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Worksheets

[ITF+] Units 13 - 16 Review

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

System memory stores programs and data on a memory chip, but only when:

a)

The power goes off.

b)

You click Save.

c)

When you log on.

d)

The computer is running.

2.

DRAM (Dynamic RAM) is an outdated form of RAM no longer in use.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

DRAM (Dynamic RAM) and Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) chips offer options on RAM speed and memory.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

When the power goes off on a computer, what happens to the data stored in RAM’s volatile memory?

a)

It is redirected to the CPU.

b)

It is lost.

c)

It is redirected to the CMOS, which is battery-powered.

d)

None of these

5.

DDR SDRAM differs from SDRAM in what way?

a)

DDR SDRAM is smaller than SDRAM and fits better in a laptop.

b)

SDRAM is twice as fast as DDR SDRAM.

c)

DDR SDRAM is twice as fast as SDRAM.

d)

SDRAM is smaller than DDR SDRAM and fits better in a laptop.

6.

A mass storage device, or fixed drive:  

a)

Stores the OS and application files as well as user data.

b)

Are housed in server farms for enterprise-level computing.

c)

Is a form of volatile storage.

d)

Is rarely used.

7.

HDDs are designed never to wear out.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Data on an HDD is encoded magnetically on specially coated glass or plastic platters that:

a)

Copy and paste the data from the disk to the HDD.

b)

Spin at very high speeds while drive heads access the data.

c)

Significantly increases the speed and performance of the computer or laptop.

d)

Validates software licenses.

9.

The faster the revolutions per minute (RPM) of the spinning disc, the faster the drive performs.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Solid State Drives (SSD) use non-volatile memory technology called flash memory.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Optical drives use lasers to:  

a)

Read data from spinning discs.

b)

Store the OS and application files on computers.

c)

Create storage formats only for complex, industrial applications.

d)

Is rarely used.

12.

CDs only need 700 MB to run most software applications.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

CD-RW is an old technology no longer in use.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Blu-ray Discs (BD) are replacing DVD as the consumer media of choice for multimedia and video games, because:

a)

DVDs are too bulky and hard to use.

b)

Fewer devices can play a DVD.

c)

Blu-ray meets the demands of High Definition video recording and playback, which require more bandwidth and storage space.

d)

Patent protection for DVD technology has expired.

15.

Most PCs have an optical drive installed within the case.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

A thumb drive:

a)

Plugs into any spare USB port.

b)

Stores the computer's OS.

c)

Reads data from spinning discs.

d)

Is very expensive because it has so much memory capacity.

17.

Secure Digital (SD) memory card is used mostly in still and video cameras.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Flash memory commonly provides the main storage for devices such as:

a)

HD TVs.

b)

Budget brand PCs.

c)

Tablets, smartphones, mp3 players, handheld games consoles.

d)

Optical drive units.

19.

iTunes for Apple's range of iPod players may require special software to transfer music between the flash memory device and a PC.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Thumb drive memory capacities run between 512GB and 2TB and even higher.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

For the computer operating system to read and write files to a drive, it must be:

a)

Fitted with a secondary HDD or SSD.

b)

Properly licensed with appropriate permissions.

c)

Partitioned and formatted with a file system.

d)

Defragged.

22.

Partitioning a hard disk divides it into logically separate storage areas, but this degrades the performance of the disk.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Each partition can be formatted with a different file system. Windows offers two choices:

a)

Universal Disk Format (UDF) and ISO 9660 (CDFS)

b)

FAT and NTFS.

c)

ext3 and ext4.

d)

exFAT and HFS+

24.

What type of file system must be used for the partition where Windows 10 is installed?

a)

The FAT-32 files system

b)

The ext file system

c)

The NTFS file system

d)

The HFS+ file system

25.

Most Linux distributions use some version of the ext file system to format partitions on mass storage devices.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What default installation folders contain system and application files that should not normally be deleted or modified manually?

a)

The Downloads folder

b)

The Temp folder

c)

The Windows and Program Files folders

d)

The Desktop folder

27.

How is a Windows library different from a folder?

a)

A library is the user's private folder containing subfolders for different types of files like documents, music, and pictures.

b)

A library acts as a virtual folder by displaying the contents of multiple folders, which could be located on different drives.

c)

A folder acts as a virtual library by displaying the contents of multiple libraries, which could be located on different drives.

d)

A library and a folder are virtually the same thing.

28.

In Windows 10, libraries are used to provide easy access to different kinds of documents that may be stored in different places, acting as something of a “virtual” folder.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Folders cannot be made available over a network.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

File Explorer provides a visual means of navigating between Windows and Linux file systems.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

If you have made changes to a file and want to keep both the original file and the modified version, what command should you use?

a)

Save As

b)

Share

c)

Save

d)

Export

32.

When files are deleted from the main hard drive, they get moved to the recycle bin and can be recovered by the standard user (assuming that it does not exceed 10% of the drive)

a)

True

b)

False

33.

To rename a file or folder:

a)

Go to View tab in File Explorer and change the file extension

b)

Move it to the Recycle Bin and create a new file or folder under a different name

c)

Select it, press F2, then type the new name. Or right-click and select Rename

d)

It is not possible to rename a file or folder once created

34.

By convention, file extensions in Windows are how many characters?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

35.

You should change a file’s extension if it is shown.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

You can set some attributes manually by:

a)

Preventing any changes being saved back to the file.

b)

Opening the Properties Dialog for a file or folder.

c)

First implementing extended attributes.

d)

Export the file to a different drive.

37.

What happens if a user attempts to view or save a file with insufficient permissions to do so?

a)

Windows displays an Access Denied error message.

b)

Windows displays a prompt allowing you to reset and customize permissions.

c)

A FAT filing system will be reconfigured to NTFS filing system.

d)

 The file from will be flagged for deletion.

38.

Windows Search makes automatic use of file and folder properties (or metadata) and file contents.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

If a basic search shows too many files and folders that meet your search criteria, you want:

a)

Go to View tab in File Explorer and change the file extension.

b)

You must open every folder and search manually.

c)

You can add a filter to reduce the number of results.

d)

The file does not exist or has been permanently deleted.

40.

View options let you change the size of icons for easier viewing but does not let you change the order of files in a column.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What type of software is an ODF file associated with?

a)

Video conferencing software

b)

Email client software

c)

Word processing software

d)

Database software

42.

What is a zip file?

a)

A Windows installer file used to install and uninstall software applications.

b)

A container file format designed to deliver Flash Video.

c)

A file archive containing other files in a compressed format.

d)

An image file format most widely used for photographic pictures.

43.

A container file format designed to deliver Flash Video is called an FLV file.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

gif and bmp formats are both:

a)

Lossless formats not widely used.

b)

For audio files.

c)

Among the most popular and widely used presentation formats.

d)

Interchangeable video file formats.

45.

Which of the following is considered an executable file?

a)

.mpg

b)

.msi

c)

.mp3

d)

.jpg

46.

An IP address encodes which two pieces of information?

a)

An address resolution protocol and a media access control address

b)

A network number (network ID) and a host number (host ID)

c)

An internet control message protocol and a transmission control protocol

d)

A uniform resource locator and a datagram

47.

When a sender needs to find out which host MAC address "owns" a given IP address, what type of message does it broadcast onto the local network?

a)

Checksum

b)

Datagram

c)

Address resolution protocol

d)

Dotted decimal notation

48.

What is the standard used to encode text messages and binary file attachments for email messages?

a)

Domain name system

b)

Uniform resource locator

c)

Multipurpose internet mail extensions

d)

Message application programming interface

49.

What is the format of the DNS record that lists the IP address for the recipient's email address?

a)

Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP)

b)

Mail exchanger (MX)

c)

Internet message access protocol (IMAP)

d)

Message application programming interface (MAPI)

50.

Which email protocol is used to download messages from a mail server?

a)

Either internet message access protocol (IMAP) or simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP)

b)

Either post office protocol v3 (POP3) or mail exchanger (MX)

c)

Either mail exchanger (MX) or internet message access protocol (IMAP)

d)

Either post office protocol v3 (POP) or internet message access protocol (IMAP)

51.

What protocol is usually used to provide logical addressing on networks?

a)

Address resolution protocol (ARP)

b)

Internet protocol (IP)

c)

Internet control message protocol (ICMP)

d)

Transmission control protocol (TCP)

52.

What protocol is responsible for sending messages and reports on errors regarding the delivery of packets?

a)

Address resolution protocol (ARP)

b)

Internet protocol (IP)

c)

Internet control message protocol (ICMP)

d)

Transmission control protocol (TCP)

53.

Which layer of the TCP/IP protocol has protocols that provide the communications formats for exchanging data between hosts, such as sending an email message or requesting a web page?

a)

Link/network interface layer

b)

Internet layer

c)

Transport layer

d)

Application layer

54.

Which term refers to a method of assigning people-friendly names to devices on a network?

a)

Media access control (MAC) address

b)

IP address

c)

Domain name system (DNS)

d)

Uniform resource locator (URL)

55.

An enterprise network is like a SOHO network, but:

a)

At bigger scale, multiple switches and access points and more connected devices.

b)

Fiber optic speeds.

c)

Never virtually.

d)

Only supported by IEEE 802.11standars in the 2.4 GHz band.

56.

The router used in a Virtual LAN (VLAN) connects the network to the Internet and:

a)

Monitors user activities

b)

Divides the network into subnets.

c)

Allows nodes to communicate with each other.

d)

Creates backbone segments.

57.

What is a local area network (LAN)?

a)

A network that connects sites in different geographic locations

b)

A network in a single location

c)

A company that specializes in providing Internet access

d)

A company that operates the national telephone networks

58.

What is a wide area network (WAN)?

a)

A network that connects sites in different geographic locations

b)

A network in a single location

c)

A company that specializes in providing Internet access

d)

A company that operates the national telephone networks

59.

What is a packet?

a)

The destination address of a unit of data being transmitted over the network

b)

The source address of a unit of data being transmitted over the network

c)

A wrapper for each data unit sent over the network, consisting of a header (giving the protocol type, source address, destination address, error correction information, etc.) and a payload (the data)

d)

A payload of data being transmitted over the network

60.

What is the key feature of a packet-switching network?

a)

A packet sent down the network can be swapped out for another packet midstream.

b)

Nodes within the network can perform a forwarding function, allowing a packet to use any available path through the network.

c)

Packets can be switched from a TCP/IP protocol to another available protocol to increase the transmission speed.

d)

If a packet is misdirected, the network can be switched off and then on again to redirect the transmission.

61.

What is the latest Wi-Fi standard and which frequency band(s) does it use?

a)

IEEE 802.11ac works in the 5 GHz band.

b)

IEEE 802.11n works in the 5 GHz band.

c)

IEEE 802.11b works in the 5 GHz band.

d)

IEEE 802.11g works in the 2.4 GHz band.

62.

Which of the following provides the weakest router encryption configuration?

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2

63.

What is the name for the WLAN?

a)

PSK

b)

AP

c)

DHCP

d)

SSID

64.

What device is used to connect computers together in an Ethernet network by only using wires?

a)

An access point

b)

A switch

c)

Internet router

d)

Internet modem

65.

Which Internet service type works over an ordinary telephone line?

a)

Fiber optic

b)

Satellite

c)

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

d)

Cellular

66.

When you connect a Windows computer to a wired network and see a red cross on the icon, it could mean all of the following EXCEPT what?

a)

Cable is not connected properly

b)

Link has not been configured properly

c)

Network switch/router is faulty

d)

Cable is faulty

67.

Which of the following is NOT a means of providing Internet service itself?

a)

Cellular data

b)

Radio Frequency (RF)

c)

Satellite

d)

All of the these

68.

Which protocol allows people to use names/labels, rather than numeric addresses, to address network resources?

a)

URL

b)

IP address

c)

MAC address

d)

Domain name system

69.

Which of the following parts of a web address specifies the directory and file name location of the resource on the designated host?

a)

File path

b)

Protocol type

c)

Host location

d)

IP address

70.

What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS protocols?

a)

HTTP serves web pages on the extranet, whereas HTTPS serves web pages on the intranet.

b)

HTTP does not require DNS to resolve a web address to an IP address, whereas HTTPS does.

c)

HTTPS serves SSL (secure sockets layer) secured HTML web pages, whereas HTTP serves unsecured web pages.

d)

HTTP can serve HTML web pages, whereas HTTPS can serve HTML web pages, as well as XML pages displayed as HTML.

71.

Which of the following is an example of a Top Level Domain (TLD)

a)

drive.google.com

b)

google.com

c)

.com

d)

.

72.

What was created to help address the issues of HTTP?

a)

TLD

b)

SSL/TLS

c)

HTML

d)

FQDN

73.

Actual delivery of information between two hosts takes place at the lower transport layer of the TCP/IP protocol.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

When information is delivered, an IP datagram is put into a frame that can only delivered over a local network segment.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

For two systems to use IP to communicate, the host must map the destination host’s IP address to its hardware address.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Email delivery usually requires several "hops" from the mail gateway to the sender's ISP and then to the recipient's ISP

a)

True

b)

False

77.

When using IMAP to download messages from the server, you cannot connect multiple clients to the same mailbox

a)

True

b)

False

78.

A single enterprise switch will support 20 ports or more.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Within each subnet, a switch is used to allow nodes to communicate with one another.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Communications between different VLANs must pass through a router.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The SOHO router should assign the computer's adapter an Internet Protocol (IP) address using a service called the DHCP

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Radio signals cannot pass through solid objects.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Because providing Fiber to the Home requires investment by the telecom providers, Fiber to the Curb is a compromise

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Because providing Fiber to the Home requires investment by the telecom providers, Fiber to the Curb is a compromise

a)

True

b)

False