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AWS Cloud Practitioner - Simulador #2

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which AWS managed service is used to host databases?

a)

AWS Batch

b)

AWS Artifact

c)

AWS Data Pipeline

d)

Amazon RDS

2.

Which AWS service provides a simple and scalable shared file storage solution for use with Linux-based AWS and on-premises servers?

a)

Amazon S3

b)

Amazon Glacier

c)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

d)

Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS)

3.

When architecting cloud applications, which of the following are a key design principle?

a)

Use the largest instance possible

b)

Provision capacity for peak load

c)

Use the Scrum development process

d)

Implement elasticity

4.

Which AWS service should be used for long-term, low-cost storage of data backups?

a)

Amazon RDS

b)

Amazon Glacier

c)

AWS Snowball

d)

AWS EBS

5.

Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is a shared control between a customer and AWS?

a)

Physical controls

b)

Patch management

c)

Zone security

d)

Data center auditing

6.

Distributing workloads across multiple Availability Zones supports which cloud architecture design principle?

a)

Implement automation.

b)

Design for agility.

c)

Design for failure.

d)

Implement elasticity.

7.

A company wants to reduce the physical compute footprint that developers use to run code. Which service would meet that need by enabling serverless architectures?

a)

Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2)

b)

AWS Lambda

c)

Amazon DynamoDB

d)

AWS CodeCommit

8.

Which AWS service provides alerts when an AWS event may impact a companyגTM€s AWS resources?

a)

AWS Personal Health Dashboard

b)

AWS Service Health Dashboard

c)

AWS Trusted Advisor

d)

AWS Infrastructure Event Management

9.

Which of the following are categories of AWS Trusted Advisor? (Choose two.)

a)

Fault Tolerance

b)

Instance Usage

c)

Infrastructure

d)

Performance

e)

Storage Capacity

10.

Which task is AWS responsible for in the shared responsibility model for security and compliance?

a)

Granting access to individuals and services

b)

Encrypting data in transit

c)

Updating Amazon EC2 host firmware

d)

Updating operating systems

11.

Where should a company go to search software listings from independent software vendors to find, test, buy and deploy software that runs on AWS?

a)

AWS Marketplace

b)

Amazon Lumberyard

c)

AWS Artifact

d)

Amazon CloudSearch

12.

Which of the following is a benefit of using the AWS Cloud?

a)

Permissive security removes the administrative burden.

b)

Ability to focus on revenue-generating activities.

c)

Control over cloud network hardware.

d)

Choice of specific cloud hardware vendors.

13.

When performing a cost analysis that supports physical isolation of a customer workload, which compute hosting model should be accounted for in the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)?

a)

Dedicated Hosts

b)

Reserved Instances

c)

On-Demand Instances

d)

No Upfront Reserved Instances

14.

Which AWS service provides the ability to manage infrastructure as code?

a)

AWS CodePipeline

b)

AWS CodeDeploy

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

AWS CloudFormation

15.

If a customer needs to audit the change management of AWS resources, which of the following AWS services should the customer use?

a)

AWS CodePipeline

b)

AWS CodeDeploy

c)

AWS Direct Connect

d)

AWS CloudFormation

16.

What is Amazon CloudWatch?

a)

A code repository with customizable build and team commit features.

b)

A metrics repository with customizable notification thresholds and channels.

c)

A security configuration repository with threat analytics.

d)

A rule repository of a web application firewall with automated vulnerability prevention features.

17.

Which service allows a company with multiple AWS accounts to combine its usage to obtain volume discounts?

a)

AWS Server Migration Service

b)

AWS Organizations

c)

AWS Budgets

d)

AWS Trusted Advisor

18.

Which of the following services could be used to deploy an application to servers running on-premises? (Choose two.)

a)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

b)

AWS OpsWorks

c)

AWS CodeDeploy

d)

AWS Batch

e)

AWS X-Ray

19.

Which Amazon EC2 pricing model adjusts based on supply and demand of EC2 instances?

a)

On-Demand Instances

b)

Reserved Instances

c)

Spot Instances

d)

Convertible Reserved Instances

20.

Which design principles for cloud architecture are recommended when re-architecting a large monolithic application? (Choose two.)

a)

Use manual monitoring.

b)

Use fixed servers.

c)

Implement loose coupling.

d)

Rely on individual components.

e)

Design for scalability.

21.

Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that allows for one-hour target response time for support cases?

a)

Enterprise

b)

Business

c)

Developer

d)

Basic

22.

Where can AWS compliance and certification reports be downloaded?

a)

AWS Artifact

b)

AWS Concierge

c)

AWS Certificate Manager

d)

AWS Trusted Advisor

23.

Which AWS service provides a customized view of the health of specific AWS services that power a customerגTM€s workloads running on AWS?

a)

AWS Service Health Dashboard

b)

AWS X-Ray

c)

AWS Personal Health Dashboard

d)

Amazon CloudWatch

24.

Which of the following is an advantage of consolidated billing on AWS?

a)

Volume pricing qualification

b)

Shared access permissions

c)

Multiple bills per account

d)

Eliminates the need for tagging

25.

Which of the following steps should be taken by a customer when conducting penetration testing on AWS?

a)

Conduct penetration testing using Amazon Inspector, and then notify AWS support.

b)

Request and wait for approval from the customerגTM€s internal security team, and then conduct testing.

c)

Notify AWS support, and then conduct testing immediately.

d)

Request and wait for approval from AWS support, and then conduct testing.

26.

Which of the following AWS features enables a user to launch a pre-configured Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance?

a)

Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS)

b)

Amazon Machine Image

c)

Amazon EC2 Systems Manager

d)

Amazon AppStream 2.0

27.

How would an AWS customer easily apply common access controls to a large set of users?

a)

Apply an IAM policy to an IAM group.

b)

Apply an IAM policy to an IAM role.

c)

Apply the same IAM policy to all IAM users with access to the same workload.

d)

Apply an IAM policy to an Amazon Cognito user pool.

28.

What technology enables compute capacity to adjust as loads change?

a)

Load balancing

b)

Automatic failover

c)

Round robin

d)

Auto Scaling

29.

Which AWS services are defined as global instead of regional? (Choose two.)

a)

Amazon Route 53

b)

Amazon EC2

c)

Amazon S3

d)

Amazon CloudFront

e)

Amazon DynamoDB

30.

Which AWS service would you use to obtain compliance reports and certificates?

a)

AWS Artifact

b)

AWS Lambda

c)

Amazon Inspector

d)

AWS Certificate Manager

31.

Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following tasks are the responsibility of the AWS customer? (Choose two.)

a)

Ensuring that application data is encrypted at rest

b)

Ensuring that AWS NTP servers are set to the correct time

c)

Ensuring that users have received security training in the use of AWS services

d)

Ensuring that access to data centers is restricted

e)

Ensuring that hardware is disposed of properly

32.

Which AWS service can be used to manually launch instances based on resource requirements?

a)

Amazon EBS

b)

Amazon S3

c)

Amazon EC2

d)

Amazon ECS

33.

A company is migrating an application that is running non-interruptible workloads for a three-year time frame. Which pricing construct would provide the MOST cost-effective solution?

a)

Amazon EC2 Spot InstancesEBS

b)

Amazon EC2 Dedicated Instances

c)

Amazon EC2 On-Demand Instances

d)

Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances

34.

The financial benefits of using AWS are: (Choose two.)

a)

reduced Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).

b)

increased capital expenditure (capex).

c)

reduced operational expenditure (opex).

d)

deferred payment plans for startups.

e)

business credit lines for stratups.

35.

Which AWS Cost Management tool allows you to view the most granular data about your AWS bill?

a)

AWS Cost Explorer

b)

AWS Budgets

c)

AWS Cost and Usage report

d)

AWS Billing dashboard

36.

Which of the following can an AWS customer use to launch a new Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) cluster?

a)

AWS Concierge

b)

AWS CloudFormation

c)

Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

d)

Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

e)

AWS Management Console

37.

Which of the following is an AWS Cloud architecture design principle?

a)

Implement single points of failure.

b)

Implement loose coupling.

c)

Implement monolithic design.

d)

Implement vertical scaling.

38.

Which of the following security measures protect access to an AWS account? (Choose two.)

a)

Enable AWS CloudTrail.

b)

Grant least privilege access to IAM users.

c)

Create one IAM user and share with many developers and users.

d)

Enable Amazon CloudFront.

e)

Activate multi-factor authentication (MFA) for privileged users.

39.

Which service provides a hybrid storage service that enables on-premises applications to seamlessly use cloud storage?

a)

Amazon Glacier

b)

AWS Snowball

c)

AWS Storage Gateway

d)

Amazon Elastic Block Storage (Amazon EBS)

40.

Which of the following services falls under the responsibility of the customer to maintain operating system configuration, security patching, and networking?

a)

Amazon RDS

b)

Amazon EC2

c)

Amazon ElastiCache

d)

AWS Fargate

41.

Which of the following is an important architectural design principle when designing cloud applications?

a)

Use multiple Availability Zones.

b)

Use tightly coupled components.

c)

Use open source software.

d)

Provision extra capacity.

42.

Which AWS support plan includes a dedicated Technical Account Manager?

a)

Developer

b)

Enterprise

c)

Business

d)

Basic

43.

Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) offers which of the following benefits over traditional database management?

a)

AWS manages the data stored in Amazon RDS tables.

b)

AWS manages the maintenance of the operating system.

c)

AWS automatically scales up instance types on demand.

d)

AWS manages the database type.

44.

Which service is best for storing common database query results, which helps to alleviate database access load?

a)

Amazon Machine Learning

b)

Amazon SQS

c)

Amazon ElastiCache

d)

Amazon EC2 Instance Store

45.

Which of the following is a component of the shared responsibility model managed entirely by AWS?

a)

Patching operating system software

b)

Encrypting data

c)

Enforcing multi-factor authentication

d)

Auditing physical data center assets

46.

Which options does AWS make available for customers who want to learn about security in the cloud in an instructor-led setting? (Choose two.)

a)

AWS Trusted Advisor

b)

AWS Online Tech Talks

c)

AWS Blog

d)

AWS Forums

e)

AWS Classroom Training

47.

Which of the following features can be configured through the Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) Dashboard? (Choose two.)

a)

Amazon CloudFront distributions

b)

Amazon Route 53

c)

Security Groups

d)

Subnets

e)

Elastic Load Balancing

48.

If each department within a company has its own AWS account, what is one way to enable consolidated billing?

a)

Use AWS Budgets on each account to pay only to budget.

b)

Contact AWS Support for a monthly bill.

c)

Create an AWS Organization from the payer account and invite the other accounts to join.

d)

Put all invoices into one Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket, load data into Amazon Redshift, and then run a billing report.

49.

How do customers benefit from AmazonגTM€s massive economies of scale?

a)

Periodic price reductions as the result of AmazonגTM€s operational efficiencies

b)

New Amazon EC2 instance types providing the latest hardware

c)

The ability to scale up and down when needed

d)

Increased reliability in the underlying hardware of Amazon EC2 instances

50.

Which AWS services can be used to gather information about AWS account activity? (Choose two.)

a)

Amazon CloudFront

b)

AWS Cloud9

c)

AWS CloudTrail

d)

AWS CloudHSM

e)

Amazon CloudWatch

51.

Which of the following common IT tasks can AWS cover to free up company IT resources? (Choose two.)

a)

Patching databases software

b)

Testing application releases

c)

Backing up databases

d)

Creating database schema

e)

Running penetration tests

52.

In which scenario should Amazon EC2 Spot Instances be used?

a)

A company wants to move its main website to AWS from an on-premises web server.

b)

A company has a number of application services whose Service Level Agreement (SLA) requires 99.999% uptime.

c)

A companyגTM€s heavily used legacy database is currently running on-premises.

d)

A company has a number of infrequent, interruptible jobs that are currently using On-Demand Instances.

53.

Which AWS feature should a customer leverage to achieve high availability of an application?

a)

AWS Direct Connect

b)

Availability Zones

c)

Data centers

d)

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

54.

Which is the minimum AWS Support plan that includes Infrastructure Event Management without additional costs?

a)

Enterprise

b)

Business

c)

Developer

d)

Basic

55.

Which AWS service can serve a static website?

a)

Amazon S3

b)

Amazon Route 53

c)

Amazon QuickSight

d)

AWS X-Ray

56.

How does AWS shorten the time to provision IT resources?

a)

It supplies an online IT ticketing platform for resource requests.

b)

It supports automatic code validation services.

c)

It provides the ability to programmatically provision existing resources.

d)

It automates the resource request process from a companyגTM€s IT vendor list.

57.

What can AWS edge locations be used for? (Choose two.)

a)

Hosting applications

b)

Delivering content closer to users

c)

Running NoSQL database caching services

d)

Reducing traffic on the server by caching responses

e)

Sending notification messages to end users

58.

Which of the following can limit Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket access to specific users?

a)

A public and private key-pair

b)

Amazon Inspector

c)

AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies

d)

Security Groups

59.

A solution that is able to support growth in users, traffic, or data size with no drop in performance aligns with which cloud architecture principle?

a)

Think parallel

b)

Implement elasticity

c)

Decouple your components

d)

Design for failure

60.

A company will be moving from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. What would be one financial difference after the move?

a)

Moving from variable operational expense (opex) to upfront capital expense (capex).

b)

Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable capital expense (capex).

c)

Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable operational expense (opex).

d)

Elimination of upfront capital expense (capex) and elimination of variable operational expense (opex).

61.

How should a customer forecast the future costs for running a new web application?

a)

Amazon Aurora Backtrack

b)

Amazon CloudWatch Billing Alarms

c)

AWS Simple Monthly Calculator

d)

AWS Cost and Usage report

62.

Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that provides technical support through phone calls?

a)

Enterprise

b)

Business

c)

Developer

d)

Basic

63.

Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of AWS?

a)

Encrypting client-side data

b)

Configuring AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles

c)

Securing the Amazon EC2 hypervisor

d)

Setting user password policies

64.

One benefit of On-Demand Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) pricing is:

a)

the ability to bid for a lower hourly cost.

b)

paying a daily rate regardless of time used.

c)

paying only for time used.

d)

pre-paying for instances and paying a lower hourly rate.

65.

An administrator needs to rapidly deploy a popular IT solution and start using it immediately. Where can the administrator find assistance?

a)

AWS Well-Architected Framework documentation

b)

Amazon CloudFront

c)

AWS CodeCommit

d)

AWS Quick Start reference deployments