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ISTQB Question Bank 861 to 900

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 10hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?
a)
To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed
b)
To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
c)
To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
d)
To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time
2.
Which one of the following BEST describes a test control action?
a)
Setting a completion date
b)
Reporting on poor progress
c)
Adding extra test scripts to a test suite
d)
Retesting a defect fix
3.
To  test  an  input  field that  accepts a  two – digit  day  based on a  particular  month  which data  set  demonstrates  boundary  value  analysis?
a)
0, 1, 16, 31 and 100
b)
1, 27, 28, 30 and 31
c)
2, 26, 27, 29 and 30
d)
-1, 0, 15, 32 and 99
4.

Which two of the following are attributes of structural testing?

<br>

a. It is based on testing features described in a functional specification.

b. It can include statement and decision testing.

c. It can be carried out at all levels of testing.

d. It can include debugging.

a)

a and b

b)

a and d

c)

b and d

d)

b and c

5.
Which one of the following BEST describes the purpose of a priority rating in an incident report?
a)
To show which parts of the system are affected by the incident
b)
To show how quickly the problem should be fixed
c)
To show how much it would cost to fix the defect
d)
To show progress of testing
6.
Which  acceptance  test is  USUALLY  performed  by  system  administrators?
a)
Operational
b)
Customer
c)
Contractual
d)
Regulatory
7.
Which of the following is MOST clearly a characteristic of structure based (white-box) techniques?
a)
Test cases are independent of each other
b)
Test cases can be easily automated
c)
Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code
d)
Test cases are derived systematically from specifications
8.
Which of the following is a MAJOR activity of test planning?
a)
Initiation of corrective actions
b)
Measuring and analysing results
c)
Determining the exit criteria
d)
Monitoring and documenting progress
9.
Retirement of software or a system would trigger which type of testing?
a)
Load testing
b)
Portability testing
c)
Maintenance testing
d)
Maintainability testing
10.
Which of the following statements about black box and white box techniques is correct?
a)
Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Condition Coverage are all black box techniques
b)
Decision Table Testing, State Transition and Use Case Testing are all black box techniques
c)
Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Statement Testing are all white box techniques
d)
Boundary Value Analysis, State Transition and Statement Testing are all white box techniques
11.

Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model?

<br>

a. Every development activity has a corresponding test activity.

b. Testers review development documents early.

c. There are separate levels for component and system integration test.

d. Each test level has objectives specific to that level.

e. Each test level is based on the same test basis.

a)

a, d and e

b)

b, c and e

c)

a, c and d

d)

a, b and d

12.
A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules.
a)

1

b)

0.5

c)

0.75

d)

0.9

13.

Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of testing?

<br>

a. Testing can show the presence of defects.

b. Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects.

c. Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.

d. Testing can prove that software is defect free.

a)

a, b and c

b)

a, b and d

c)

a, c and d

d)

b, c and d

14.
Which one of the following characteristics of test execution tools describes best a specific characteristic of a keyword-driven test execution tool?
a)
A table containing test input data, action words, and expected results controls the execution of the system under test.
b)
Actions of testers will be recorded in a script that can be rerun several times.
c)
Actions of testers will be recorded in a script that is then being generalized to run with several sets of test input data.
d)
The ability to log test results and compare them against the expected results.
15.

Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?

<br>

a. Variables that are never used.

b. Security vulnerabilities.

c. Poor performance.

d. Unreachable code.

e. Business processes not followed.

a)

b, c and d are true; a and e are false

b)

a is true; b, c, d and e are false

c)

c, d and e are true; a and b are false

d)

a, b and d are true; c and e are false

16.
The Following table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution schedule.
a)

R, Q, S, T, U, P

b)

S, R, P, U, Q, T

c)

Q, R, S, T, P, U

d)

S, R, U, P, Q, T

17.

Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organization?

<br>

a. Defining best practice guidelines for users.

b. Roll out the tool across the organization as quickly as possible to all users.

c. Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool.

d. Introduce a system to monitor tool usage and user feedback.

e. Ensure that the test process is not changed as result of the tool’s introduction.

a)

a, b and c.

b)

a, c and d.

c)

c, d and e.

d)

b, d and e.

18.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be an objective of a pilot project to introduce a test tool?
a)
To assess if the test tool brings benefits at reasonable cost
b)
To ensure that developers will use the test tool
c)
To ensure that the time spent testing and the cost of testing is reduced
d)
To assess if everyone in the organisation can be trained prior to roll-out
19.

Which of the following statements describe why error guessing is a useful test design technique?

<br>

a. It can help derive test cases based on analysis of specification documents.

b. It can identify tests not easily captured by formal techniques.

c. It can make good use of tester’s experience and available defect data.

d. It is a cheaper alternative to more formal test design techniques.

a)

a and b

b)

b and c

c)

c and d

d)

a and c

20.
Given the following state transition diagram:
a)

A, B, E, B, F

b)

A, B, C, D

c)

A, B, E, B, C, D

d)

A, B, F

21.

A programme level Master Test Plan states that a number of best practices must be adopted for its project life cycle models, irrespective of whether a sequential or iterative-incremental approach is adopted for each project. Which of the following life cycle related best practices would you expect to see in the Master Test Plan?

<br>

a. There should be a testing activity that corresponds to each development activity.

b. Each project should have four test levels if using a V-model.

c. Test personnel should ensure that they are invited to review requirements and design documents as soon as draft versions are available.

d. System testing must not be performed by the development teams.

a)

a and b

b)

a and c

c)

b and d

d)

c and d

22.
Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?
a)
Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.
b)
Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.
c)
It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.
d)
The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.
23.
Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?
a)
Determine whether enough component testing was executed.
b)
Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.
c)
Prove that all faults are identified.
d)
Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.
24.
Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis and Design?
a)
Setting or defining test objectives.
b)
Reviewing the test basis.
c)
Creating test suites from test procedures.
d)
Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement.
25.
Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is MOST likely a failure?
a)
The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.
b)
One source code file included in the build was the wrong version.
c)
The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.
d)
The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.
26.
Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?
a)
Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects.
b)
Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults.
c)
Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.
d)
Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.
27.

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

<br>

A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.

B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer's work.

C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment.

D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found.

a)

B and C are true; A and D are false.

b)

A and D are true; B and C are false.

c)

A and C are true, B and D are false.

d)

C and D are true, A and B are false.

28.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging?
a)
Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.
b)
Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.
c)
Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.
d)
Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.
29.
Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?
a)

The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements.

b)

The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system to coding standards.

c)

Testing without reference to the internal structure of a system.

d)

Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability.

30.
What is important to do when working with software development models? [K1]
a)
To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.
b)
To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.
c)
To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.
d)
To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.
31.
Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?
a)
Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.
b)
All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature.
c)
Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed.
d)
For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.
32.
For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?
a)
Correction of defects during the development phase.
b)
Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.
c)
Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.
d)
Integrating functions during the development of a new system.
33.

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

<br>

A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same.

B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved.

C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation.

D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects.

E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

a)

A, C and D and E are true; B is false.

b)

A, C and E are true; B and D are false.

c)

C and D are true; A, B and E are false.

d)

B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

34.
Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?
a)
Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system.
b)
Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.
c)
Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.
d)
Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.
35.
Which of the following are the main phases of a formal review?
a)
Initiation, status, preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.
b)
Planning, preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up.
c)
Planning, kick off, individual preparation, review meeting, rework, follow up.
d)
Preparation, review meeting, rework, closure, follow up, root cause analysis.
36.
Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? (Select 2 options)
a)
Informal review.
b)
Management review.
c)
Inspection.
d)
Walkthrough
e)
Technical Review.
37.
One of the test goals for the project is to have 100% decision coverage. The following three tests have been executed for the control flow graph shown below.
a)

Decision D has not been tested completely.

b)

100% decision coverage has been achieved.

c)

Decision E has not been tested completely.

d)

Decision F has not been tested completely.

38.

A defect was found during testing. When the network got disconnected while receiving data from a server, the system crashed. The defect was fixed by correcting the code that checked the network availability during data transfer.

<br>

The existing test cases covered 100% of all statements of the corresponding module. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some new tests were designed and added to the test suite. What types of testing are mentioned above?

<br>

A. Functional testing.

B. Structural testing.

C. Re-testing.

D. Performance testing.

a)

A, B and D.

b)

A and C.

c)

A, B and C.

d)

A, C and D.

39.
Which of the following statements about the given state table is TRUE?
a)
The state table can be used to derive both valid and invalid transitions.
b)
The state table represents all possible single transitions.
c)
The state table represents only some of all possible single transitions.
d)
The state table represents sequential pairs of transitions.
40.
Which TWO of the following solutions below lists techniques that can all be categorized as Black Box design techniques? (Select 2 options)
a)
Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, state transition, and boundary value.
b)
Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, use case.
c)
Equivalence Partitioning, decision tables, checklist based, statement coverage, use case.
d)
Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage, use case.
e)
Equivalence Partitioning, cause-effect graph, checklist based, decision coverage and boundary value.

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