Free Printable ISTQB Question Bank 701 to 740

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ISTQB Question Bank 701 to 740

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins

Name

Class

Date

According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?

A bug report

A defect report

An incident report

A test summary report

A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to ‘other’). Once a week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks. What is one possible use of such a report?

To identify new risks to system quality.

To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.

To check risk coverage by tests.

To measure exploratory testing.

Which tools help to support static testing?

Static analysis tools and test execution tools.

Review process support tools, static analysis tools and coverage measurement tools.

Dynamic analysis tools and modeling tools.

Review process support tools, static analysis tools and modeling tools.

Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools?

Test management and control.

Test specification and design.

Test execution and logging.

Performance and monitoring.

What are the potential benefits from using tools in general to support testing?

Greater quality of code, reduction in the number of testers needed, better objectives for testing.

Greater repeatability of tests, reduction in repetitive work, objective assessment.

Greater responsiveness of users, reduction of tests run, objectives not necessary.

Greater quality of code, reduction in paperwork, fewer objections to the tests.

What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing?

Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much.

Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased.

The tool may find defects that aren’t there.

The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.

Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?

Data-driven and keyword-driven

Data-driven and capture-driven

Capture-driven and keyhole-driven

Playback-driven and keyword-driven

Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization?

Assess organizational maturity, strengths and weaknesses.

Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.

Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria.

Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.

Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation?

Decide which tool to acquire.

Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool.

Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects.

Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets.

10.

What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?

Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.

Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.

Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.

Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or components.

11.

An exhaustive test suite would include:

All combinations of input values and preconditions.

All combinations of input values and output values.

All pairs of input value and preconditions.

All states and state transitions.

12.

Which statement about testing is true?

Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.

Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work.

Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.

Testing can only be done by an independent test team.

13.

For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database, which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn’t have time to execute all of the steps?

1. Open database and confirm existing customer

2. Change customer’s marital status from single to married

3. Change customer’s street name from Parks Road to Park Road

4. Change customer’s credit limit from 500 to 750

5. Replace customer’s first name with exactly the same first name

6. Close the customer record and close the database

Tests 1 and 4

Tests 2 and 3

Tests 5 and 6

Tests 3 and 5

14.

Consider the following list of either product or project risks:

I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.

II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.

III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.

IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.

V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following statements is true?

I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.

II and V are primarily product risks and I, III and V are primarily project risks.

I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.

III and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.

15.

Consider the following statements about regression tests:

I. They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.

II. They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).

III. They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse affect elsewhere in the system.

IV. They are only effective if automated.

Which pair of statements is true?

I and II

I and III

II and III

II and IV

16.

Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for structure-based (white-box) test techniques?

V. Decision outcomes exercised

W. Partitions exercised

X. Boundaries exercised

Y. Conditions or multiple conditions exercised

Z. Statements exercised

V, W or Y

W, X or Y

V, Y or Z

W, X or Z

17.

Review the following portion of an incident report.

1. I place any item in the shopping cart.

2. I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart.

3. I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart.

4. I click the < Checkout > button.

5. I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, ‘No items in shopping cart. Click to continue shopping.’

6. I click < Okay >.

7. I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates.

8. The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6.

Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following important aspects of a good incident report is missing from this incident report?

The steps to reproduce the failure.

The summary.

The check for intermittence.

The use of an objective tone.

18.

Which of the following are benefits and which are risks of using tools to support testing?

1. Over-reliance on the tool

2. Greater consistency and repeatability

3. Objective assessment

4. Unrealistic expectations

5. Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

6. Ease of access to information about tests or testing

7. Repetitive work is reduced

Benefits: 3, 4, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 2 and 5

Benefits: 1, 2, 3 and 7, Risks: 4, 5 and 6

Benefits: 2, 3, 6 and 7. Risks: 1, 4 and 5

Benefits: 2, 3, 5 and 6. Risks: 1, 4 and 7

19.

Which of the following encourages objective testing?

Unit testing

System testing

Independent testing

Destructive testing

20.

Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?

Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and require preparation and follow up.

There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.

Reviews must be controlled by the author.

Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.

21.

Consider the following list of test process activities:

I. Analysis and design

II. Test closure activities

III. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

IV. Planning and control

V. Implementation and execution

Which of the following places these in their logical sequence?

I, II,III, IV and V.

IV, I, V, III and II.

IV, I, V, II and III.

I, IV, V, III and II.

22.

Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Which one of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?

Show that the system works before we ship it.

Find as many defects as possible.

Reduce the overall level of product risk.

Prevent defects through early involvement.

23.

Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?

Test management and control

Test specification and design

Test execution and logging

Performance and monitoring

24.

Consider the following types of tools:

V. Test management tools

W. Static analysis tools

X. Modeling tools

Y. Dynamic analysis tools

Z. Performance testing tools

Which of the following of these tools is most likely to be used by developers?

W, X and Y

V, Y and Z

V, W and Z

X, Y and Z

25.

What is a test condition?

An input, expected outcome, pre-condition and post-condition

The steps to be taken to get the system to a given point

Something that can be tested

A specific state of the software, e.g. before a test can be run

26.

Which of the following general testing principles are true?

I. Testing shows the presence of defects but not the absence of defects

II. Testing of combinations of inputs and outputs will find all defects

III. Testing should start after the completion of key development tasks

VI. Testing of safety-critical software is similar to testing web applications

I is true; II, III and IV are false

II is true; I, III and IV are false

I and II are true; III and N are false

II and III are true; I and IV are false

27.

If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When the temperature reaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the minimum set of test input values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?

15, 19 and 25 degrees

17, 18, 20 and 21 degrees

18, 20 and 22 degrees

16 and 26 degrees

28.

By creating future tests based on the results of previous tests, a tester is demonstrating what type of informal test design technique?

Security testing

Non-functional testing

Exploratory testing

Interoperability testing

29.

What is the purpose of confirmation testing?

To confirm the users’ confidence that the system will meet their business needs.

To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.

To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a result of changes made.

To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its specification.

30.

Which success factors are required for good tool support within an organization?

Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it.

Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits.

Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving them.

Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of using the tool are maintained.

31.

Which of the following best describes integration testing?

Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components.

Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration.

Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.

Integration of automated software test suites with the product.

32.

According to the ISTQB Glossary, debugging:

Is part of the fundamental testing process.

Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.

Involves intentionally adding known defects.

Follows the steps of a test procedure.

33.

Which of the following could be a root cause of a defect in financial software in which an incorrect interest rate is calculated?

Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.

Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.

Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest alculation rules.

Inaccurate calculators were used to calculate the expected results.

34.

Assume postal rates for ‘light letters’ are:

$0.25 up to 10 grams;

$0.35 up to 50 grams;

$0.45 up to 75 grams;

$0.55 up to 100 grams.

Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?

0, 9,19, 49, 50, 74, 75, 99,100

10, 50, 75,100, 250, 1000

0, 1,10,11, 50, 51, 75, 76,100,101

25, 26, 35, 36, 45, 46, 55, 56

35.

Consider the following decision table for Car rental.

TC1: Don’t supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.

TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.

TC1: Don’t supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.

TC1: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don’t supply car.

36.

What is exploratory testing?

The process of anticipating or guessing where defects might occur.

A systematic approach to identifying specific equivalent classes of input.

The testing carried out by a chartered engineer.

Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.

37.

What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage?

9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests.

9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.

9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software.

9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.

38.

A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document?

Master test plan

System test plan

Acceptance test plan

Project plan

39.

What is the best description of static analysis?

The analysis of batch programs

The reviewing of test plans

The analysis of program code or other software artifacts

The use of black-box testing

40.

System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, a tester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of ‘finding as many defects as possible during system test’ might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?

Impossibility of exhaustive testing.

Importance of early testing.

The absence of errors fallacy.

Defect clustering.

100 %

ISTQB Question Bank 701 to 740

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins

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