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Worksheetsmnage
Total questions: 214
Worksheet time: 36mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Management is:
a)
An art
b)
Both science and art
c)
A science
d)
Neither art nor science
2.
Engineering is:
a)
A science
b)
An art
c)
Both science and art
d)
Neither art nor science
3.
Engineers can become good managers only through __________.
a)
Effective career planning
b)
Experience
c)
Taking master degree in management
d)
Trainings
4.
If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
a)
All of the above
b)
Develop new talents
c)
Acquire new values
d)
Broaden your point of view
5.
When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
a)
All of the above
b)
Learning to trust others
c)
Learning how to work through others
d)
Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
6.
What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and goals?
a)
Planning
b)
Leading
c)
Controlling
d)
Organizing
7.
What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?
a)
Organizing
b)
Planning
c)
Leading
d)
Controlling
8.
What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
a)
Staffing
b)
Organizing
c)
Motivating
d)
Controlling
9.
What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling resources?
a)
Directing
b)
Planning
c)
Organizing
d)
Leading
10.
Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function?
a)
Controlling
b)
Organizing
c)
Planning
d)
Staffing
11.
What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with great commitment and conviction?
a)
Leading
b)
Staffing
c)
Motivating
d)
Controlling
12.
What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
a)
Motivating
b)
Directing
c)
Staffing
d)
Controlling
13.
What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
a)
Project Management
b)
Engineering Management
c)
Management
d)
Planning
14.
Which is NOT an element of project management process?
a)
Research and development
b)
Data and information
c)
Decision making
d)
Implementation and action
15.
What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
a)
Leadership
b)
Charisma
c)
Communication skill
d)
Knowledge
16.
In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a project at each stage of its development?
a)
Life cycle model
b)
R & D model
c)
Project feasibility
d)
All of the above
17.
What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology project?
a)
Waterfall model
b)
Morris model
c)
Incremental release model
d)
Prototype model
18.
In project management, “R & D†stands for:
a)
Research and Development
b)
Retail Distribution
c)
Repair and Develop
d)
Reduce and Deduce
19.
In project management O & M stands for:
a)
Operation and Maintenance
b)
Operation and Manpower
c)
Operation and Management
d)
Operation and Mission
20.
A project management must be very good in which of the following skills?
a)
All of the above
b)
Communication skills
c)
Human relationship skills
d)
Leadership skills
21.
What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?
a)
Little managerial control and high degree of risk
b)
Time consuming and cost ineffective
c)
Little ideas from subordinate in decision- making
d)
All of the above
22.
If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
a)
Set goals
b)
Set a standard
c)
Determine the resources needed
d)
Develop strategies and tactics
23.
What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objective efficiently and effectively?
a)
Operations Management
b)
General Management
c)
Engineering Management
d)
Production Management
24.
For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a good __________.
a)
Interpersonal skills
b)
Communication skills
c)
Leadership
d)
Decision- making skills
25.
What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of territorial power or hidden agenda?
a)
Politics
b)
Technical opinion conflict
c)
Ambiguous roles
d)
Managerial procedure conflict
26.
The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as __________.
a)
Departmentalization
b)
Division of labor
c)
Segmentation
d)
Territorialization
27.
By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________?
a)
All of the above
b)
Accountability
c)
Responsibility
d)
Authority
28.
Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
a)
Quality planning
b)
Project plan development
c)
Project plan execution
d)
Integrated change control
29.
Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
a)
Quality feature
b)
Quality Control
c)
Quality assurance
d)
Quality planning
30.
What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
a)
Management Information System
b)
Electronic Data Processing Systems
c)
Central Processing System
d)
. Data Management System
31.
Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
a)
Intermediate planning
b)
Strategic planning
c)
Operational planning
d)
Direct planning
32.
Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
a)
Top management level
b)
Lower management level
c)
Middle management level
d)
Lowest management level
33.
What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only?
a)
Ad hoc committee
b)
Standing committee
c)
Temporary committee
d)
Interim committee
34.
What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?
a)
Effectiveness
b)
Efficiency
c)
Ability to manage
d)
Decision- making ability
35.
An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be __________ if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days
a)
Effective
b)
Efficient
c)
Reliable
d)
Qualified
36.
If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with the same output, he is said to be more __________.
a)
Efficient
b)
Effective
c)
Economical
d)
Managerial skill
37.
To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a subject?
a)
Performance test
b)
Aptitude test
c)
Interest test
d)
Personality test
38.
What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom instruction in particular subject?
a)
Apprenticeship program
b)
Vestibule school
c)
On-the-job training
d)
In-basket
39.
What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in the project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in the organization?
a)
Functional authority
b)
Staff authority
c)
Line authority
d)
Top authority
40.
When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority?
a)
Staff authority
b)
Functional authority
c)
Line authority
d)
Top authority
41.
When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the determining the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________.
a)
Division of labor
b)
Delegation of authority
c)
Departmentation
d)
Span of control
42.
When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to:
a)
Departmentation
b)
Delegation of authority
c)
Division of labor
d)
Span of control
43.
Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation?
a)
Intuition and subjective judgment
b)
Comparison technique
c)
Rational technique
d)
Analytical technique
44.
Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation?
a)
Rational and analytical techniques
b)
Intuition and subjective judgment
c)
Comparison in number technique
d)
Cost analysis
45.
What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in terms of products, services and markets?
a)
Corporate mission
b)
Corporate vision
c)
Corporate character
d)
Corporate identity
46.
What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically toward achieving objectives?
a)
Power
b)
Leadership
c)
Teamwork
d)
Charisma
47.
What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customer’s waiting time and cost of service?
a)
Queuing theory
b)
Network model
c)
Sampling theory
d)
Simulation
48.
What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations involving limited or partial information about the decision environment?
a)
Decision theory
b)
Sampling theory
c)
Linear programming
d)
Simulation
49.
What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research?
a)
Sampling theory
b)
Linear programming
c)
Statistical decision theory
d)
Simulation
50.
The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
a)
Physiological need
b)
Security need
c)
Esteem need
d)
Self - actualization need
51.
What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job?
a)
Training
b)
Development
c)
Vestibule
d)
Specialized courses
52.
What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities?
a)
Benchmark job technique
b)
Parametric technique
c)
Modular technique
d)
Non- modular technique
53.
What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
a)
Functional organization
b)
Territorial organization
c)
Process organization
d)
Product organization
54.
What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
a)
Product organization
b)
Process organization
c)
Territorial organization
d)
Functional organization
55.
What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?
a)
Matrix organization
b)
Functional organization
c)
Process organization
d)
Product organization
56.
In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
a)
Matrix organization
b)
Functional organization
c)
Product organization
57.
Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?
a)
Rapid reaction organization
b)
State-of-the-art technology
c)
Better utilization of resources
d)
Adaptation to changing environment
58.
Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
a)
Inefficient use of specialist
b)
Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
c)
Conflicts between project and functional managers
d)
Dual accountability of personnel
59.
Which one is an advantage projectized organization?
a)
Efficient use of technical personnel
b)
Good project schedule and cost control
c)
Single point for customer contact
d)
Rapid reaction time possible
60.
Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
a)
Slower work flow
b)
Insecurity regarding future job assignments
c)
Inefficient use of specialist
d)
Uncertain technical direction
61.
Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
a)
Rapid reaction time possible
b)
Efficient use of technical personnel
c)
Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
d)
Good technology transfer between projects
62.
Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?
a)
Inefficient use of specialist
b)
Weak project authority
c)
Weak customer interface
d)
Slower work flow
63.
In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the project and is often assigned a budget?
a)
Matrix organization
b)
Functional organization
c)
Projectized organization
d)
Project coordinated organization
64.
In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?
a)
Location
b)
Customer relation
c)
Finance and accounting
d)
Technology
65.
What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?
a)
Location of the project
b)
Type of technology used
c)
Overhead cost
d)
Level of uncertainty in projects
66.
If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his __________ to reach a compromise solution.
a)
Tradeoff analysis skill
b)
Leadership
c)
Authority
d)
Decision-making skill
67.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
a)
Project manager
b)
Functional manager
c)
Chief engineer
d)
Department supervisor
68.
Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively?
a)
Functional manager
b)
Project manager
c)
Sales manager
d)
Area manager
69.
What is the major activity of the project support office?
a)
Administrative support for projects
b)
Support for tools and techniques
c)
Overall project management support
d)
Project management via the internet
70.
What is the major activity of the project office?
a)
Overall project management support
b)
Support for tools and techniques
c)
Administrative support for projects
d)
Project management via internet
71.
What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content?
a)
Linear responsibility chart
b)
Gantt chart
c)
Life cycle model
d)
Project design chart
72.
What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project element?
a)
All of the above
b)
Responsibility interface matrix
c)
Matrix responsibility chart
d)
Linear responsibility chart
73.
What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
a)
Critical path method
b)
Forecasting
c)
Program evaluation review technique
d)
Simulation
74.
What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
a)
Program evaluation review technique
b)
Critical path method
c)
Forecasting
d)
Simulation
75.
For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
a)
Critical path method
b)
Critical plan method
c)
Critical project method
d)
Coordinated plan method
76.
For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?
a)
Project evaluation review technique
b)
Program evaluation review technique
c)
Path evaluation review technique
d)
Program execution review technique
77.
What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management?
a)
All of the above
b)
They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project.
c)
They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks
d)
They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date
78.
The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
a)
1957
b)
1958
c)
1959
d)
1960
79.
In what year was PERT developed?
a)
1958
b)
1957
c)
1959
d)
1960
80.
What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
a)
Feasibility
b)
Planning and design
c)
Production
d)
Turnover and startup
81.
Risk management is:
a)
Controlling risk
b)
Risk avoidance
c)
To gain opportunities
d)
All of the above
82.
What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
a)
Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
b)
Use a different technology
c)
Use a different supplier
d)
Buying insurance
83.
Buying insurance is a form of:
a)
Risk sharing
b)
Risk reduction
c)
Risk elimination
d)
Risk absorption
84.
What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences?
a)
Risk management
b)
Reliability management
c)
Quality assurance management
d)
Project assurance management
85.
What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
a)
Risk-benefit analysis
b)
Risk management
c)
Benefit management
d)
Uncertainty analysis
86.
What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get an approval from his or her manager?
a)
Authority
b)
Leadership
c)
Responsibility
d)
Tradeoff skill
87.
What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives?
a)
Strategy
b)
Goal
c)
Program
d)
Plan
88.
When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-charge:
a)
Has inadequate control
b)
Lacks leadership skill
c)
Has poor organization
d)
Has no proper planning
89.
What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the problem at hand?
a)
Tolerance
b)
Statistical confidence
c)
Incompleteness of the data
d)
Ambiguity in modeling the problem
90.
One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands for?
a)
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
b)
Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
c)
Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
d)
Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
91.
In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the appropriate question will the manager ask?
a)
What do we need to get it done?
b)
What are we aiming to do?
c)
How are we going to do it?
d)
What is the operation environment?
92.
In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing a project?
a)
Identify a need for a product or service
b)
Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
c)
Select appropriate performance measures
d)
Develop a technological concept
93.
In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually the next step?
a)
Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
b)
Develop a budget
c)
Develop a schedule
d)
Develop the technological concept
94.
What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
a)
Evaluate project success
b)
Monitor and control the project
c)
Implement a plan
d)
Select appropriate performance measures
95.
To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project management are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project will take __________ times longer to complete than expected”.
a)
Three
b)
Four
c)
Two
d)
Two and a half
96.
In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the __________.
a)
General manager
b)
Manufacturing manager
c)
Finance manager
d)
Marketing manager
97.
What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal lines of authority called?
a)
Organization chart
b)
Authority chart
c)
Policy chart
d)
Control chart
98.
What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?
a)
Decision-making
b)
Problem-solving
c)
Alternative-analysis
d)
Sampling theory
99.
What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how with the ability to organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including money?
a)
Engineering management
b)
Engineering technology
c)
Technical manger
d)
General management
100.
Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.
a)
Management
b)
Planning
c)
Organizing
d)
Supervision
101.
Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”
a)
Engineering Management
b)
Engineering Materials
c)
Engineering Organization
d)
Engineering Club
102.
The following are considered as functions of an engineer except
a)
Physical Education
b)
Sales
c)
Construction
d)
Testing
103.
A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.
a)
Research
b)
Design and Development
c)
Testing
d)
Manufacturing
104.
A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to a finished physical term.
a)
Design and Development
b)
Testing
c)
Manufacturing
d)
Research
105.
A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested for workability.
a)
Testing
b)
Design and Development
c)
Research
d)
Manufacturing
106.
A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.
a)
Manufacturing
b)
Testing
c)
Design and Development
d)
Research
107.
A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process. construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process.
a)
Construction
b)
Sales
c)
Consulting
d)
Government
108.
A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.
a)
Sales
b)
Consulting
c)
Government
d)
Construction
109.
A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization requiring his services.
a)
Consulting
b)
Sales
c)
Construction
d)
Government
110.
A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions, public or private.
a)
Government
b)
Sales
c)
Construction
d)
Consulting
111.
A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.
a)
Teaching
b)
Government
c)
Management
d)
Consulting
112.
A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing specific tasks.
a)
Management
b)
Government
c)
Teaching
d)
Consulting
113.
Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.
a)
Decision Making
b)
Engineering Management
c)
Initiative
d)
Problem solving
114.
The first step in Decision making process is to
a)
Diagnose problem
b)
Analyze environment
c)
Make a choice
d)
Articulate problem or opportunity
115.
The last step in decision making process is to
a)
Evaluate and adapt decision results
b)
Diagnose problem
c)
Make a choice
d)
Analyze environment
116.
Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.
a)
Qualitative evaluation
b)
Quantitative evaluation
c)
Relative evaluation
d)
Subjective evaluation
117.
Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and analytical.
a)
Quantitative evaluation
b)
Qualitative evaluation
c)
Relative evaluation
d)
Subjective evaluation
118.
Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.
a)
Planning
b)
Management
c)
Organizing
d)
Supervision
119.
Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.
a)
Intermediate Planning
b)
Operational Planning
c)
Strategic planning
d)
Secondary Planning
120.
The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
a)
Strategic planning
b)
Operational Planning
c)
Intermediate Planning
d)
Secondary Planning
121.
Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources.
a)
Intermediate Planning
b)
Operational Planning
c)
Strategic planning
d)
Secondary Planning
122.
This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.
a)
Intermediate Planning
b)
Operational Planning
c)
Strategic planning
d)
Secondary Planning
123.
Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources.
a)
Operational Planning
b)
Intermediate Planning
c)
Strategic planning
d)
Secondary Planning
124.
This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.
a)
Operational Planning
b)
Intermediate Planning
c)
Strategic planning
d)
Secondary Planning
125.
This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.
a)
Marketing Plan
b)
Financial Plan
c)
Production Plan
d)
Short-range plans
126.
This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms and by product family.
a)
Production Plan
b)
Financial Plan
c)
Marketing Plan
d)
Short-range plans
127.
It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.
a)
Financial Plan
b)
Marketing Plan
c)
Production Plan
d)
Short-range plans
128.
It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.
a)
Human Resource Management Plan
b)
Production Plan
c)
Financial Plan
d)
Marketing Plan
129.
These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned with these planes.
a)
Short-range plans
b)
Long-range plans
c)
Standing Plans
d)
Single-Use Plans
130.
These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by middle and top management.
a)
Long-range plans
b)
Short-range plans
c)
Standing Plans
d)
Single-Use Plans
131.
Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly.
a)
Standing Plans
b)
Long-range plans
c)
Short-range plans
d)
Single-Use Plans
132.
These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring situations or function.
a)
Policies
b)
Procedures
c)
Guidelines
d)
Rules
133.
These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.
a)
Procedures
b)
Policies
c)
Guidelines
d)
Rules
134.
These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.
a)
Rules
b)
Guidelines
c)
Procedures
d)
Policies
135.
Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be repeated.
a)
Single-Use Plans
b)
Standing Plans
c)
Long-range plans
d)
Short-range plans
136.
A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from.
a)
Budget
b)
Project
c)
Program
d)
Financial Statement
137.
A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.
a)
Program
b)
Budget
c)
Project
d)
Financial Statement
138.
A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a program.
a)
Project
b)
Budget
c)
Program
d)
Financial Statement
139.
A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
a)
Organizing
b)
Planning
c)
Supervising
d)
Structure
140.
The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.
a)
Structure
b)
Supervising
c)
Planning
d)
Organizing
141.
This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.
a)
Functional Organization
b)
Product or Market Organization
c)
Matrix Organization
d)
Divisible Organization
142.
This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.
a)
Functional Organization
b)
Product or Market Organization
c)
Matrix Organization
d)
Divisible Organization
143.
This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with a certain type of product or customer
a)
Product or Market Organization
b)
Functional Organization
c)
Matrix Organization
d)
Divisible Organization
144.
This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries.
a)
Product or Market Organization
b)
Functional Organization
c)
Matrix Organization
d)
Divisible Organization
145.
An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division manager and to a project or group manager.
a)
Matrix Organization
b)
Product or Market Organization
c)
Functional Organization
d)
Divisible Organization
146.
Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.
a)
Line authority
b)
Staff authority
c)
Functional authority
d)
Head authority
147.
A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.
a)
Staff authority
b)
Line authority
c)
Functional authority
d)
Head authority
148.
A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the organization.
a)
Functional authority
b)
Staff authority
c)
Line authority
d)
Head authority
149.
A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.
a)
Ad hoc committee
b)
Standing committee
c)
Sinking committee
d)
Midget committee
150.
A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.
a)
Standing committee
b)
Ad hoc committee
c)
Sinking committee
d)
Midget committee
151.
Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits, selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.
a)
Staffing
b)
Hiring
c)
Recruitment
d)
Resourcing
152.
An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the organization.
a)
Forecasting
b)
Control
c)
Programming
d)
Recruitment
153.
Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals
a)
Programming
b)
Forecasting
c)
Control
d)
Recruitment
154.
This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.
a)
Evaluation and Control
b)
Forecasting
c)
Programming
d)
Recruitment
155.
Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.
a)
Recruitment
b)
Programming
c)
Evaluation and Control
d)
Forecasting
156.
Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to succeed on the job.
a)
Selection
b)
Evaluation and Control
c)
Forecasting
d)
Training
157.
In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and coworkers.
a)
Induction and Orientation
b)
Performance Appraisal
c)
Training and Development
d)
Monetary Rewards
158.
Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job.
a)
Training and Development
b)
Induction and Orientation
c)
Performance Appraisal
d)
Monetary Reward
159.
Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.
a)
Promotion
b)
Monetary reward
c)
Demotion
d)
Transfer
160.
The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the organization.
a)
Transfer
b)
Demotion
c)
Promotion
d)
Monetary reward
161.
The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a higher position.
a)
Demotion
b)
Promotion
c)
Separation
d)
Transfer
162.
Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.
a)
Separation
b)
Transfer
c)
Termination
d)
Demotion
163.
A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.
a)
Communication
b)
Counseling
c)
Hypnotism
d)
Language
164.
Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the organization.
a)
Information Function
b)
Motivation Function
c)
Control Function
d)
Emotive Function
165.
A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the organizations objectives.
a)
Motivation Function
b)
Information Function
c)
Emotive Function
d)
Control Function
166.
Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization, employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.
a)
Emotive Function
b)
Information Function
c)
Motivation Function
d)
Control Function
167.
A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.
a)
Verbal
b)
Oral
c)
Written
d)
Nonverbal
168.
A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.
a)
Nonverbal
b)
Written
c)
Oral
d)
Verbal
169.
Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal.
a)
Motivation
b)
Suppression
c)
Praising
d)
Unification
170.
The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:
a)
Inferiority complex
b)
Needs satisfaction
c)
Self-confidence in carrying out a task
d)
Willingness to do a job
171.
The following are considered theories of Motivation except:
a)
Gagarin’s Theory
b)
Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory
c)
Expectancy Theory
d)
Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
172.
It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.
a)
Leading
b)
Motivation
c)
Sales talk
d)
Commanding
173.
A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions within the organization. This describes:
a)
Legitimate power
b)
Referent power
c)
Coercive power
d)
Reward power
174.
When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as:
a)
Reward power
b)
Coercive power
c)
Referent power
d)
Legitimate power
175.
When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.
a)
Coercive power
b)
Referent power
c)
Legitimate power
d)
Reward power
176.
When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with the former.
a)
Referent power
b)
Legitimate power
c)
Coercive power
d)
Reward power
177.
Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:
a)
Greedy
b)
Charisma
c)
Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
d)
A high level of personal drive
178.
Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future.
a)
Inspection
b)
Evaluation
c)
Controlling
d)
Planning
179.
A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence.
a)
Feed forward control
b)
Preventive control
c)
Concurrent control
d)
Feedback control
180.
A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made.
a)
Concurrent control
b)
Preventive control
c)
Feed forward control
d)
Feedback control
181.
A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.
a)
Feedback control
b)
Concurrent control
c)
Preventive control
d)
Feed forward control
182.
Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways.
a)
Operation
b)
Production
c)
Construction
d)
Creation
183.
The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively.
a)
Operations management
b)
Planning
c)
Evaluation management
d)
Backboning
184.
A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation.
a)
Product Design
b)
Blueprinting
c)
Product planning
d)
Conceptualizing
185.
Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement of these facilities.
a)
Product planning
b)
Blueprinting
c)
Product Design
d)
Conceptualizing
186.
The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long each operation in the production process takes.
a)
Scheduling
b)
Plotting
c)
Timetable
d)
Anticipating
187.
Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.
a)
Purchasing and Materials Management
b)
Inventory Control
c)
Quality Control
d)
Work
188.
The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.
a)
Inventory Control
b)
Quality Control
c)
Work-Flow Layout
d)
Purchasing and Materials Management
189.
The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.
a)
Work-Flow Layout
b)
Quality Control
c)
Inventory Control
d)
Purchasing and Materials Management
190.
Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.
a)
Quality Control
b)
Work-Flow Layout
c)
Inventory Control
d)
Purchasing and Materials Management
191.
A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.
a)
Marketing
b)
Commercial
c)
Advertisement
d)
Sales
192.
The four P’s of marketing are the following except:
a)
Publicity
b)
Promotion
c)
Price
d)
Product
193.
It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.
a)
Product
b)
Price
c)
Promotion
d)
Place
194.
Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the product, idea, or service.
a)
Price
b)
Product
c)
Promotion
d)
Place
195.
An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their customers.
a)
Place
b)
Product
c)
Price
d)
Promotion
196.
Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and behavior.
a)
Promotion
b)
Price
c)
Product
d)
Place
197.
A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.
a)
Advertising
b)
Publicity
c)
Sales promotion
d)
Personal selling
198.
The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.
a)
Publicity
b)
Advertising
c)
Sales promotion
d)
Personal selling
199.
A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.
a)
Personal selling
b)
Sales promotion
c)
Publicity
d)
Advertising
200.
It is the process of unifying the power of technology with entrepreneurial skills and capabilities.
a)
technopreneurship
b)
entrepreneurship
c)
inovations
d)
business management
201.
This provides detailed information about a specific hazardous material and contains some of the following such name of substance physical hazards, health hazard, safe handling procedures, control measures, emergency first aid procedures, etc. What is this called?
a)
Material Safety Data Sheet
b)
Management Safety Duty Sheet
c)
Management Safety Data Sheet
d)
Material Signages Data Sheet
202.
What is the reason why incidents are investigated?
a)
to prevent or control a future recurrence on a similar incident
b)
to determine the causes of incident
c)
to gather evidence of the incident
d)
to determine who is at fault in the incident
203.
Which of the following is NOT a hazardous practice?
a)
using the right tools/equipment
b)
using improvised tools
c)
servicing equipment in motion
d)
operating without authority
204.
When analyzing the evidence you want to do the following EXCEPT
a)
review employee medical records
b)
review equipment manuals
c)
review witness statements
d)
review company standard operating procedure
205.
Your investigation tool bag should include the following EXCEPT
a)
tape recorder
b)
digital camera
c)
graph paper
d)
tape measure
206.
An incident is considered to be an
a)
accident and near miss
b)
accident
c)
near miss
d)
none of these
207.
Most accidents in the workplace can be forecasted
a)
True
b)
False
c)
maybe
d)
none of these
208.
Risk management includes all of the following processes except
a)
risk avoidance
b)
risk monitoring and control
c)
risk identification
d)
risk response planning
209.
Risk management can be defined as the art and science of ___ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project
a)
researching, reviewing and acting on
b)
identifying, analyzing and responding to
c)
reviewing, monitoring and managing
d)
identifying, reviewing and avoiding
210.
When should a risk be avoided?
a)
when the risk event is an acceptable, generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact
b)
When the risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact
c)
when it can be transferred by purchasing insurance
d)
a risk event can never be avoided
211.
Risk mitigation involves all but which of the following
a)
identification of projection risk
b)
developing system standards (policies, procedures, responsibility standards)
c)
obtaining insurance against loss
d)
performing contingent planning
212.
System risk assessment may be defined as
a)
both a and b
b)
nonlinear
c)
linear
d)
none of these
213.
_____ may be affected by phycological, ideological, religious or otherwise subjective factors, which impact rationality of the process
a)
individual risk assessment
b)
system risk assessment
c)
simple risk assessment
d)
all of these
214.
Which of the following information can not be found in MSDS?
a)
medicine to be taken by the effected person if exposed to the chemical
b)
handling and storage information
c)
accident release measures
d)
first and measures
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