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PHAR 812 E3 (Mora OI)

Total questions: 38

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An immunocompromised host is one with defects in natural defenses that predispose to infection:

a)

AIDS

b)

Changes in normal flora and fauna

c)

Neutropenia

d)

Nephrotoxicity

2.

Opportunistic infections: infection that occurs due to lack of host defenses (infection does not usually occur in a healthy host).

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Which opportunistic infections need primary prophylaxis?

a)

Pneumocystis pneumoniae

b)

Mycobacterium Avium Complex

c)

Toxoplasmosis

d)

Cryptococcosis

4.

How does Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) present?

a)

Fever

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

SOB

d)

Bradycardia

e)

Mucus producing cough

5.

How can you diagnose PCP?

a)

Specimen staining

b)

Microscopic examination

c)

Gram-staining

d)

Chest X-Ray

6.

Primary prophylaxis for PCP is needed when CD4 is ___ or there is a history of oropharyngeal candidiasis?

a)

<250

b)

<200

c)

<150

d)

<100

7.

What do you use for primary prophylaxis for PCP?

a)

Bactrim DS 1 tab daily

b)

Bactrim SS 1 tab daily

c)

Bactrim DS 1 tab TIW

d)

Bactrim SS 1 tab 5x per week

8.

You can DC primary prophylaxis when CD4 >200 for ___ for PCP.

a)

>1 month

b)

>2 months

c)

>3 months

d)

>4 months

9.

How can you treat moderate-severe disease of PCP?

a)

Prednisone

b)

Bactrim IV

c)

Micafungin IV

d)

Methylprednisolone

10.

When would you need to use prednisone for PCP?

a)

pO2 <70 mmHg

b)

A-a gradient >45 mmHg

c)

pO2 <85 mmHg

d)

A-a gradient >35 mmHg

11.

How long do you treat moderate-severe PCP?

a)

14 days

b)

21 days

c)

28 days

d)

35 days

12.

How can you treat Mild-Moderate PCP?

a)

Methylprednisolone

b)

Prednisolone

c)

Bactrim DS tab PO TID

d)

Bactrim IV

13.

How long do you treat mild-moderate PCP?

a)

14 days

b)

21 days

c)

28 days

d)

35 days

14.

When treating PCP, you are giving high doses of Bactrim so you need to watch for what SE?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypomangesemia

c)

Nephrotoxicity

d)

Hemolytic anemia

15.

All patients with a history of PCP should be on secondary prophylaxis until CD4 >200 for >6 months.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What do you need to monitor when a patient is on Bactrim?

a)

CBC

b)

K+

c)

SCr

d)

LFTs

e)

Skin manifestations

17.

Which medications need testing of G6PD before starting?

a)

Atovaquone

b)

Primaquine

c)

Dapsone

d)

Pentamide

18.

Toxoplasma gondii sexual cycle of the parasite takes place in:

a)

The bowel of dogs

b)

The bowels of cats

c)

Pigeon droppings

d)

Black bird small intestine

19.

Toxoplasmosis clinical presentation is seen with all except:

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Altered mental status

c)

Hemiparesis

d)

Cranial nerve disturbances

20.

Primary prophylaxis for toxoplasma-seropositive with a CD4 count ___, using Bactrim DS 1 tab PO daily.

a)

<200

b)

<150

c)

<100

d)

<50

21.

What drugs are needed for preferred treatment of toxoplasma gondii encephalitis?

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Sulfadiazine

d)

Leucovorin

22.

Leucovorin in toxoplasma gondii encephalitis is only needed for:

a)

combating bone marrow suppression

b)

combating hypokalemia

c)

combating RBC suppression

d)

combating crystalluria

23.

Treatment for toxoplasma gondii encephalitis is needed for at least ___.

a)

4 weeks

b)

6 weeks

c)

8 weeks

d)

10 weeks

24.

What do you monitor for TE treatment or prophylaxis?

a)

CBC

b)

CBC with diff

c)

K+

d)

Skin manifestations

25.

Mycobacterium avium complex occurence in AIDS patients posses the greatest risk when CD4 is what?

a)

<100

b)

<75

c)

<50

d)

<25

26.

What is your preferred regimens for MAC primary prophylaxis?

a)

Azithromycin once weekly

b)

Clarithromycin BID

c)

Azithromycin BID

d)

Clarithromycin once weekly

27.

Can DC MAC primary prophylaxis when CD4 >100 for >3 months.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What is you preferred treatment for MAC?

a)

Rifabutin

b)

Rifampin

c)

Ethambutol

d)

Clarithromycin

e)

Azithromycin

29.

How long do you treat MAC for?

a)

At least 1 year

b)

At least 10 months

c)

At least 16 months

d)

At least 2 years

30.

When can you DC secondary prophylaxis for MAC?

a)

CD4 >50 for >3 months

b)

CD4 >100 for >3 months

c)

CD4 >50 for >6 months

d)

CD4 >100 for >6 months

31.

Azithromycin and clarithromycin can cause what SE:

a)

Optic neuritis

b)

QT prolongation

c)

Uveitis

d)

Urine discoloration

32.

Ethambutol can cause what SE:

a)

Optic neuritis

b)

QT prolongation

c)

Uveitis

d)

Urine discoloration

33.

Rifabutin can cause what SE:

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

QT prolongation

c)

Uveitis

d)

Urine discoloration

e)

Abnormal taste

34.

IRIS (immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome) is a clinical deterioration with s/s of an inflammatory illness.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

IRIS usually manifests within ___ after starting ART.

a)

2 months

b)

3 months

c)

4 months

d)

5 months

36.

Development of IRIS is associated with mycobacterial (TB), fungal (crypto-meningitis), and viral OIs.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

It may be prudent to delay ART to decrease the risk of IRIS.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

How can you treat IRIS?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

APAP

c)

Corticosteroids

d)

Fluids

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