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Worksheets

2022 Groton Vet Science CDE

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During which phase of a bacterial infection do the first signs of illness occur?

a)

Prodromal phase

b)

Acute phase

c)

Decline phase

d)

Convalescent Phase

2.

Transduction requires the transmission of bacterial DNA by a

a)

Vector

b)

Virus

c)

Fomite

d)

Carrier

3.

Which of the following external parasites transmits Lyme disease?

a)

Flies

b)

Fleas

c)

Mosquito

d)

Ticks

4.

Which of the following organisms causes ringworm infection?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Fungi

d)

Parasites

5.

Which of the following factors would be recommended as part of a disease prevention program?

a)

Overcrowding the animals

b)

Ventilation airflow moving from the youngest to the oldest animals

c)

inadequate sanitation

d)

a nutritionally deficient diet

6.

The goal of a farm-based vaccination program is to establish ______ immunity.

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

Herd

d)

Natural

7.

What information must be listed on the container of a drug that is intended for animals but may not be consumed by humans?

a)

Withdrawal time

b)

NDC number

c)

Generic name

d)

Lot number

8.

Detoxification of a drug usually occurs in which body organ?

a)

Liver

b)

Lungs

c)

Skin

d)

Kidneys

9.

Ointments or salves are examples of _______ medications.

a)

Intradermal

b)

Topical

c)

Local

d)

Internal

10.

The amount of medicine given over a predetermined period of time is called the _______.

a)

Dosage

b)

Rate

c)

PRN

d)

Route

11.

An animal is positioned on its side for what type of radiographic view?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Ventral

d)

Lateral

12.

What piece of equipment is used to measure the thickness of the part of the animal to be radiographed?

a)

Autotransfer

b)

Caliper

c)

Cassette

d)

Collimator

13.

What types of cells are responsible for wound contraction?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Myofibroblasts

c)

Platelets

d)

Monocytes

14.

Epithelialization and scar formation occur during which phases of wound healing?

a)

Inflammatory

b)

Debridement

c)

Repair

d)

Maturation

15.

What term is used to describe any substance that is noxious to the body?

a)

intussusception

b)

emetic

c)

poison

d)

shock

16.

Inflammation of the urinary bladder is known as

a)

Cystitis

b)

Peritonitis

c)

dystocia

d)

uremia

17.

If an animal is injured by an accident begins to shiver when being examined, what medical condition might it be experiencing?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Shock

c)

Low blood volume

d)

cardiac function

18.

What three areas are of primary importance to check during an initial examination of an injured animal?

a)

bleeding

wounds

fractures

b)

skin protection

fractures

bleeding

c)

airway

breathing

cardiac functions

d)

bleeding

breathing

heat conservation

19.

Cervical dislocation as a method of euthanasia may only be used in which of the following?

a)

Mice and rats weighing over 200 grams, birds, fish, and chickens

b)

mice and rats weighing under 200 grams, rabbits under 1 kg, poultry

c)

mice and rats weighing under 200 grams, rabbits over 1 kg, frogs

d)

mice and guinea pigs weighing under 200 grams, reptiles, fish

20.

Which method of euthanasia requires the use of a guillotine?

a)

Cervical dislocation

b)

decapitation

c)

Captive bolt

d)

CO2

21.

When is it safe to provide a post-surgical animal with food and water?

a)

immediately

b)

in two hours

c)

in four hours

d)

when sternal

22.

Antesthetized animals should be placed on a warm surface, both during surgery and post-operatively to prevent ________.

a)

Hyperthermia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Vasoconstriction

23.

Which of the following is defined as a state of unconsciousness in which there is a loss of sensation throughout the body?

a)

Local anesthesia

b)

General anesthesia

c)

Inhalant anesthesia

d)

topical anesthesia

24.

Which type of knot is the easiest to tie and the most reliable for tying most suture material?

a)

simple knot

b)

square knot

c)

granny knot

d)

surgeon's knot

25.

Which type of suture needle have the suture material attached directly to the needle by the factory?

a)

single-eyed needle

b)

curved needle

c)

swaged needle

d)

french-eyed needle

26.

Which absorbable suture material induces the greatest tissue reaction?

a)

Silk

b)

Surgical gut

c)

Dexon

d)

Stainless steel

27.

When performing the final surgical clip on a dog, what size clipper blade is used?

a)

#5

b)

#10

c)

#15

d)

#40

28.

Which of the following sterilization methods is used most often to decontaminate purified water systems?

a)

Steam sterilization

b)

Ethylene Oxide

c)

Gamma irradiation

d)

Ultraviolet radiation (UV)

29.

Gold colored handles on certain needle holders signify ________.

a)

They are made in Germany

b)

They have titanium tips

c)

They have tungsten carbide inserts

d)

They are for veterinary use only

30.

What type of clamping instrument is used to stop bleeding by collapsing the lumen to the blood vessel?

a)

Tissue forceps

b)

Hemostatic forceps

c)

Towel clamp

d)

Hand held retractor

31.

Which number blade is usually in a #3 scalpel?

a)

No. 10

b)

No. 11

c)

No. 20

d)

No. 21

32.

Which instrument is used to check for periodontal pockets around the teeth?

a)

Hand scaler

b)

Periodontal probe

c)

Forceps

d)

Prophy cup

33.

Which instrument is used to polish the surfaces of the tooth crown after scaling?

a)

Hand scaler

b)

Curette

c)

Forceps

d)

Prophy cup

34.

The white slippery film that collects around the gingival sulcus of the tooth is called ____.

a)

halitosis

b)

Plaque

c)

Halitosis

d)

food debris

35.

What is the technical term used to describe the simple category of teeth?

a)

Deciduous

b)

Brachydont

c)

Hypsodont

d)

Permanent

36.

Which structure of animal teeth includes the blood vessels and nerves of the tooth?

a)

Enamel

b)

Dentin

c)

Cementum

d)

Pulp

37.

Dogs and cats are classified in which comparative feeding category?

a)

Carnivore

b)

Herbivore

c)

Omnivore

d)

Vegetarian

38.

Severe ________ is the most significant clinical sign of Salmonella.

a)

Fever

b)

Headache

c)

Muscle spasms

d)

Diarrhea

39.

Hydrophobis is another name for _________.

a)

Anthrax

b)

Mad Cow Disease

c)

Brucellosis

d)

Rabies

40.

_______ are the definitive hosts in toxoplasmosis.

a)

Cats

b)

Dogs

c)

Cattle

d)

Horses

41.

A(n) _____ is the name of the diagnostic test performed after an animal has succumbed to disease.

a)

Serology

b)

Signalement

c)

Postmortem autopsy

d)

Pathology

42.

Which of the following would appear lightest on a radiograph?

a)

Air

b)

Soft tissues

c)

Bone

d)

Minerals

43.

The _______ refill time of a healthy animal should be less than one or two seconds.

a)

Rumen

b)

Intestinal

c)

Bladder

d)

Capillary

44.

A ________ occurs when cells grown in an uncontrolled manner.

a)

Birth defect

b)

pneumothorax

c)

neoplasm

d)

hernia

45.

Surgery can result in which type of situation?

a)

Idiopathic

b)

Latrogenic

c)

Traumatic

d)

Degenerative

46.

Arthritis is a _______ disease.

a)

Metabolic

b)

Nutritional

c)

Idiopathic

d)

Degenerative

47.

Schistosomas reflexus is an example of a ________

a)

Metabolic disease

b)

Congenital anomaly

c)

Trauma

d)

Neoplam

48.

In which of the following situations is a vaccination for kennel cough often required?

a)

Veterinary hospital

b)

Dog show

c)

Boarding kennel

d)

Staying on a neighbor's farm

49.

What term is used to describe the confinement of an animal separate from the herd in an effort to prevent the spread of a disease?

a)

Quarantine

b)

Detainment

c)

Biosecurity

d)

Containment

50.

What is a disadvantage of administering a modified live vaccine?

a)

Provide a higher level of and longer lasting immunity

b)

stimulates both antibody production and cell-mediated immunity

c)

increased chance that the animal can develop the disease after vaccination

d)

Does not require a booster vaccination 3-4 weeks after the initial vaccination