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Worksheets

N5 Physics - Complete quiz

Total questions: 181

Worksheet time: 5hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The diagram represents a water wave.


The wavelength of the water wave is

a)

2 mm

b)

3 mm

c)

4 mm

d)

6 mm

e)

18 mm

2.

The period of vibration of a guitar string is 8 ms.


The frequency of the sound produced by the guitar string is

a)

0·125 Hz

b)

12·5 Hz

c)

125 Hz

d)

800 Hz

e)

8000 Hz

3.

The diagram represents a wave.


The wavelength of the wave is the horizontal distance between points

a)

P and Q

b)

P and S

c)

Q and R

d)

R and S

e)

S and T

4.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

5.

A student makes the following statements about waves.


I In a transverse wave, the particles vibrate parallel to the direction of travel of the wave.

II Light waves and water waves are both transverse waves.

III Sound waves are longitudinal waves.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II only

e)

II and III only

6.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

7.

A microwave signal is transmitted by a radar station.


The signal is reflected from an aeroplane.


The aeroplane is at a height of 30 km directly above the radar station.


The time between the signal being transmitted and the reflected signal being received back at the radar station is

a)

5 × 10-5 s

b)

1 × 10-4 s

c)

2 × 10-4 s

d)

5 × 103 s

e)

1 × 104 s

8.

A wave machine in a swimming pool generates 15 waves per minute.


The wavelength of these waves is 2∙0 m. The frequency of the waves is

a)

0∙25 Hz

b)

0∙50 Hz

c)

4∙0 Hz

d)

15 Hz

e)

30 Hz

9.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

10.

A student is studying waves with a period of 80·0 ms and a wavelength of 4·00 m.


The frequency of these waves is

a)

0·0125 Hz

b)

0·320 Hz

c)

12·5 Hz

d)

80·0 Hz

e)

320 Hz

11.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

12.

A student makes the following statements about microwaves and radio waves.


I In air, microwaves travel faster than radio waves.

II In air, microwaves have a longer wavelength than radio waves.

III Microwaves and radio waves are both members of the electromagnetic spectrum.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

II and III only

13.

A member of the electromagnetic spectrum has a shorter wavelength than visible light and a lower frequency than X-rays. This type of radiation is

a)

gamma

b)

ultraviolet

c)

infrared

d)

microwaves

e)

radio waves

14.

A student makes the following statements about different types of electromagnetic waves.


I Light waves are transverse waves.

II Radio waves travel at 340 m s−1 through air.

III Ultraviolet waves have a longer wavelength than infrared waves.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

15.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

16.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

17.

Which of the following electromagnetic waves has a higher frequency than microwaves and a lower frequency than visible light?

a)

Gamma rays

b)

Infrared

c)

Radio

d)

Ultraviolet

e)

X-rays

18.

A student makes the following statements about members of the electromagnetic spectrum.


I Gamma rays have a longer wavelength than X-rays.

II Ultraviolet rays have a longer wavelength than infrared rays.

III TV and radio waves have a longer wavelength than microwaves.


Which of the statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II only

e)

II and III only

19.

A beam of light has a wavelength of 4·80 × 10-7 m in air. The frequency of this light is

a)

1·60 × 10-15 Hz

b)

2·40 × 10-15 Hz

c)

7·08 × 108 Hz

d)

4·17 × 1014 Hz

e)

6·25 × 1014 Hz

20.

A student makes the following statements about waves.


I Waves transfer energy.

II A wave with a short wavelength diffracts more than a wave with a long wavelength.

III The amplitude of a wave depends on its wavelength.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II only

e)

I and III only

21.

Which of the following diagrams shows the diffraction of water waves as they pass between two walls?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
22.

A student makes the following statements about diffraction.


I Diffraction occurs when waves pass from one medium into another.

II Waves with a longer wavelength diffract more than waves with a shorter wavelength.

III Microwaves diffract more than radio waves.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

23.

A ray of red light passes through a double glazed window.


Which diagram shows the path of the ray as it passes through the window?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
24.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

25.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

26.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

27.

The diagram shows a ray of light P incident on a rectangular glass block.


Which of the following are refracted rays?

a)

Q and R

b)

R and S

c)

S and T

d)

Q and S

e)

R and T

28.

Which row describes alpha (α), beta (β) and gamma (γ) radiations?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

29.

Alpha radiation ionises an atom.


Which statement describes what happens to the atom?

a)

The atom splits in half.

b)

The atom releases a neutron.

c)

The atom becomes positively charged.

d)

The atom gives out gamma radiation.

e)

The atom releases heat.

30.

Which row in the table shows how the mass and charge of an alpha particle compares to the mass and charge of a beta particle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

31.

During ionisation an atom becomes a positive ion.


Which of the following has been removed from the atom?

a)

An alpha particle

b)

An electron

c)

A gamma ray

d)

A neutron

e)

A proton

32.

Which of the following describes the term ionisation?

a)

An atom losing an orbiting electron.

b)

An atom losing a proton.

c)

A nucleus emitting an alpha particle.

d)

A nucleus emitting a neutron.

e)

A nucleus emitting a gamma ray.

33.

Which row in the table shows the paths taken by alpha particles and gamma radiation as they pass through a uniform electric field between two metal plates?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

34.

A student makes the following statements.


I The nucleus of an atom contains protons and electrons.

II Gamma radiation produces the greatest ionisation density.

III Beta particles are fast moving electrons.


Which of the statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

e)

II and III only

35.

A radioactive source emits alpha, beta and gamma radiation. A detector, connected to a counter, is placed 10 mm in front of the source. The counter records 400 counts per minute.


A sheet of paper is placed between the source and the detector. The counter records 300 counts per minute.


The radiation now detected is

a)

alpha only

b)

beta only

c)

gamma only

d)

alpha and beta only

e)

beta and gamma only

36.

A student makes the following statements about ionising radiations.


I Ionisation occurs when an atom loses an electron.

II Gamma radiation produces greater ionisation (density) than alpha particles.

III An alpha particle consists of 2 protons, 2 neutrons and 2 electrons.


Which of the statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

37.

The half-life of a radioactive source is 64 years.


In 2 hours, 1∙44 x 108 radioactive nuclei in the source decay.


What is the activity of the source in Bq?

a)

2 x 104

b)

4 x 104

c)

1∙2 x 106

d)

2∙25 x 106

e)

7∙2 x 107

38.

For a particular radioactive source, 240 atoms decay in 1 minute.


The activity of this source is

a)

4 Bq

b)

180 Bq

c)

240 Bq

d)

300 Bq

e)

14 400 Bq

39.

A student writes the following statements about the activity of a radioactive source.


I The activity decreases with time.

II The activity is measured in becquerels.

III The activity is the number of decays per second.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

40.

A radioactive source has an initial activity of 200 kBq.


After 12 days the activity of the source is 25 kBq.


The half-life of the source is

a)

3 days

b)

4 days

c)

8 days

d)

36 days

e)

48 days

41.

For a particular radioactive source, 1800 atoms decay in a time of 3 minutes.


The activity of the source is

a)

10 Bq

b)

600 Bq

c)

1800 Bq

d)

5400 Bq

e)

324 000 Bq

42.

A radioactive tracer is injected into a patient to enable doctors to check the function of a patient’s kidneys. Radiation from the tracer is monitored outside the patient’s body by a detector.


Which row in the table shows the most suitable type of radiation emitted and the half-life for the tracer?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

43.

The activity of a radioactive source is 56 MBq.


The activity of the source 40 hours later is 3·5 MBq.


The half-life of this source is

a)

8 hours

b)

10 hours

c)

16 hours

d)

20 hours

e)

28 hours

44.

A radioactive tracer is injected into a patient to study the flow of blood.


The tracer should have a

a)

short half-life and emit α particles

b)

long half-life and emit β particles

c)

long half-life and emit γ rays

d)

long half-life and emit α particles

e)

short half-life and emit γ rays

45.

The table shows the count rate of a radioactive source taken at regular time intervals. The count rate has been corrected for background radiation.


What is the half-life in minutes of the isotope?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

30

e)

40

46.

For a particular radioactive source, 1800 atoms decay in a time of 3 minutes.


The activity of this source is

a)

10 Bq

b)

600 Bq

c)

1800 Bq

d)

5400 Bq

e)

324 000 Bq

47.

A sample of tissue is irradiated using a radioactive source.


A student makes the following statements about the sample.


I The equivalent dose received by the sample is reduced by shielding the sample with a lead screen.

II The equivalent dose received by the sample is increased as the distance from the source to the sample is increased.

III The equivalent dose received by the sample is increased by increasing the time of exposure of the sample to the radiation.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I and III only

48.

A sample of tissue is irradiated using a radioactive source. A student makes the following statements.


The equivalent dose received by the tissue is


I reduced by shielding the tissue with a lead screen

II increased as the distance from the source to the tissue is increased

III increased by increasing the time of exposure of the tissue to the radiation.


Which of the statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I and III only

49.

A sample of tissue receives an absorbed dose of 16 µGy from alpha particles.


The radiation weighting factor for alpha particles is 20.


The equivalent dose received by the sample is

a)

0·80 µSv

b)

1·25 µSv

c)

4 µSv

d)

36 µSv

e)

320 µSv

50.

A sample of tissue is exposed to 15 µGy of alpha radiation and 20 µGy of gamma radiation.


The total equivalent dose received by the tissue is

a)

35 µSv

b)

320 µSv

c)

415 µSv

d)

700 µSv

e)

735 µSv

51.

A worker in a nuclear power station is exposed to 3∙00 mGy of gamma radiation and 0∙500 mGy of fast neutrons.


The total equivalent dose received by the worker is

a)

3·50 mSv

b)

8·00 mSv

c)

30·5 mSv

d)

35·0 mSv

e)

38·5 mSv

52.

A sample of tissue receives an equivalent dose rate of 0·40 mSv h−1 from a source of alpha radiation.


The equivalent dose received by the sample in 30 minutes is

a)

0·20 mSv

b)

0·80 mSv

c)

4·0 mSv

d)

12 mSv

e)

720 mSv

53.

The crew on an aircraft during a transatlantic flight are exposed to cosmic radiation at an equivalent dose rate of 5·0 μSv h−1.


The crew complete 6 transatlantic flights each month.


The average duration of a flight is 8 hours.


The equivalent dose received by the crew due to cosmic radiation during transatlantic flights in one year is

a)

30 μSv

b)

40 μSv

c)

60 μSv

d)

240 μSv

e)

2880 μSv

54.

A student makes the following statements about radiation.


I The half life of a radioactive source is half of the time it takes for its activity to reduce to zero.

II The activity of a radioactive source is the number of decays per minute.

III The risk of biological harm from radiation depends on the type of tissue exposed.


Which of the statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

55.

A sample of tissue has a mass of 0.05 kg.


The tissue is exposed to radiation and absorbs 0.1 J of energy in 2 minutes.


The absorbed dose is

a)

0.005 Gy

b)

0.1 Gy

c)

0.5 Gy

d)

2 Gy

e)

6 Gy

56.

One gray is equal to

a)

one becquerel per kilogram

b)

one sievert per second

c)

one joule per second

d)

one sievert per kilogram

e)

one joule per kilogram

57.

A student makes the following statements about the fission process in a nuclear power station.


I Electrons are used to bombard a uranium nucleus.

II Heat is produced.

III The neutrons released can cause other nuclei to undergo fission.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II only

e)

II and III only

58.

The letters X, Y and Z represent missing words from the following passage.


During a nuclear ....X.... reaction two nuclei of smaller mass number combine to produce a nucleus of larger mass number. During a nuclear ....Y.... reaction a nucleus of larger mass number splits into two nuclei of smaller mass number. Both of these reactions are important because these processes can release ....Z.... .


Which row in the table shows the missing words?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

59.

In a nuclear reactor a chain reaction releases energy from nuclei.


Which of the following statements describes the beginning of a chain reaction?

a)

An electron splits a nucleus releasing more electrons.

b)

An electron splits a nucleus releasing protons.

c)

A proton splits a nucleus releasing more protons.

d)

A neutron splits a nucleus releasing electrons.

e)

A neutron splits a nucleus releasing more neutrons.

60.

In the following passage some words have been replaced by the letters X, Y and Z.


During a nuclear ....X.... reaction two nuclei of smaller mass number combine to produce a nucleus of larger mass number. These reactions take place at very ....Y.... temperatures and are important because they can release ....Z.... .


Which row in the table shows the missing words?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

61.

Control rods in a nuclear reactor

a)

absorb neutrons

b)

contain uranium

c)

produce neutrons

d)

remove heat from the reactor

e)

slow down neutrons

62.

In a nuclear reactor a chain reaction releases energy from nuclei.


Which of the following statements describes the beginning of a chain reaction?

a)

An electron splits a nucleus releasing more electrons.

b)

An electron splits a nucleus releasing protons.

c)

A proton splits a nucleus releasing more protons.

d)

A neutron splits a nucleus releasing electrons.

e)

A neutron splits a nucleus releasing more neutrons.

63.

During fission, a neutron splits a uranium nucleus into two nuclei, X and Y, as shown.


For a chain reaction to occur which of the following must also be released?

a)

Protons

b)

Electrons

c)

Neutrons

d)

Alpha particles

e)

Gamma radiation

64.

A student makes the following statements about nuclear reactors.


I Fission takes place in the fuel rods.

II The material in the control rods slows down neutrons.

III The material in the moderator absorbs neutrons.


Which of the statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

65.

Which of the following statements about the function of parts of a nuclear reactor is/are correct?


I The coolant removes heat from the core of the reactor.

II Control rods contain the fuel used for the nuclear reaction.

III The moderator slows down neutrons.

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

66.

Which of the following statements is/are true about fission?


I A large nucleus is split into two smaller nuclei.

II Two smaller nuclei join together to form a larger nucleus.

III Fission can result in a chain reaction.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

e)

II and III only

67.

The voltage of an electrical supply is a measure of the

a)

resistance of the circuit

b)

speed of the charges in the circuit

c)

power developed in the circuit

d)

energy given to the charges in the circuit

e)

current in the circuit

68.

A student suspects that ammeter A1 may be inaccurate. Ammeter A2 is known to be accurate.


Which of the following circuits should be used to compare the reading on A1 with A2?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
69.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?


I The voltage of a battery is the number of joules of energy it gives to each coulomb of charge.

II A battery only has a voltage when it is connected in a complete circuit.

III Electrons are free to move within an insulator.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

70.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

71.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

72.

A circuit is set up as shown.


The reading on ammeter A1 is 5·0 A.


The reading on ammeter A2 is 2·0 A.


The charge passing through the lamp in 30 seconds is

a)

0·1 C

b)

10 C

c)

60 C

d)

90 C

e)

150 C

73.

A conductor carries a current of 4∙0 μA for 250 s.


The total charge passing a point in the conductor is

a)

1∙6 × 10−8 C

b)

1∙0 × 10−3 C

c)

6∙25 × 101 C

d)

1∙0 × 103 C

e)

6∙25 × 107 C

74.

1 volt is equivalent to

a)

1 ampere per watt

b)

1 coulomb per second

c)

1 joule per coulomb

d)

1 joule per second

e)

1 watt per second

75.

A student makes the following statements about a.c. and d.c. circuits.


I In an a.c. circuit the direction of the current changes regularly.

II In a d.c. circuit negative charges flow in one direction only.

III In an a.c. circuit the size of the current varies with time.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

76.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

77.

A hairdryer is connected to a 230 V supply.


The current in the hairdryer is 2·0 A.


The electrical charge that passes through the hairdryer in 5 minutes is

a)

10 C

b)

460 C

c)

600 C

d)

1150 C

e)

69 000 C

78.

A circuit is set up as shown.


A student makes the following statements about the readings on the voltmeters.

I V1 = V2

II V2 = V3

III Vs = V1 + V2

Which of these statements must always be true?

a)

II only

b)

I and II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

79.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

80.

A circuit is set up as shown.


The resistance between X and Y is

a)

1·3 Ω

b)

4·5 Ω

c)

6·0 Ω

d)

8·0 Ω

e)

12 Ω

81.

Two resistors are connected as shown.


The total resistance between P and Q is

a)

0·17 Ω

b)

3·0 Ω

c)

6·0 Ω

d)

16 Ω

e)

32 Ω

82.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

83.

In the circuit shown, the current in each resistor is different.


In which resistor is the current smallest?

a)

5 Ω

b)

10 Ω

c)

20 Ω

d)

50 Ω

e)

100 Ω

84.

Three resistors are connected as shown.


The resistance between X and Y is

a)

0·08 Ω

b)

0·5 Ω

c)

2 Ω

d)

13 Ω

e)

20 Ω

85.

Three resistors are connected as shown.


The resistance between X and Y is

a)

4 Ω

b)

6 Ω

c)

18 Ω

d)

24 Ω

e)

36 Ω

86.

The graph shows how the resistance R of a thermistor varies with temperature T.


The thermistor is connected in a circuit.


At a temperature of 50°C the current in the thermistor is 0∙004 A.


At this temperature the voltage across the thermistor is

a)

0·000 02 V

b)

0·002 V

c)

0·008 V

d)

8 V

e)

500 V

87.

Three resistors are connected as shown


The total resistance between X and Y is

a)

2 Ω

b)

4 Ω

c)

8 Ω

d)

13 Ω

e)

22 Ω

88.

The rating plate on an electrical appliance is shown.


The resistance of this appliance is

a)

0·017 Ω

b)

0·25 Ω

c)

4·0 Ω

d)

18·4 Ω

e)

57·5 Ω

89.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

90.

The filament of a lamp has a resistance of 4·0 Ω.


The lamp is connected to a 12 V supply.


The power developed by the lamp is

a)

3 W

b)

36 W

c)

48 W

d)

96 W

e)

576 W

91.

A circuit is set up as shown.


The current in the lamp is 1·5 A.


The reading on the voltmeter is 6·0 V.


The power developed in the lamp is

a)

3·0 W

b)

4·5 W

c)

6·0 W

d)

9·0 W

e)

13·5 W

92.

The resistance of a wire is 6 Ω.


The current in the wire is 2 A.


The power developed in the wire is

a)

3 W

b)

12 W

c)

18 W

d)

24 W

e)

72 W

93.

A charge of 15 C passes through a resistor in 12 s.


The potential difference across the resistor is 6 V.


The power developed by the resistor is

a)

4.8 W

b)

7.5 W

c)

9.4 W

d)

30 W

e)

1080 W

94.

A circuit is set up as shown.


The power supplied to the resistor is

a)

1.20 × 10–4 W

b)

1.44 × 10–3 W

c)

1.44 W

d)

694 W

e)

1.20 × 106 W

95.

The information shown is for an electric food mixer.


The resistance of the mixer is

a)

0.43 Ω

b)

2.3 Ω

c)

4.6 Ω

d)

529 Ω

e)

23 000 Ω

96.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

97.

The symbol for an electronic component is shown.


This is the symbol for

a)

an LDR

b)

a transistor

c)

an LED

d)

a photovoltaic cell

e)

a thermistor

98.

A circuit is set up as shown.


The purpose of the transistor is to

a)

supply energy to the circuit

b)

decrease the voltage across R1

c)

change electrical energy to kinetic energy

d)

supply energy to the motor

e)

switch on the motor

99.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

100.

A student sets up the circuits shown.


In which circuit will both LEDs be lit?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
101.

A circuit is set up as shown.


The room temperature is 20°C.


The lamp is off.


The lamp will light when

a)

the light level is decreased below a certain value

b)

the light level is increased above a certain value

c)

the resistance of R is increased above a certain value

d)

the battery voltage is reduced to 5 V

e)

the temperature is increased above a certain value

102.

Which of the following devices transforms light energy into electrical energy?

a)

LED

b)

Thermocouple

c)

Microphone

d)

Solar cell

e)

Transistor

103.

Which of the following is the correct symbol for an n-channel enhancement MOSFET?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
104.

A solid substance is placed in an insulated flask and heated continuously with an immersion heater.


The graph shows how the temperature of the substance in the flask changes in time.


After 5 minutes the substance is a

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

mixture of solid and liquid

e)

mixture of liquid and gas

105.

The minimum amount of energy required to change 0·5 kg of water at its boiling point into steam at the same temperature is

a)

2·09 × 103 J

b)

1·67 × 105 J

c)

3·34 × 105 J

d)

1·13 × 106 J

e)

2·26 × 106 J

106.

Five students each carry out an experiment to determine the specific heat capacity of copper.


The student with the setup that would allow the most accurate value for the specific heat capacity of copper to be determined is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
107.

A heater transfers energy to boiling water at the rate of 1130 joules every second.


The maximum mass of water converted to steam in 2 minutes is

a)

1·0 × 10-3 kg

b)

6·0 × 10-2 kg

c)

0·41 kg

d)

17 kg

e)

32 kg

108.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

109.

A block of wax is initially in the solid state.


The block of wax is then heated.


The graph shows how the temperature of the wax changes with time.


The melting point of the wax is

a)

0 °C

b)

20 °C

c)

40 °C

d)

70 °C

e)

80 °C

110.

A solid substance is placed in an insulated container and heated.


The graph shows how the temperature T of the substance varies with time t.


To calculate the specific latent heat of fusion of the substance a student would use the time from section

a)

PQ

b)

QR

c)

RS

d)

ST

e)

TU

111.

The specific latent heat of fusion of a substance is the energy required to

a)

melt 1 kg of the substance at its melting point

b)

evaporate 1 kg of the substance at its boiling point

c)

change the state of the substance without changing its temperature

d)

change the temperature of the substance without changing its state

e)

change the temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1 °C

112.

A block of ice of mass 1·5 kg is placed in a room.


The temperature of the block is 0 °C.


The temperature of the room is 20 °C.


The minimum energy required to melt the ice is

a)

0·63 × 105 J

b)

1·25 × 105 J

c)

1·88 × 105 J

d)

5·01 × 105 J

e)

6·26 × 105 J

113.

100 g of a solid is heated by a 50 W heater. The graph of temperature of the substance against time is shown.


The specific latent heat of fusion of the substance is

a)

1·3 × 103 J kg-1

b)

1·5 × 103 J kg-1

c)

3·0 × 103 J kg-1

d)

1·5 × 105 J kg-1

e)

1·9 × 105 J kg-1

114.

The pressure of a fixed mass of gas is 6·0 x 105 Pa.


The temperature of the gas is 27 ºC and the volume of the gas is 2·5 m3.


The temperature of the gas increases to 54 ºC and the volume of the gas increases to 5·0 m3.


What is the new pressure of the gas?

a)

2·8 x 105 Pa

b)

3·3 x 105 Pa

c)

6·0 x 105 Pa

d)

1·1 x 106 Pa

e)

1·3 x 106 Pa

115.

A student is investigating the relationship between the volume and the kelvin temperature of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure.


Which graph shows this relationship?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
116.

A liquid is heated from 17 ºC to 50 ºC.


The temperature rise in kelvin is

a)

33 K

b)

67 K

c)

306 K

d)

340 K

e)

579 K

117.

A syringe containing air is sealed at one end as shown.


The piston is pushed in slowly.


There is no change in temperature of the air inside the syringe.


Which of the following statements describes and explains the change in pressure of the air in the syringe?

a)

The pressure increases because the air particles have more kinetic energy.

b)

The pressure increases because the air particles hit the sides of the syringe more frequently.

c)

The pressure increases because the air particles hit the sides of the syringe less frequently.

d)

The pressure decreases because the air particles hit the sides of the syringe with less force.

e)

The pressure decreases because the air particles have less kinetic energy.

118.

The pressure of a fixed mass of gas is 150 kPa at a temperature of 27 ºC.


The temperature of the gas is now increased to 47 ºC.


The volume of the gas remains constant.


The pressure of the gas is now

a)

86 kPa

b)

141 kPa

c)

150 kPa

d)

160 kPa

e)

261 kPa

119.

A block has the dimensions shown.


The block is placed so that one of the surfaces is in contact with a smooth table top.


The weight of the block is 4·90 N.


The minimum pressure exerted by the block on the table top is

a)

25 Pa

b)

245 Pa

c)

490 Pa

d)

980 Pa

e)

4900 Pa

120.

A syringe is connected to a pressure meter as shown.


The syringe contains a fixed mass of air of volume 150 mm3.


The reading on the pressure meter is 120 kPa.


The volume of air inside the syringe is now changed to 100 mm3.


The temperature of the air in the syringe remains constant. The reading on the pressure meter is now

a)

80 kPa

b)

125 kPa

c)

180 kPa

d)

80 000 kPa

e)

180 000 kPa

121.

A sample of an ideal gas is enclosed in a sealed container.


Which graph shows how the pressure p of the gas varies with the temperature T of the gas?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
122.

The mass of a spacecraft is 1200 kg.


The spacecraft lands on the surface of a planet.


The gravitational field strength on the surface of the planet is 5·0 N kg-1.


The spacecraft rests on three pads. The total area of the three pads is 1·5 m2.


The pressure exerted by these pads on the surface of the planet is

a)

1·2 × 104 Pa

b)

9·0 × 103 Pa

c)

7·8 × 103 Pa

d)

4·0 × 103 Pa

e)

8·0 × 102 Pa

123.

A solid is heated from -15 °C to 60 °C.


The temperature change of the solid is

a)

45 K

b)

75 K

c)

258 K

d)

318 K

e)

348 K

124.

A bicycle pump is sealed at one end and the piston pushed until the pressure of the trapped air is 4∙00 × 105 Pa.


The area of the piston compressing the air is 5∙00 × 10−4 m2.


The force that the trapped air exerts on the piston is

a)

1∙25 × 10−9 N

b)

8∙00 × 10−1 N

c)

2∙00 × 102 N

d)

8∙00 × 108 N

e)

2∙00 × 1010 N

125.

The pressure of the air outside an aircraft is 0·40 × 105 Pa.


The air pressure inside the aircraft cabin is 1·0 × 105 Pa.


The area of an external cabin door is 2·0 m2.


The outward force on the door due to the pressure difference is

a)

0·30 × 105 N

b)

0·70 × 105 N

c)

1·2 × 105 N

d)

2·0 × 105 N

e)

2·8 × 105 N

126.

A solid at a temperature of −20 °C is heated until it becomes a liquid at 70 °C.


The temperature change in kelvin is

a)

50 K

b)

90 K

c)

343 K

d)

363 K

e)

596 K

127.

A sealed bicycle pump contains 4·0 × 10−5 m3 of air at a pressure of 1·2 × 105 Pa.


The piston of the pump is pushed in until the volume of air in the pump is reduced to 0·80 × 10−5 m3.


During this time the temperature of the air in the pump remains constant.


The pressure of the air in the pump is now

a)

2·4 × 104 Pa

b)

1·2 × 105 Pa

c)

1·5 × 105 Pa

d)

4·4 × 105 Pa

e)

6·0 × 105 Pa

128.

A car is parked in the sun for some time.


During this time the air pressure inside the tyres increases.


The reason for this increase in pressure is

a)

the volume occupied by the air particles in the tyres has increased

b)

the force produced by the air particles in the tyres acts over a smaller area

c)

the average spacing between the air particles in the tyres has increased

d)

the increased temperature has made the air particles in the tyres expand

e)

the air particles in the tyres are moving with greater kinetic energy

129.

The temperature of a sample of gas in a container is 20 °C. The volume of the gas is 0·30 m3.


The container is free to expand in order to maintain a constant pressure.


The temperature of the gas is increased to 50 °C.


The volume now occupied by the gas is

a)

0·12 m3

b)

0·27 m3

c)

0·30 m3

d)

0·33 m3

e)

0·75 m3

130.

A cross country runner travels 2.1 km North then 1.5 km East. The total time taken is 20 minutes.


The average speed of the runner is

a)

0.18 m s-1

b)

2.2 m s-1

c)

3.0 m s-1

d)

130 m s-1

e)

180 m s-1

131.

A seagull is flying horizontally at a speed of 8 m s-1. The seagull drops a piece of food which hits the ground 2·5 s later.


Which row in the table shows the horizontal and vertical speeds of the piece of food just as it hits the ground? The effects of air resistance can be ignored.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

132.

The graph shows how the velocity of a ball changes with time.


The acceleration of the ball is

a)

-8 m s-2

b)

-1 m s-2

c)

1 m s-2

d)

8 m s-2

e)

24 m s-2

133.

Two identical balls X and Y are projected horizontally from the edge of a cliff.

The path taken by each ball is shown.


A student makes the following statements about the motion of the two balls.


I They take the same time to reach sea level.

II They have the same vertical acceleration.

III They have the same horizontal velocity.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

II and III only

134.

A student investigates the speed of a trolley as it moves down a slope.

The apparatus is set up as shown.


The following measurements are recorded.


distance from P to Q = 1·0 m

length of card on trolley = 0·04 m

time taken for trolley to travel from P to Q = 2·5 s

time taken for card to pass through light gate = 0·05 s


The speed at Q is

a)

0.002 m s-1

b)

0.016 m s-1

c)

0.40 m s-1

d)

0.80 m s-1

e)

20 m s-1

135.

A package is released from a helicopter flying horizontally at a constant speed of 40 m s-1.


The package takes 3·0 s to reach the ground.

The effects of air resistance can be ignored.


Which row in the table shows the horizontal speed and vertical speed of the package just before it hits the ground?

a)

Horizontal speed: 0 m s-1. Vertical speed: 30 m s-1.

b)

Horizontal speed: 30 m s-1. Vertical speed: 30 m s-1.

c)

Horizontal speed: 30 m s-1. Vertical speed: 40 m s-1.

d)

Horizontal speed: 40 m s-1. Vertical speed: 30 m s-1.

e)

Horizontal speed: 40 m s-1. Vertical speed: 40 m s-1.

136.

A ball is thrown horizontally from a cliff as shown.

The effect of air resistance is negligible.


A student makes the following statements about the ball.


I The vertical speed of the ball increases as it falls.

II The vertical acceleration of the ball increases as it falls.

III The vertical force on the ball increases as it falls.


Which of the statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II and III

137.

The table shows the velocities of three objects X, Y and Z over a period of 3 seconds. Each object is moving in a straight line.


Which of the following statements is/are correct?


I X moves with constant velocity.

II Y moves with constant acceleration.

III Z moves with constant acceleration.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

II and III only

138.

A ball moves along a horizontal frictionless surface and down a slope as shown.


Which of the following graphs shows how the speed of the ball varies with time as it travels from P to Q?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
139.

The graph shows how the velocity v of an object varies with time t.


The graph could represent the motion of

a)

a ball falling freely downwards

b)

a rocket accelerating upwards

c)

a ball thrown into the air then falling back to Earth

d)

a ball falling to Earth from rest then rebounding upwards again

e)

a car slowing to a halt then accelerating in the same direction.

140.

Which block has the largest resultant force acting on it?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
141.

A robot has a weight of 900 N on Earth.

The gravitational field strength on Mars is 4 N kg-1.

Which row in the table shows the mass and weight of the robot on Mars?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

142.

A block is pulled across a horizontal surface as shown.

The mass of the block is 5 kg.

The block is travelling at a constant speed.

The force of friction acting on the block is

a)

0 N

b)

4 N

c)

15 N

d)

20 N

e)

25N

143.

The diagram shows the horizontal forces acting on a box.

The box accelerates at 1·6 m s-2.

The mass of the box is

a)

0.10 kg

b)

10.0 kg

c)

15.0 kg

d)

25.6 kg

e)

38.4 kg

144.

A person sits on a chair which rests on the Earth.

The person exerts a downward force on the chair.

Which of the following is the reaction to this force?

a)

The force of the chair on the person

b)

The force of the person on the chair

c)

The force of the Earth on the person

d)

The force of the chair on the Earth

e)

The force of the person on the Earth

145.

A package falls vertically from a helicopter. After some time the package reaches its terminal velocity.


A group of students make the following statements about the package when it reaches its terminal velocity.


I The weight of the package is less than the air resistance acting on the package.

II The forces acting on the package are balanced.

III The package is accelerating towards the ground at 9·8 m s−2.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

e)

II and III only

146.

An unbalanced force of one newton will make a

a)

0.1 kg mass accelerate at 1 m s-1

b)

1 kg mass accelerate at 1 m s-2

c)

1 kg mass accelerate at 10 m s-1

d)

0.1 kg mass move at a constant speed of 1 m s-1

e)

1 kg mass move at a constant speed of 10 m s-1.

147.

A block of mass 6 kg is pulled across a horizontal bench by a force of 40 N as shown.

The block accelerates at 4 m s-2.

The force of friction between the block and the bench is

a)

0 N

b)

16 N

c)

24 N

d)

40 N

e)

64 N

148.

An aircraft engine exerts a force on the air.


Which of the following completes the ‘Newton pair’ of forces?

a)

The force of the air on the aircraft engine

b)

The force of friction between the aircraft engine and the air

c)

The force of friction between the aircraft and the aircraft engine

d)

The force of the Earth on the aircraft engine

e)

The force of the aircraft engine on the Earth

149.

A ball is thrown vertically upwards. The ball reaches its maximum height. Which of the following describes the forces acting on the ball at this instant?

a)

There is no vertical force acting on the ball.

b)

There is only a horizontal force acting on the ball.

c)

There is an upward force acting on the ball.

d)

The forces acting on the ball are balanced.

e)

There is only a downward force acting on the ball.

150.

A diagram of a slide is shown.


A child of weight 250 N slides from the top to the bottom.


The change in gravitational potential energy of the child is

a)

50 J

b)

500 J

c)

1250 J

d)

5000 J

e)

12 500 J

151.

An electrical motor raises a crate of mass 500 kg through a height of 12 m in 4 s.


The power rating of the motor is

a)

1·25 kW

b)

1·5 kW

c)

15 kW

d)

60 kW

e)

240 kW

152.

A trolley of mass 0∙50 kg has a kinetic energy of 0∙36 J.


The speed of the trolley is

a)

0∙60 m s−1

b)

0∙85 m s−1

c)

1∙2 m s−1

d)

1∙44 m s−1

e)

1∙7 m s−1

153.

A car of mass 1200 kg is travelling along a straight level road at a constant speed of 20 m s−1.

The driving force on the car is 2500 N. The frictional force on the car is 2500 N.

The work done moving the car between point X and point Y is

a)

0 J

b)

11 800 J

c)

125 000 J

d)

240 000 J

e)

250 000 J

154.

An arrow is fired from a bow as shown.

An archer pulls the string back a distance of 0.50 m.

The string exerts an average force of 300 N on the arrow as it is fired.

The mass of the arrow is 0.15 kg.

The maximum kinetic energy gained by the arrow is

a)

23 J

b)

150 J

c)

600 J

d)

2000 J

e)

6750 J

155.

A crate of mass 200 kg is pushed a distance of 20 m across a level floor.


The crate is pushed with a force of 150 N.

The force of friction acting on the crate is 50 N.


The work done in pushing the crate across the floor is

a)

1000 J

b)

2000 J

c)

3000 J

d)

4000 J

e)

20 000 J

156.

Which of the following could be the unit of kinetic energy?

a)

N m2

b)

N m s-1

c)

kg m s-1

d)

N kg-1

e)

kg m2 s-2

157.

A cyclist is travelling at 10 m s-1 along a level road.

The cyclist applies the brakes and comes to rest in a time of 5 s.

The combined mass of the cycle and cyclist is 80 kg.

The maximum energy converted to heat by the brakes is

a)

160 J

b)

400 J

c)

800 J

d)

4000 J

e)

8000 J

158.

A cyclist is travelling along a straight road. The graph shows how the velocity of the cyclist varies with time.


The kinetic energy of the cyclist is greatest at

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

S

e)

T

159.

A ball is released from rest and allowed to roll down a curved track as shown.


The mass of the ball is 0∙50 kg.

The maximum height reached on the opposite side of the track is 0∙20 m lower than the height of the starting point.


The amount of energy lost is

a)

0∙080 J

b)

0∙10 J

c)

0∙98 J

d)

2∙9 J

e)

3∙9 J

160.
What color has the longest wavelength?
a)
Red
b)
Orange
c)
Green
d)
Blue
161.
What is the correct order from largest to smallest?
a)
galaxy, universe, planet, sun
b)
planet, sun, galaxy, universe
c)
universe, galaxy, sun, planet
d)
sun, galaxy, universe, planet
162.
What gases are in the unknown mixture?
a)
Gas B & Gas D
b)
Gas C & Gas B
c)
Gas A & Gas D
d)
Gas D & Gas C
163.
Which elements are in the unknown sample?
a)
A and B
b)
B and C
c)
A and D
d)
B and D
164.
A satellite that travels in an orbit that exactly matches the Earth's rotation is traveling in a(n)
a)
low Earth orbit (LEO).
b)
low stationary orbit (LSO).
c)
geostationary orbit (GEO).
d)
high Earth orbit (HEO).
165.
The force keeping a planet in orbit around the sun is...
a)
Friction
b)
Tension
c)
Gravity
d)
weight
166.

What unit of measurement is used to calculate distance in our universe?

a)

Astronomical Units

b)

Kilometres

c)

Light years

d)

Parsecs

167.

Which of the following never changes no matter where in the universe?

a)

Mass

b)

Weight

168.

What is a 'gravity slingshot/catapult'?

a)

A catapult that is strong enough to fire things into space

b)

A slingshot lost in space and time

c)

A speed boost from bouncing off of a passing asteroid

d)

Using a large object's gravity to provide a boost in kinetic energy

169.

A galaxy is a collection of

a)

stars

b)

satellites

c)

moons

d)

planets

e)

asteroids

170.

A spacecraft completes the last stage of its journey back to Earth by parachute, falling with constant speed into the sea.


The spacecraft falls with constant speed because

a)

the gravitational field strength of the Earth is constant near the Earth’s surface

b)

it has come from space where the gravitational field strength is almost zero

c)

the air resistance is greater than the weight of the spacecraft

d)

the weight of the spacecraft is greater than the air resistance

e)

the air resistance is equal to the weight of the spacecraft

171.

The distance from the Sun to Proxima Centauri is 4·3 light years.

This distance is equivalent to

a)

1·4 × 108 m

b)

1·6 × 1014 m

c)

6·8 × 1014 m

d)

9·5 × 1015 m

e)

4·1 × 1016 m

172.

The Mars Curiosity Rover has a mass of 900 kg.


Which row of the table gives the mass and weight of the Rover on Mars?


g(Mars) = 3·7 N kg-1

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

173.

Light from a star is split into a line spectrum of different colours. The line spectrum from the star is shown, along with the line spectra of the elements calcium, helium, hydrogen and sodium.


The elements present in this star are

a)

sodium and calcium

b)

calcium and helium

c)

hydrogen and sodium

d)

helium and hydrogen

e)

calcium, sodium and hydrogen

174.

A student makes the following statements about the Universe.


I The Big Bang Theory is a theory about the origin of the Universe.

II The Universe is approximately 14 million years old.

III The Universe is expanding.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II and III

175.

A satellite is in a circular orbit around a planet.


A group of students make the following statements about the satellite.


I The greater the altitude of a satellite the shorter its orbital period.

II The satellite has a constant vertical acceleration.

III As the satellite orbits the planet, its vertical velocity increases.


Which of these statements is/are correct?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II only

e)

II and III only

176.

The communications satellite Iridium-124 has a period of 97 minutes and an orbital height of 630 km.


The geostationary satellite Astra-5B has a period of 1440 minutes and an orbital height of 36 000 km.


A satellite with an orbital height of 23 000 km has a period of

a)

62 minutes

b)

97 minutes

c)

835 minutes

d)

1440 minutes

e)

2250 minutes

177.

The distance from the Sun to the star Sirius is 8·6 light years.


This distance is equivalent to

a)

2·2 × 1014 m

b)

1·4 × 1015 m

c)

3·4 × 1015 m

d)

8·1 × 1016 m

e)

9·5 × 1016 m

178.

Far out in space, the rocket engine of a space probe is switched on for a short time causing it to accelerate.


When the engine is then switched off, the probe will

a)

slow down until it stops

b)

follow a curved path

c)

continue to accelerate

d)

move at a constant speed

e)

change direction

179.

Light from stars can be split into line spectra of different colours.

The line spectra from three stars, X, Y and Z, are shown, along with the line spectra of the elements helium and hydrogen.


Hydrogen and helium are both present in

a)

star X only

b)

star Y only

c)

stars X and Y only

d)

stars X and Z only

e)

stars X, Y and Z

180.

A spacecraft lands on a distant planet.


The gravitational field strength on this planet is 14 N kg−1.


Which row in the table shows how the mass and weight of the spacecraft on this planet compares with the mass and weight of the spacecraft on Earth?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

181.

A geostationary satellite orbits the Earth.


Which row in the table shows the altitude above the surface of the Earth and orbital period of the geostationary satellite?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

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