

Second federal law to regulate food and drugs

c)

Had to list 15 substances

d)

Could be false or misleading

38.

"1.      The regulations set forth in CFR21 parts 210 and 211 contain the minimum current good manufacturing practices for any buildings or facilities used in the m____________, p_____________, p______________, or h_______________ of a drug product to assure that such drug meets the requirements of the FFDCA. (2 pts)"

a)

"manufacture, processing, packing or holding"

b)

"manufacture, processing, packaging or holding"

c)

"manufacture, processing, packing or handling"

d)

"making, processing, packaging or holding"

39.

"Under plumbing regulations in a cGMP facility, water supply must be under positive pressure and must at least meet ____________ drinking water standards."

a)

CDER

b)

EPA

c)

CBER

d)

FDA

40.

"Nexus Pharmaceuticals in Pleasant Prairie, Wisconsin is a packaging center for products indicated for the treatment of bleeding disorders."

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

41.

"Sterile filling rooms for certain types of drugs, like intravenous and ophthalmic formulations, would usually have what kind of doors?"

a)

glass doors

b)

single doors with airlocks

c)

no doors

d)

double doors with airlocks

42.

"A _______ is a layout showing material flow, personnel movement, the order of processes, storage and staging areas for materials in a manufacturing. "

a)

positive pressure

b)

facility

c)

cleanroom

d)

site map

43.

Adequate and appropriate lighting is recommended in a cGMP facility because it is an FDA guideline.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

One cGMP requirement for equipment is that they should be constructed of material that is __________________ with the drug components. The most common material type to meet that requirement is _____________________.

a)

"non reactive, polished stainless steel "

b)

"reactive, polished stainless steel"

c)

"non reactive, copper"

d)

"reactive, aluminum "

45.

Describe one cGMP requirement for aseptic processes

a)

hide errors from management

b)

wear less PPE

c)

perform functions quickly and move fast

d)

performing routine environmental monitoring

46.

"One cGMP regulation states that buildings and facilities should have adequate lighting, plumbing and HVAC. What does HVAC stand for?"

a)

"Heating, Ventilation, and Air Cooling"

b)

"Hot Air, Ventilation, and Air Cooling"

c)

"Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning"

d)

"Heater, Ventilation, and Air Coolant"

47.

What is Rudy Herrera's title from this week's videos posted in Blackboard?

a)

Head of Supply Chain

b)

Head of Quality Control

c)

Head of Manufacturing

d)

Head of Quality

48.

"In a New Drug Application, the ____________________________ (SMF) serves to demonstrate a company’s compliance with GMP and gives a general overview about the facility and it’s operations."

a)

subject matter file

b)

site makers file

c)

site map

d)

site master file

49.

"Of two types of hood normally found in a drug manufacturing facility, one type is designed to protect ____________ and the other is designed to protect _____________."

a)

"penicillin, products"

b)

"personnel, products"

c)

"pets, products"

50.

Describe two examples of controls that are put into place to assure consistently reliable operation of equipment.

a)

using a broken equipment and continuing production

b)

maintenance and break down

c)

FDA and DEA

d)

maintenance and validation

51.

Describe one feature of floors in cGMP-complaint facilities

a)

must be painted a gray color

b)

must be shiny

c)

difficult to clean

d)

sloped towards a drain for easy cleaning

52.

"As a cGMP requirement for aseptic processes, what 2 climate components are controlled to discourage microbial growth and maintain product stability?"

a)

temperature and outdoor weather

b)

temperature and personnel

c)

humidity and outdoor weather

d)

temperature and humidity

53.

What two general categories of “stuff” do companies test for when they perform environmental monitoring?

a)

floor and ceiling monitoring

b)

fungus and bacteria

c)

swabbing and sampling

d)

viable and non viable

54.

The air that is recirculated in a facility for aseptic processes are HEPA filtered. What does HEPA stand for?

a)

Healthy Effective Particulate Air

b)

High Effective Particulate Air

c)

High Efficiency Particulate Air 

d)

Happy Efficiency Particulate Air

55.

"On regulations on the proper segregation of space to minimize product contamination, the antibiotic, _______________, shall be handled in facilities separate from those used for other human drugs."

a)

Penicillin

b)

Albuterol

c)

fluticasone

d)

Levothyroxine

56.

"After a drug product is released for distribution into the marketplace, reserve materials are retained by the manufacturer. Describe one cGMP requirement for the reserve materials."

a)

At least twice the quantity needed for all tests

b)

stored in a different container

c)

At least four times the quantity needed for all tests

d)

"For API, 2 years after expiration date of the last lot"

57.

"USP provides standardized tests, or SOPs, for physicial characteristics of containers and closures, including tests for heavy metals and other residues, that may affect the quality of the drug product. What does USP stand for? "

a)

United States Pediatrics

b)

United States Practices

c)

United States Pharmacy

d)

United States Pharmacopeia

58.

"Tests to determine conformance to specifications prior to release of each batch includes only raw materials, in-process materials and drug products."

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

59.

"For the control of cut labels, if applied manually, describe how the labels should be inspected. "

a)

200% visual inspection for hand-applied labels

b)

25% visual inspection for hand-applied labels

c)

300% visual inspection for hand-applied labels

d)

100% visual inspection for hand-applied labels

60.

"After receiving and confirming the identification of delivered components, containers or closures, the materials are assigned to QC analysts within how many days upon arrival?"

a)

within 5 days

b)

immediately

c)

within 1 to 2 days

d)

within 10 days

61.

"Under QC sampling procedures, there needs to be at least one test conducted on components received for conformity to specifications and to confirm results of tests provided by a material supplier in the CofA. What does C of A stand for?"

a)

Certificate of Conformance

b)

Conformity of Assurance

c)

Certificate of Analysis

d)

Conformance of Analysis

62.

Pressure/vacuum decay and dye penetration tests are some advantages to testing the integrity of containers and closure systems. What is not an advantage of those alternative tests to that of directly testing for microbial contamination.

a)

may require less time then sterility test methods

b)

conserve samples that may be used for other stability tests

c)

biological tests require at least seven days incubation

d)

alternative tests may be more cost effective

63.

Two types of closures of drug products are _____ and ______.

a)

tube and carton

b)

vial and bottle

c)

jar and container

d)

caps and seals

64.

Two types of containers of drug products are _____ and _______.

a)

cap and lid

b)

tube and carton

c)

caps and seals

d)

bottles and syringes

65.

The expiration date on a drug product is based on __________ data.

a)

stability

b)

microbiological

c)

API

d)

raw

66.

"For the control of containers, closures, packages and labels, there must be procedures written and followed on the release, id, storage and handling. "

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

67.

Which company is in the Quality Control Laboratories Help Ensure High Quality Medicines video?

a)

Takeda

b)

Eli Lilly and Company

c)

Lonza

d)

Moderna

68.

"As a result of cyanide poisoning of children's Tylenol in the 1980s, over-the-counter drugs are now required to have _______ package or design. "

a)

tamper-evident

b)

advanced

c)

approved

d)

smart

69.

CFR 21 Part 211 subpart G is about:

a)

organization and personnel

b)

holding and distribution

c)

packaging and labeling control

d)

equipment

70.

A device that serves to seal a container is referred to as a ________.

a)

syringe

b)

closure

c)

bottle

d)

carton

71.

"A component is any ingredient intended for use in the manufacture of a drug product, including those that may not appear in such drug product."

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

72.

What type of facility does the Lonza Career video mention?

a)

large facilities

b)

small facilities

c)

state-of-the-art facilities

d)

gene technology facilities

73.

_________ means printing labels for more than one drug product on one sheet of material.

a)

Combined printing

b)

Gang-printed

c)

Cut labels

d)

Group printed

74.

Inspection of a packaging equipment to ensure that nothing remains from an earlier processed batch is referred to as _______

a)

inspection by QA

b)

final check

c)

final clearance event

d)

line clearance

75.

What type of stem cell is mentioned in the Hope Biosciences video?

a)

cord blood

b)

omnipotent stem cells

c)

plasma

d)

mesenchymal stem cells

76.

A second person is not allowed to document another person's work unless they are designated and trained to do so.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

77.

If you make a mistake in entering data in a table, you should erase it with White-Out or Liquid paper, write the correct entry on top of the White-out, and initial and date the correction.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

78.

There are normally 3 signatures found on the cover page of an executed batch record. Who are the 2 of the signatories?

a)

QA and QC approval

b)

technical reviewer and HR

c)

technical reviewer and operations

d)

technical reviewer and QA approval

79.

Under Records and Reports GMPs, the importance of documentation is highlighted in the Expression, If it's not recorded, then it ___________________________.

a)

FDA won't find out

b)

didn't happen

c)

it's ok because you have a good memory

d)

documentation is not important

80.

An __________ is an amount of material in excess of what would normally be used up by a process, allocated for reasons like a huge amount of materials that may be needed for all the control tests.

a)

maximum

b)

percentage

c)

theoretical yield

d)

overage

81.

To make a correction, draw a single line through any mistakes, intial and date the correction. Include a reason for the correction at the bottom of the page.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

82.

In one of the videos where does Dean work?

a)

Thermo Scientific

b)

Moderna

c)

Unique Pharmaceuticals

d)

Quva Pharma

83.

Two types of information which are required in labels of containers of dispensed materials are weighed by and checked by.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

84.

In addition to the cover page, list 2 types of information that are included as part of Master Batch Records.

a)

QC testing and QA inspection

b)

quarantine and rejection

c)

Line Clearance and QC testing

d)

Detailed Manufacturing Steps and Control Instructions

85.

Executed batch records are documentation to demonstrate that the batch was made according to the approved procedures as outlined in the MBR. The EBR is reviewed by

a)

HR

b)

Quality Assurance

c)

Quality Control

d)

Manufacturing

86.

Written production and process control procedures shall be followed and shall be _________________________.

a)

Written down immediately on a spiral pocket notebook

b)

Documented with pencil

c)

Documented at time of performance

d)

Documented with red ink

87.

In the Advil tablet manufacturing video, how many checks are conducted in different steps in the tableting process to monitor and obtain consistent quality of the drug product?

a)

96 checks

b)

5 checks

c)

10 checks

d)

no checks

88.

Rejected in-process materials shall be identified and controlled under a _____ system designed to prevent their use in manufacturing or processing operations for which they are unsuitable.

a)

manufacturing

b)

quality

c)

acceptance

d)

quarantine

89.

What is the apparatus or piece of equipment that is used to take small amounts of in-process material for testing from an equipment like a V-Blender?

a)

beaker

b)

sampler

c)

sample thief

d)

sample device

90.

All records are to be retained (and available for review by an investigator) until at least 3 years after the expiration date of the batch of drug.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

91.

The last step of the process flow for solid dosage form is:

a)

blending

b)

granulation

c)

crystallization/drying

d)

packaging

92.

A diagram contains all the information a trained operator needs to make the product the same way every time with the goal of achieving batch to batch quality.

a)

investigation

b)

good

c)

process flow

d)

fishbone

93.

What does OOS stand for?

a)

Office-of-science

b)

Out-of-scope

c)

Out-of-specification

d)

Out-of-samples

94.

A Class _____ recall is issued whenever a defective product could cause serious health problems or death.

a)

4

b)

1

c)

3

d)

2

95.

Calculation of yields should be performed by one person and verified by another person.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

96.

ANSI stands for American New Standards Institute.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

97.

"In equipment logs, aside from cleaning and maintenance activities, what is the 3rd type of activity that is normally recorded?"

a)

calibration

b)

batch recording recording

c)

quality control testing

d)

quality assurance record review

98.

A master batch record must include the actual yields.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

99.

A product that was subjected to improper storage condition can still be salvaged if there is evidence from inspection of the affected premises that the drug products were in fact not subjected to improper stroage conditions as a result of a disaster.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

100.

"Physical controls of a facility does not include hair nets, gloves, tyvek suits, filtered supply air to work areas"

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

101.

"After a batch of drug had been produced, a batch that does not meet acceptance criteria maybe rejected outright or placed in ______ pending final disposition by the ______ group, or determination that it maybe reprocessed."

a)

"storage, quality"

b)

"quarantine, quality"

c)

"cabinet, lab technician"

d)

"manufacturing, quality"

102.

"Production, control, or distribution records, associated with a batch, shall be retained for at least _______ year after the batch expiration, and ________ years after distribution for OTC."

a)

"3,1"

b)

"2,3"

c)

"2,2"

d)

"1,3"

103.

CAPA stands for?

a)

Central and Postive Correction

b)

Compliant and Preventative Action

c)

Corrective and Performing Action

d)

Corrective and Preventative Action

104.

"Actual yield means the quantity that is actually produced at any appropriate phase of manufacture, processing, or packing of a particular drug product. "

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

105.

AQL stands for Acceptable Quality Limit

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

106.

"In a laboratory notebook page, an FDA auditor would expect to see the signature of the researcher who performed the experiment, and the signature of a second person who reviewed the accuracy and completeness of data entered."

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

107.

" _________ logs, that show the amount of starting materials, and details of where the material went, are required to provide traceability of Components, Drug Product Containers & Closures, and Labels."

a)

Equipment

b)

Inventory

c)

Calibration

d)

Personnel

108.

Laboratory records must include ____ data from all tests done to ensure compliance.

a)

incomplete

b)

partial

c)

extra

d)

complete

109.

One acceptable occurrence that can lead to reprocessing is not labels that are smeared and illegible.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

110.

A higher than expected yield is always a good thing.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE