wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PCOL MID ANEST P2

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Good guidance whenever there is a need to use neuromuscular blockade to significantly improve the quality of intubation and reduce airway injury

a)

NMT monitoring

b)

Entropy Monitoring

c)

Surgical Pleth

2.

Gives a clear picture of the individual dosage needs of the patient and facilitates optimal and cost-effective administration of neuromuscular blocking drugs.

a)

NMT monitoring

b)

Maintenance

c)

Muscle relaxant

3.

used to monitor nociceptive stimuli and antinociceptive (analgesic) drug effects during surgery using the pulse photoplethysmographic amplitude and heart rate interval derived from pulse oximetry measurements

a)

Surgical Pleth

b)

Entropy Monitoring

c)

NMT monitoring

4.

The goal of entropy monitoring is to ensure that patients are given appropriate levels of anesthesia so that recovery is faster

a)

Entropy Monitoring

b)

Surgical Pleth

c)

NMT monitoring

5.

involves using electroencephalography—a strip of electrodes applied to the forehead—to assess the depth of general anesthesia in surgical patients.

a)

Entropy Monitoring

b)

Surgical Pleth

c)

NMT monitoring

6.

A method of assessing the effect of certain anesthetic drugs on the brain's EEG.

a)

Entropy Monitoring

b)

Surgical Pleth

c)

NMT monitoring

7.

combined with volatile anesthesia to minimize the dose for potent anesthesia

a)

Nitrous oxide

b)

Muscle relaxant

c)

Preoperative drug

8.

can be use as part of balance anesthesia to provide adequate paralysis of muscle for surgical access and also for intubation purposes.

a)

Muscle relaxant

b)

Maintenance

c)

Preoperative drug

9.

combination of inhaled (nitrous oxide, vol liquids) or IV drugs (propofol, opioid) to causes reversible Loss of consciousness and Insensibility to painful stimul

a)

Maintenance

b)

Induction

c)

Preoperative drug

10.

- Combination of IV and inhaled drugs

- Used to take advantage of the favorable properties of each agent while minimizing their adverseeffects.

a)

Balance Anesthesia

b)

Anesthesia

c)

Dissociative anesthesia

11.

the patient have analgesia and also have amnesia without loss of consciousness

a)

Dissociative anesthesia

b)

Neuroleptanestheisa

c)

anesthesia

12.

produce nalgesic and amnesic effect

a)

Neuroleptanestheisa

b)

Dissociative anesthesia

c)

Balance Anesthesia

13.

- Opium Poppy (Papaver somniferum)

- mainly used as adjuncts

-meaning additional therapy and combined with general anesthesia

- Part of balance anesthesia

a)

OPIOID ANALGESICS

b)

OPIUM ANALGESICS

c)

POPPY

ANALGESICS

14.

An operation in which a small hole is made in the skull or a piece of bone from the skull is removed to show part of the brain.

a)

Craniotomy

b)

Norketamine

15.

To produce anesthetic effect kailangan mong ma block or inhibit ang excitatory neurotransmitter

a)

KETAMINE

b)

MINTAKE

c)

KATEMINE

16.

A sedative–hypnotic used for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia or sedation

a)

Propofol

b)

Etomidate

c)

Benzodiazepenes

17.

agent for INDUCTION of anesthesia

a)

Propofol

b)

Etomidate

c)

Benzodiazepenes

18.

Current formulation: 1% propofol in 10% soybean oil, 2.25% glycerol, 1.2% egg phosphatide

a)

Propofol

b)

Etomidate

c)

Benzodiazepenes

19.

– hormone that is responsible to produce cortecosteroid hormone in our body. Ang tawag sa condition kapag mababa ang cortisol in the body that is known as addison’s disease

a)

Propofol

b)

Etomidate

c)

Cortisol

20.

Potent ultra-short acting non-barbiturate hypnotic without analgesic property

a)

Etomidate

b)

Propofol

c)

Benzodiazepenes

21.

Dose of 0.3 mg/kg will induce sleep that lasts for approximately 5 minutes

a)

Etomidate

b)

Propofol

c)

Benzodiazepenes

22.

A sedative–hypnotic used for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia or sedation

a)

Diprivan, Fresofol

b)

Amidate

c)

Flumazenil

23.

Potent ultra-short acting non-barbiturate hypnotic without analgesic property

a)

Amidate

b)

Diprivan, Fresofol

c)

Flumazenil

24.

– loss of ability to create new memories after the event that causes the amnesia

a)

Anterograde amnesia

b)

Aterograde amnesia

c)

Retrograde amnesia

25.

Primary Use- as premedication/preoperative. Cause anterograde amnesia decreased ability to retain new information. Patient cannot recall events that took place for some time after the drug was administered

a)

Benzodiazepenes

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Etomidate

26.

Recovery: 30 minutes Dose-50mg test dose given with moderate rapidity

a)

Ultra short acting Barbiturates

b)

short acting Barbiturates

c)

Long acting Barbiturates

27.

Use- PRE-ANESTHETIC agent for INDUCTION of anesthesia

a)

Ultra short acting Barbiturates

b)

Benzodiazepenes

c)

Etomidate

28.

Type of drug that is capable to stimulate the GABA receptors. Once na nastimulate ang GABA receptor the nexting that will happen is that maoopen ang Cl ion channel. Cl ion located outside will enter the cell mag uundego sya ng resting membrane potential.

a)

GABAMIMETIC AGENTS

b)

GABA AGENTS

c)

MIMETIC AGENTS

29.

– IV anesthesia which are obtained from natural sources specifically fom a plant known as the opium poppy. Opioids they are given together with general anesthesia to produce strong analgesic effect.

a)

Opioids

b)

GABAmimetic anesthesia

c)

Dissociative anesthesia

30.

capable to induce anesthetic effect by means of sedation

a)

GABAmimetic anesthesia

b)

Dissociative anesthesia

c)

Opioids

31.

ginagamit sya together with general na kailangan yung patient is conscious because ketamine nag po-produce ng general anesthetic effect without loss of conciousness.

a)

Dissociative anesthesia

b)

GABAmimetic anesthesia

c)

Opioids

32.

Combined with inhalational what we called balanced anesthesia. They are combined to inhaled anesthesia to produce ideal properties and at the same time to minimize possibility of adverse effects and toxicity of those agents.

a)

Intravenous Anesthesia

b)

OPIOID Anesthesia

c)

Anesthesia

33.

Several drugs are used intravenously, alone or in combination with other drugs, to achieve an anesthetic state (as components of balanced anesthesia) or to sedate patients in intensive care units who must be mechanically ventilated

a)

Intravenous Anesthesia

b)

Anesthesia

c)

Intravenous analgesic

34.

Breakdown by CO2 absorbents generates heat and has resulted in sporadic operating room fires

a)

Sevoflurane

b)

Desflurane

c)

Isoflurane

35.

Breakdown by CO2 absorbents generates heat and has resulted in sporadic operating room fires.

a)

Sevorane

b)

Suprane

c)

Forane, Aerrane

36.

Diversion of blood flow via alternate routes or via reversed flow

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Desflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

37.

Not recommended for induction of anesthesia in children

a)

Sevorane

b)

Suprane

c)

Forane, Aerrane

38.

Bronchial irritation, laryngospasm & “Coronary steal syndrome”

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Desflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

39.

Bronchial irritation, laryngospasm & “Coronary steal syndrome”

a)

Forane, Aerrane

b)

Ethrane, Alyrane

c)

Suprane

40.

Least hepatotoxic and most nephrotoxic

a)

Enflurane

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Desflurane

41.

Least hepatotoxic and most nephrotoxic

a)

Ethrane, Alyrane

b)

Forane, Aerrane

c)

Suprane

42.

Causes electroencephalographic (EEG) patterns consistent with electrical seizure activity

a)

Enflurane

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Desflurane

43.

most potent of all available inhalational anesthetics

a)

Methoxyflurane

b)

Halothane

c)

Succinylcholine

44.

Metabolized to fluoride and oxalic acid which causes renal dysfunction.

a)

Penthrane

b)

Desflurane

c)

Trifluoroethanol

45.

most potent of all available inhalational anesthetics

a)

Penthrane

b)

Trifluoroethanol

c)

Desflurane

46.

classified as depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that means it is capable to relax the skeletal muscle

a)

Succinylcholine

b)

Necrotic

c)

Trifluoroethanol

47.

PROTOTYPE first halogenated ether (non-flammable) IN VOLATILE INHALED ANESTHESIA

a)

HALOTHANE

b)

XENON

c)

NITROUS OXIDE

d)

METHOXYFLURANE

48.

Type of general anesthesia that are liquid at room temperature pero nagiging gas sila at elevation of temperature

a)

VOLATILE INHALED ANESTHESIA

b)

VOLATILE ANESTHESIA

c)

INHALED ANESTHESIA

49.

It is the only element in the periodic table with anesthetic property

a)

Xenon

b)

Krypton

c)

Radon

50.

It is an element, the only element that present in periodic table na nag po-produce ng anesthetic effect

a)

Xenon

b)

Nitrous Oxide

c)

Renon

51.

This stage of anesthesia includes severe depression of the vasomotor center in the medulla as well as the respiratory center

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

52.

This stage of anesthesia includes severe depression of the vasomotor center in the medulla as well as the respiratory center

a)

Cortical Stage

b)

Delirium/ Combative Stage

c)

Surgical anesthesia

d)

Medullary depression

53.

Cessation of breathing to failure of circulation and death. Pupil is widely dilated, muscles are totally flabby pulse is thready or imperceptible and BP is very low.

a)

Cortical Stage

b)

Delirium/ Combative Stage

c)

Surgical anesthesia

d)

Medullary depression

54.

Cessation of breathing to failure of circulation and death. Pupil is widely dilated, muscles are totally flabby pulse is thready or imperceptible and BP is very low.

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

55.

Neurotransmitter that can stimulates CNS

a)

Impaired excitatory transmission

b)

Potentiated inhibitory effects

56.

Impaired excitatory transmission Inhibits the following neurotransmitter: EXCEPT

a)

Ach

b)

AMPA

c)

NMDA

d)

GABA

57.

Type of neurotransmitter capable to cause CNS depressant effect.

a)

Impaired excitatory transmission

b)

Potentiated inhibitory effects

58.

Depth of anesthesia is independent upon the concentration of anesthetic in the central nervous system.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

59.

Measurement of the solubility of the inhaled anesthesia in blood.

a)

GAS PARTITION COEFFICIENT

b)

BLOOD PARTITION COEFFICIENT

c)

SOLID PARTITION COEFFICIENT

d)

LIQUID PARTITION COEFFICIENT

60.

Increase solubility means that there’s higher amount of anesthesia dissolves, and less remains as gas

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

61.

The rank order for the inhaled anesthetics in terms of blood: gas: ASCENDING (LOW TO HIGH)

1. halothane

2. sevoflurane

3. desflurane

4. isoflurane

5. enflurane

6. nitrous oxide

a)

1,2,3,4,5,6

b)

1,5,2,4,3,6

c)

6,3,4,2,5,1

d)

1,4,6,5,2,3

62.

means enlargement of red blood cells

a)

megaloblastic anemia

b)

Xenon

c)

Methoxyflurane

63.

Inhibits Vit B12 metabolism

a)

megaloblastic anemia

b)

HYPOXIA

c)

laughing gas

64.

condition that refers to the low oxygen level. To prevent hypoxia it is combined to 70% oxygen together with 30% of nitrous oxide

a)

Hypoxia

b)

toxic anesthetic

c)

myocardial depression

65.

second gas effect (combined with other inhalational anesthesia)

a)

Nitrous Oxide

b)

Xenon

c)

Kenon

66.

This is the least toxic anesthetic (lowest blood: gas=fast removal)

a)

Nitrous Oxide

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

67.

Fast onset, but very explosive

a)

CYCLOPROPANE

b)

CHLOROFORM

68.

Slow onset, very toxic

a)

CHLOROFORM

b)

CYCLOPROPANE

69.

Slow onset, slow recovery, explosive

a)

ETHER

b)

ESTER

c)

CHLOROFORM

70.

The greater the amount that is inhaled by the patient therefore the greater the concentration

a)

INSPIRED AIR CONCENTRATION

b)

AIR CONCENTRATION

71.

- functional unit of lungs it is the small sack portion found in our lungs wherein doon nangyayare yung blood exchange of oxygen and as well as CO2 during the process of inhalation and expiration of air.

a)

Alveoli

b)

MINIMUM ALVEOLAR CONCENTRATION

c)

LUNGS

72.

is currently described by the MAC.

a)

Anesthetic potency

b)

MINIMUM ALVEOLAR CONCENTRATION

c)

inhalational anesthesia

73.

general anesthesia with a very high blood to gas partition coefficient. And greater toxic effect.

a)

Halothane

b)

enflurane

c)

isoflurane

74.

Low pungency

a)

Sevoflurane

b)

Desflurane

c)

Isoflurane

75.

Very pungent

a)

Desflurane

b)

Sevoflurane

c)

Isoflurane

76.

Most widely used

a)

Isoflurane

b)

Desflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

77.

Least hepatotoxic and most nephrotoxic

a)

Ethrane, Alyrane

b)

Forane, Aerrane

c)

Suprane

78.

least pungent

a)

Sevoflurane

b)

Enflurane

c)

Desflurane

79.

have equal pungency in terms of their odor

a)

Enflurane

b)

Sevoflurane

c)

Desflurane

80.

The rank order for the inhaled anesthetics in terms of blood: gas: DESCENDING (HIGH TO LOW)

1. halothane

2. sevoflurane

3. desflurane

4. isoflurane

5. enflurane

6. nitrous oxide

a)

1,2,3,4,5,6

b)

1,5,2,4,3,6

c)

1,3,5,2,6,4

d)

1,4,6,5,2,3

81.

NITROUS OXIDE

a)

megaloblastic anemia

b)

HYPOXIA

c)

laughing gas

82.

METABOLITE OF HALOTHANE THAT CAUSES CERATIN LIVER DAMAGE

a)

Trifluoroethanol

b)

Methoxyflurane

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Dantrolene

83.

TREATMENT FOR ALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA

a)

Dantrolene

b)

Nitrous oxide

c)

Methoxyflurane

d)

Halothane

84.

pungent inhaled anesthasia (MOST PUNGENTTO LEAST PUNGENT)

1. enflurane= isoflurane

2. sevoflurane

3. desflurane

a)

3,1,2

b)

1,2,3

c)

3,2,1

d)

2,3,1

85.

pungent inhaled anesthasia (LEAST PUNGENT TO MOST PUNGENT)

1. enflurane= isoflurane

2. sevoflurane

3. desflurane

a)

3,1,2

b)

1,2,3

c)

3,2,1

d)

2,1,3

86.

Diversion of blood flow via alternate routes or via reversed flow

a)

Coronary steal syndrome

b)

Bronchial irritation

c)

Laryngospasm

d)

Seizure

87.

FLAMMABLE INHALED ANESTHESIA

a)

Sevoflurane

b)

Desflurane

c)

Isoflurane

88.

TREATMENT FOR POISONING OR TOXICITY OF BENZODIAZEPENES

a)

Dantrolene

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Methoxyflurane

d)

Etomidate

89.

The goal is to ensure that patients are given appropriate levels of anesthesia so that recovery is faster

a)

Entropy Monitoring

b)

Surgical Pleth

c)

NMT monitoring