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Geology project-STEM October

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 6hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is molten rock that has formed deep within the Earth?
a)
Hot Spot
b)
Magma
c)
Lava
d)
Volcano
2.
What is molten rock that has reached the Earth's surface?
a)
Aa
b)
Lava
c)
Magma
d)
Pahoehoe
3.
As magma rises towards the surface it collects in a 'room' called a _____ _____ . 
a)
magma chamber
b)
side vent
c)
main vent
d)
lava chamber
4.
Vocanoes are found...
a)
on land
b)
under water
c)
on islands
d)
all of the above
5.
What is a volcano?
a)
A mountain that has lava all over it 
b)
A giant hill filled with magma
c)
A long high sea wave 
d)
A hole in the Earth where magma erupts
6.
Where are most volcanoes found?
a)
Southern Hemisphere
b)
Ring of Fire
c)
Mid-Atlantic Ridge
d)
Hot Spots
7.
What is / are sign(s) that a volcano may erupt soon?
a)
Earthquake activity in the area
b)
Changes in the shape of the volcano
c)
Different amounts of gas being produced
d)
All of these are signs
8.
What is the definition of dormant?
a)
sleeping
b)
extinct
c)
active
d)
invisible
9.
What are scientists that study volcanoes called?
a)
doctor
b)
vet
c)
volcanologist
d)
volcano scientist
10.
Dormant volcanoes might erupt in the future.
a)
True
b)
False
11.
The volcanoes on the Hawaiian Islands form due to which of the following?
a)
Divergent Boundary
b)
Hot Spot
c)
Subduction Boundary
d)
Transform Boundary
12.
Where do volcanoes come from?
a)
Places where plates move apart
b)
Places where plates are moving together
c)
Hot Spots
d)
All of these options
13.

Which theory helped scientists understand how and where volcanoes erupt?

a)

Theory of Plate Tectonics

b)

Theory or Relativity

c)

Theory of the Rock Cycle

d)

Big Bang Theory

14.

Which type of volcano is built by alternating layers of lava flows and ash flows? It can

be very explosive.

a)

Cinder Cone

b)

Composite

c)

Lava Dome

d)

Shield

15.

Which type of volcano has steep angled sides, throws blobs of lava in the air that fall as cinders, and is built over a short period of time?

a)

Cinder Cone

b)

Composite

c)

Lava Dome

d)

Shield

16.

Which type of volcano if found in the Hawaiian Islands with thick flowing, slow moving lava? This is the most common type of volcano on earth.

a)

Cinder Cone

b)

Composite

c)

Lava Dome

d)

Shield

17.

Which type of volcano spills thick lava which cools and piles up around the vent? These fragments spill down the sides of the volcano.

a)

Cinder Cone

b)

Composite

c)

Lava Dome

d)

Shield

18.

Which type of volcano is currently resting, but could erupt sometime in the future?

a)

Active

b)

Dormant

c)

Extinct

d)

All of the above

19.

The weak point in the Earth’s crust where hot magma rises and reaches the earth’s

surface is call the __________.

a)

Crater

b)

Magma Chamber

c)

Main Vent

d)

Secondary Cone

20.

An active volcanic area on earth is found at_______.

a)

Diverging Boundaries

b)

Converging Boundaries

c)

Hot Spots

d)

All of the above

21.

What is the active volcano area around the Pacific Rim called?

a)

Hot Spots

b)

Pacific Ocean

c)

Ring of Fire

d)

Hawaii

22.

Large projectiles thrown through the air during an eruption are called

a)

Volcanic bombs

b)

Hot Spot

c)

Lava

d)

Magma chamber

23.

Magma is found above the earth surface?

a)

True

b)

False

24.
What type of volcano is Kilauea, which is located in Hawaii?
a)
Caldera
b)
Cinder Cone
c)
Composite Volcano
d)
Shield Volcano
25.
Where are most volcanoes found?
a)
Southern Hemisphere
b)
Ring of Fire
c)
Mid-Atlantic Ridge
d)
Hot Spots
26.
What is molten rock that has reached the Earth's surface?
a)
Aa
b)
Lava
c)
Magma
d)
Pahoehoe
27.
Where do volcanoes come from?
a)
Places where plates move apart
b)
Places where plates are moving together
c)
Hot Spots
d)
All of these options
28.

What is a sudden and violent shaking of the ground that sometimes causes great destruction due to movements within the earth's crust or volcanic action?

a)

Volcanic

b)

Earthquake

c)

Collapse

d)

Explosion

29.

What is the study of earthquakes and seismic waves that move through and around the earth?

a)

Astronomy

b)

Seismology

c)

Geology

d)

Meteorology

30.

What is the point directly above the focus on the surface?

a)

Epicenter

b)

Hypocenter

c)

Fault line

d)

Magnitude

31.

What is called the surface where the plates slip each other?

a)

Fault plane

b)

Boundary

c)

Focus

d)

Epicenter

32.

What kind of plate tectonic boundary where plates slip each other or known as strike-slip?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Boundary zone

d)

Transform fault boundary

33.

What place where an earthquake originates?

a)

epicenter

b)

fault

c)

hypocenter

d)

surface

34.

What is the shaking of the Earth’s crust caused by a release of energy?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Epicenter

c)

Fault

d)

Plate

35.

What will occur when an earthquake happens underwater?

(a)  

36.

When do earthquakes happen?

a)

once a year

b)

all the time

c)

every month

d)

it depends

37.

What is the instrument used by scientists to measure the intensity of an earthquake?

a)

Seismogram

b)

Seismograph

c)

Seismology

d)

Seismologist

38.

What do you call the land surface of the earth as considered to be a jigsaw puzzle?

a)

Tectonic plate

b)

Fault

c)

Boundary

d)

Earthquake

39.

What are the three types of plate boundaries?

a)

folded, faulted, and rift zones

b)

subduction zone, trench, and volcanic arc

c)

convergent, divergent, and transform

d)

igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary

40.

How do rock particles move during the passage of a Primary wave (P-waves) through the rock?

a)

the particles do not move

b)

in a rolling circular motion

c)

back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel

d)

back and forth perpendicular to the direction of wave travel

41.

Which of the following sequences correctly lists the different arrivals of the waves from first to the last?

a)

P waves → S waves → Surface waves

b)

Surface waves → P waves → S waves

c)

P waves → Surface waves → S waves

d)

S waves → P waves → Surface waves

42.

What causes the up-and-down wiggles on the seismogram shown above?

a)

tsunami waves

b)

ground vibrations

c)

electromagnetic pulses

d)

variations in air pressure

43.

Which set of waves are probably the surface waves?

a)

Wave A

b)

Wave B

c)

Wave C

d)

They are all surface waves.

44.

Which set of waves are the P waves?

a)

Wave A

b)

Wave B

c)

Wave C

d)

They are all P waves

45.

Which set of waves are the S waves?

a)

Wave A

b)

Wave B

c)

Wave C

d)

They are all S waves

46.

Which of the following statements BEST describes secondary waves (S-waves)?

a)

circular motions like an ocean wave

b)

snake-like motions parallel to the Earth's surface

c)

contractions and expansions that are in the direction of wave propagation

d)

shearing motions that are at right angles to the direction of wave propagation

47.

What is the useful information regarding the composition of the interior of the Earth can be derived from earthquake waves?

a)

It changes radioactive decay rates of rocks.

b)

It releases materials from within the Earth.

c)

It travels through the Earth at a constant speed.

d)

It travels at different rates through different materials.

48.

Which layer of the Earth does S-waves do not travel?

a)

core

b)

crust

c)

mantle

d)

moho

49.

Which of the following earthquake waves can travel through both solids and fluids?

a)

P waves only

b)

S waves only

c)

Q-waves only

d)

Both P and S waves

50.

Which seismic waves travel through the interior layer of the Earth?

a)

body waves

b)

deep waves

c)

inner waves

d)

surface waves

51.

What do you call the motion or vibration of earthquake that travels outward from the focus?

a)

chemical energy

b)

electromagnetic waves

c)

gravity waves

d)

seismic waves

52.

In the upper part of the mantle, the earthquake waves slow down. It is explained that ________.

a)

that outer core is solid.

b)

rocks are partially molten.

c)

at depth the rocks are denser.

d)

rocks confined at that particular location tightly packed together.

53.

What is the most destructive earthquake wave?

a)

S waves

b)

P waves

c)

Q waves

d)

Surface waves

54.

Which statement best explains why the P-wave of an earthquake arrives at a seismic station before the S-wave?

a)

The S wave originates from the earthquake focus.

b)

The P wave has a greater velocity than the S wave.

c)

The P wave originates from the earthquake epicenter.

d)

The S wave decreases in velocity as it passes through the liquid.

55.

_____ is the collection of data that does not involve physical contact

a)

GPS

b)

Fieldwork

c)

Remote-sensing

d)

Not opening your textbook

56.
How are remote sensing data commonly used?
a)
to predict surface geology
b)
to monitor changes in the land
c)
to change contour intervals on a map
57.

_____ techniques might be used to monitor the number of trees that are being cut down or dying in a forest

a)

Remote-sensing

b)

Wizard-like

c)

Cylindrical projections

58.
How do satellites "see" things?
a)
Sensing electromagnetic radiation
b)
MAGIC of course
c)
With cameras on loop
d)
Using remote sensing cameras mounted to the body and projected to earth
59.

Remote sensing is use for ______________.

a)

Detecting plant health

b)

Measuring snowpack

c)

Monitoring wetlands

d)

All of the above

60.

When light is reflected off a surface, it is detected by passive remote sensing satellites and produces a(n) ________________, which we use to identify different surfaces.

a)

Rainbow

b)

Pulsar

c)

Spectral Signatures

d)

Awe inspiring moment

61.

The two types of remote sensing are ____________ & _____________.

a)

Yogi & Boo Boo

b)

Color & Panchromatic

c)

Passive & Active

d)

Sputnik & GOES

62.

T or F: Remote sensing can be used to monitor changes on the Earth's surface over time.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Not Sure

63.

The X-axis on a Spectral Signature graph indicates the ________

a)

Data Values

b)

Spectral Bands

64.

The Y-axis on a Spectral Signature graph is labeled what?

a)

Spectral Bands

b)

Data Values

c)

Land Cover

65.

Which of the following is not a principle of remote sensing?

a)

Interaction of energy with satellite

b)

Electromagnetic energy

c)

Electro-magnetic spectrum

d)

Interaction of energy with atmosphere

66.

Which of the following field is used by the EM waves

a)

Solar field

b)

Polarized field

c)

Electric field

d)

Micro field

67.

Polar orbiting satellites are generally placed at an altitude range of __________

a)

7-15km

b)

7000-15000km

c)

700-1500km

d)

70-150km

68.

In visible region, the blue light is having a wave length range of __________

a)

0.42-0.52 micrometer

b)

0.24-0.52 micrometer

c)

0.42-0.92 micrometer

d)

0.22-0.32 micrometer

69.

Which of the following has the maximum value in an electric or magnetic field?

a)

Wave length

b)

Focal length

c)

Frequency

d)

Amplitude

70.

In EM waves, electric field is not used.

a)

False

b)

True

71.

The wave length sensed in remote sensing are __________

a)

Nano meters and giga meters range

b)

Nano meters and deci meters range

c)

Nano meters and micro meters range

d)

Nano meters and meters range

72.

In the following figure, X represents___________

a)

Length

b)

Time period

c)

Frequency

d)

Wave length

73.

In the following figure, X represents___________

a)

Length

b)

Time period

c)

Frequency

d)

Wave length

74.

The altitudinal distance of a geostationary satellite from the earth is about:

a)

26,000 km

b)

30,000 km

c)

35,000 km

d)

44,000 km

75.

What is an example of modern mapmaking?

a)

Mapmakers using repeated, first-hand experience of the landscape to create a map.

b)

Mapmakers and scientists using photos from airplanes or satellites to create a map.

c)

Mapmakers and scientists using historic and modern data by traveling on foot.

d)

Mapmakers using pictures taken when traveling to create a map of the landscape.

76.

GIS stands for

a)

Geographic Information System

b)

Generic Information System

c)

Geological Information System

d)

Geographic Information Sharing

77.

why the Use of GIS is necessary

a)

Saves Times

b)

Handle large datasets

c)

Maps can be created and edited faster

d)

All of the above

78.
What does GPS stand for?
a)
Global Positioning System
b)
Geographic Information System
c)
Land forms
d)
Map Making
79.
What does a cartographer do?
a)
Make Maps
b)
Create Computer programs
c)
Teacher
d)
None of the above
80.
Which of the following is not a use of a GIS?
a)
Store Prices
b)
Mapping 
c)
Network Services
d)
Urban Planning
81.
What is a GPS used for?
a)
Navigation
b)
Resource Distribution
c)
Irrigation 
d)
Energy Tracking
82.

What geographic tool is an actual model of the Earth?

a)

globe

b)

map

c)

GPS

d)

satellite imagery

83.

What geographic tool uses at least four satellites to provide locations on the Earth?

a)

globe

b)

map

c)

satellite imagery

d)

GPS

84.

What geographic tool is limited because it cannot show streets and small towns?

a)

globe

b)

map

c)

satellite imagery

d)

GPS

85.

How is a globe more accurate than a map?

a)

a globe is a 3 dimensional model of the Earth, but a map is flat

b)

a globe can show streets and roads, but a map cannot

c)

a globe can show all of the continents at once, but a map cannot

d)

a globe can be used to navigate from one town to another, but a map cannot

86.

A visual representation of an area

a)

globe

b)

map

c)

aerial photograph

d)

GPS

87.

Geographers only use one tool/technology when they study the world.

a)

False

b)

True

88.

Maps are the least useful tool in geography.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Technologies like GPS and GIS help geographers with new and detailed information.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Google maps is an example of a GIS.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

What are Tectonic plates?

a)

Large moving pieces on Earth's surface that are made of rock.

b)

where two plates divide

c)

The inner core of the earth

d)

where magma rises up and solidifies

92.

What is the Asthenosphere?

a)

Huge supercontinent

b)

Where two plates slide

c)

The upper layer of the Earth's mantle, below the lithosphere.

d)

surrounds the moon

93.

What is continental drift?

a)

Made of igneous rock

b)

Where two plates collide

c)

Theory that all of earths continents were once joined together in a singe, huge land mass and then started drifting away from each other.

d)

The process by which new oceanic crust forms when when magma rises up.

94.

What is pangaea?

a)

Huge supercontinent that existed millions of years ago,

b)

Where two plates slide

c)

Where two plates divide

d)

Where two plates collide

95.

What are divergent Plate Boundaries?

a)

Where two plates divide

b)

Where two plates collide

c)

Where two plates slide

96.

What are Convergent Plate Boundaries?

a)

Where two plates divide

b)

Where two plates collide

c)

Where two plates slide

97.

What are Transform Plate Boundaries?

a)

Where two plates divide

b)

Where two plates collide

c)

Where two plates slide

98.

What is seafloor spreading?

a)

Large pieces of lithosphere that move.

b)

Layer made up of the crust and uppermost mantle

c)

The super continent that existed millions of years ago

d)

Process by which new oceanic crust forms when magma rises up and solidifies at the mid-ocean ridge.

99.

What is subduction?

a)

where one tectonic plate sinks below another

b)

Where two plates slide

c)

Where two plates divide

d)

Where two plates collide

100.

How do tectonic plates move?

a)

Wind

b)

Convection currents

c)

Water

101.

Huge pieces of lithosphere that slowly move on the asthenosphere and consist of the crust and the rigid, uppermost part of the mantle

a)

tectonic plates

b)

North American Plate

c)

Eurasian Plate

d)

African Plate

102.

A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of Greenland, North America, Siberia, and the surrounding oceanic crust.

a)

tectonic plates

b)

African Plate

c)

North American Plate

d)

South American Plate

103.

A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere, including most of the landmasses of Europe and Asia.

a)

South American Plate

b)

North American Plate

c)

Eurasian Plate

d)

African Plate

104.

A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of Africa and the surrounding oceanic crust.

a)

African Plate

b)

South American Plate

c)

North American Plate

d)

Eurasian Plate

105.

A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of South America and the oceanic crust extending to the Mid-Atlantic ridge.

a)

North American Plate

b)

Eurasian Plate

c)

African Plate

d)

South American Plate

106.

A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of India and Australia and the surrounding oceanic crust.

a)

Pacific Plate

b)

Antarctic Plate

c)

Indo-Australian Plate

d)

African Plate

107.

A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that is composed entirely of oceanic crust and lies beneath the Pacific Ocean

a)

Antarctic Plate

b)

Indo-Australian Plate

c)

Pacific Plate

d)

Atlantic Plate

108.

A tectonic plate division of the lithosphere that includes the continental crust of Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic crust.

a)

Indo-Australian Plate

b)

Antarctic Plate

c)

African Plate

d)

Pacific Plate

109.

The amount of matter in a given space or volume; oceanic crust is thinner, but denser than continental crust.

a)

Crustal Rock Material

b)

Density of Plates

c)

Plate Boundary

d)

Pacific Plate

110.

Crust can be either oceanic, which is thin and dense, or continetal, which is thick and less dense

a)

Density of Plates

b)

Crustal Rock Material

c)

Plate Boundary

d)

Earthquake

111.

the place where two different plates have contact.

a)

Pacific Plate

b)

Mountains

c)

Earthquakes

d)

Plate Boundaries

112.

Occurs when two tectonic plates move toward each other and collide

a)

convergent boundary

b)

subduction

c)

volcanic eruptions

d)

divergent boundary

113.

the process in which a denser plate is pushed downward beneath a less dense plate when plates converge; occurs at continental to oceanic boundaries and oceanic to oceanic boundaries

a)

divergent boundaries

b)

volcanic eruptions

c)

subduction

d)

convergent boundary

114.

Events in which molten rock spews out from the mantle to the surface of Earth as ash, lava and gases; major geological events that occur when a dense plate subducts below a less dense plate

a)

Mountain Building

b)

Convergent boundary

c)

Divergent boundary

d)

Volcanic eruptions

115.

Major geological event that occurs when continental plates of equal density converge, resulting in mountain chains

a)

Mountain Building

b)

Subduction

c)

Volcanic eruptions

d)

Divergent Boundary

116.

Occurs when two tectonic plates move away from each other.

a)

Divergent Boundary

b)

Convergent Boundary

c)

Volcanic eruptions

d)

Mountain building

117.

Ridges formed from new crustal material at diverging oceanic plate boundaries

a)

Ocean Basin

b)

earthquakes

c)

spreading ridges

d)

transform boundary

118.

An area of oceanic crust covered by seawater and surrounded by areas of continental crust

a)

Transform Boundary

b)

Earthquakes

c)

Ocean Basin

d)

Spreading ridges

119.

Occurs when two tectonic plates slide past each other

a)

Transform Boundary

b)

Ocean Basin

c)

Divergent Boundary

d)

Spreading ridges

120.

Major geological events that occur when plates shift suddenly and release stored energy; frequent occurrences along all types of plate boundaries

a)

Volcano

b)

Earthquakes

c)

Tsunami

d)

Tornado

121.
Oceanic crust is.....
a)
Younger and less dense than continental crust
b)
Thinner, younger, and more dense than continental crust
c)
older, thicker, and less dense than continental crust
d)
Bigger and younger than continental crust
122.
Earth's plates are....
a)
Constantly moving and changing the face of the Earth
b)
Never moved
c)
Move seldom and very fast
d)
move when they feel like it
123.
What was the name given to all the continents when they were joined as one super continent?
a)
Supreme Continent
b)
Eurasia
c)
Plate tectonics
d)
Pangea
124.

Describe the most likely relationship between these mountains and nearby tectonic plates.

a)

The mountains are probably formed by earthquakes

b)

The mountains are probably formed by the movement of glaciers

c)

The mountains are probably located near the edge of 2 tectonic plates.

d)

The mountains are probably formed by running water.

125.

Tectonic plates float on top of the ________

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Inner Core

d)

Outer Core

126.
This is the theory that states that all the continents started as a single massive continent and have been MOVING apart for over 200 million years and the man that proposed it.
a)
The Big Bang Theory, Einstein
b)
The Pangea Theory, Hutton
c)
The Tectonic Plate Theory, Darwin
d)
The Continental Drift Theory, Wegner
127.
Which is older oceanic or continental crust?
a)
Oceanic
b)
Continental
128.

Which layer of the Earth is solid iron and nickel?

a)

Mantle

b)

Crust

c)

Inner Core

d)

Outer core

129.

What is the thinnest and outer most layer of the Earth, that we live on?

a)

Outer Core

b)

Crust

c)

Mantle

d)

Inner core

130.

Which layer of the Earth is the thickest and is made of molten rock?

a)

Outer Core

b)

Inner Core

c)

Crust

d)

Mantle

131.

Put these layers in order from the center of Earth outward

a)

Mantle, crust, inner core, outer core

b)

outer core, inner core, mantle, crust

c)

Crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

d)

Inner core, outer core, mantle, crust

132.

Alfred Wegener used __________ to prove that Pangea once existed ?

a)

graham crackers and frosting

b)

math

c)

a metal detector

d)

fossils

133.
What does the theory of continental drift state?
a)
The continents were once joined in a super-continent and have moved over time
b)
Continents are stationary and do not move
c)
The Earth is broken into lithospheric plates that move due to convection currents
d)
none of the above
134.
Scientists recently discovered that rocks collected from the Franklin Mountains in West Texas and rocks collected from mountains in eastern Antarctica were exactly the same age. Further research showed that the rocks were chemically and geologically the same and came from the same magma source. This discovery provides evidence of —
a)
coastal erosion.
b)
plate tectonics.
c)
ocean currents.
d)
glacial melting.
135.
The layer that makes up most of the earth's mass and volume is the
a)
crust
b)
mantle
c)
core
d)
asthenosphere
136.
Earth's crust is broken up into several large rocky pieces called ...
a)
plates
b)
faults
c)
fossils
d)
puzzle pieces
137.
Which side of Holland Hill is the steepest?
a)
North
b)
South
c)
East 
d)
West
138.
If contour lines are close together, then the slope is
a)
gentle
b)
steep
c)
flat
d)
going up and down
139.
On a topographic map of a mountain, you walk a longer distance to get to the top when the contour lines are
a)
spread out
b)
close together
c)
going down
d)
going up
140.

What is the contour interval of this map?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

40

141.

If the contour interval is 10 feet, what is the elevation of the highest contour line on this mountain?

a)

80 ft

b)

70 ft

c)

50 ft

d)

60 ft

142.

Match the topographic map to its profile.

a)
b)
c)
d)
143.

Match the topographic map to its profile picture.

a)
b)
c)
d)
144.

Gradient means..

a)

The slope

b)

The change in a value

c)

Contour line

d)

The elevation

145.

If the contour interval is 10 feet, what is the highest possible elevation of this mountain?

a)

79 ft

b)

65 ft

c)

69 ft

d)

60 ft

146.

On a weather map, when the isobars are close together, there is

a)

a gradual change in air pressure.

b)

a rapid change in air pressure.

c)

no change in air pressure.

147.

If you have to draw isotherms on this temperature map with an interval of 2°, what should be the lowest isotherm drawn?

a)

18

b)

20

c)

22

d)

0

148.

When drawing isotherms,

a)

connect numbers in order.

b)

connect numbers of equal value

149.

When drawing a topographic profile, what should you do with the 2 points at the top of the hill?

a)

Draw a line straight across.

b)

Curve your line above the points.

c)

Curve your line below the points.

150.

Which of the following are signs that you made a MISTAKE while constructing a topographic profile?

CHOOSE ALL THAT ARE MISTAKES!

a)

You draw one dot at the top of the hill.

b)

You draw two dots at the top of a hill.

c)

Your dots skip one of the horizontal profile lines.

d)

The dots are closely spaced on the left side.

151.

Elevations on this map are in FEET. What is the correct unit when calculating gradient?

a)

ft/mi

b)

mi/ft

c)

mi

d)

ft

152.

As you hike 3.3 miles, your elevation increases from 2500 ft to 3100 ft. The gradient of your hike is (a)   ft/mi.

Just write the NUMBER (rounded correctly). Do not write the unit or anything else.

153.

Your ride your bike from an elevation of 35 m to 167 m over 1.7 km. The gradient of your mike ride is (a)   m/km.

Just write the NUMBER (rounded correctly). Do not write the unit or anything else.

154.

What is the elevation at sea level?

a)

0

b)

It depends on your location.

c)

10

155.

This river is generally flowing

a)

north

b)

south

156.

How can you use the shape of contour lines to determine the direction a river is flowing?

a)

The curve of a contour line points in the direction the river is flowing.

b)

The curve of a contour line points in the opposite direction that the river is flowing.

c)

Rivers flow between/along contour lines.

157.

Which terms best describe igneous rocks?

a)

light and easily broken

b)

soft and smooth

c)

hard and dense

d)

soft and dense

158.

Magma that is low in silica usually forms light-colored rocks, such as granite.

a)

True

b)

False

159.

How do coarse-grained intrusive igneous rocks form?

a)

from sedimentary rocks changed under pressure

b)

from large rock particles cemented together

c)

from rapidly cooling lava

d)

from slow cooling magma

160.

Basalt is used for cobblestones and in landscaping.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

Which igneous rock is mixed with soil and used for starting vegetable seeds?

a)

perlite

b)

obsidian

c)

basalt

d)

granite

162.

Igneous rocks are classified by their origin, texture, and mineral composition.

a)

True

b)

False

163.

Which igneous rock is an extrusive rock?

a)

porphyry

b)

rhyolite

c)

pegmatite

d)

granite

164.

Extrusive rocks have larger grains than intrusive rocks.

a)

True

b)

False

165.

When all the grains in a rock are large and easy to see, the rock is described as

a)

Fine-grained

b)

Coarse-Grained

c)

Glassy

166.

An igneous rock commonly used as building material is

a)

Slate

b)

Sandstone

c)

Granite

167.

An igneous rock that is formed from lava is called an

a)

Extrusive

b)

Intrusive

168.

The slower magma cools, the smaller the mineral crystals form.

a)

True

b)

False

169.

Extremely rapid cooling of lava in which no crystals form, creates what type of texture?

a)

Fine-Grained

b)

Coarse-Grained

c)

Glassy

170.

High silica content in magma=

a)

Darker-colored rock

b)

Lighter-colored rock

171.

Low silica content in lava=

a)

Darker-colored rock

b)

Lighter-colored rock

172.

The size of crystals in Igneous Rocks depends upon

a)

pressure

b)

the presence of air

c)

the presence of water

d)

cooling rate

173.

Rocks that are formed from magma or lava are called

a)

sedimentary

b)

metamorphic

c)

igneous

d)

clastic

174.

All rocks are classified based upon

a)

the way they are formed

b)

the elements they contain

c)

the latitude and longitude where they are formed

d)

the layers that are present

175.

The color of an Igneous rock tells about the rock's

a)

location

b)

texture

c)

cooling rate

d)

composition

176.

Igneous rocks are classified based upon their composition and

a)

size

b)

texture

c)

layers

d)

how they taste

177.

Extrusive rocks are formed

a)

underwater

b)

in a lab

c)

deep underground

d)

above the surface of a volcano

178.

Coarse-grained intrusive igneous rocks result when

a)

Sedimentary rocks are cemented and compacted.

b)

magma cools quickly

c)

magma cools slowly

d)

lava cools quickly

179.

Which characteristics could help you identify an igneous rock as cooling on the surface?

a)

Vesicles (air bubbles) and large crystals

b)

Vesicles (air bubbles) and very small or no crystals

c)

Large crystals and multi-colored

d)

Being dark or light in color and having layers

180.

The most common INTRUSIVE igneous rock is

a)

granite

b)

gabbro

c)

rhyolite

d)

sandstone

181.

Mafic rocks are

a)

light in color due to high silica content

b)

coarse-grained

c)

dark in color due to their high iron and magnesium content

d)

fine grained

182.

This igneous rock is

a)

granite

b)

basalt

c)

obsidian

d)

pumice

183.

This igneous rock is

a)

basalt

b)

obsidian

c)

granite

d)

pumice

184.

This igneous rock is

a)

obsidian

b)

basalt

c)

pumice

d)

granite

185.

This igneous rock is

a)

obsidian

b)

basalt

c)

pumice

d)

granite

186.

All igneous rocks are formed from

a)

cementing and compacting of rocks

b)

heat and pressure within the Earth

c)

the remains of ancient organisms

d)

magma and lava

187.

In which time period are we currently living?

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

188.

Jellyfish are one of the oldest species on Earth. In what time period did they first appear?

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

189.

In what time period did Pangaea, the super continent, appear?

a)

Precambrian Time

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

190.

Which fossil is the youngest?

a)

fossil A

b)

fossil B

c)

fossil C

d)

fossils A and B are the same age

191.

Which fossil is the youngest?

a)

fossil A

b)

fossil B

c)

fossil C

d)

fossils A and B are the same age

192.

What is the importance of studying fossils?

a)

to provide information about how current life forms would exist in previous environmental conditions

b)

to provide information about how life and environmental conditions may have changed

c)

to provide information about how previous life forms would exist in current environmental conditions

193.

Determines the “relative” order of past events but not the absolute age.

a)

Absolute age

b)

Relative age

c)

Real age

d)

New age

194.

Uses the decay of radioactive elements to find the ___________________________ of a rock or fossil.

a)

Relative age

b)

Absolute age

c)

New age

d)

Real Age

195.

The same natural laws in Earth's history that are present today.

a)

Uniformitarianism

b)

Law of Superposition

c)

Catastrophism

d)

The Great Dying

196.

Mass extinction 252 million years ago... end of the Permian Period.

a)

Great Cambrian Explosion

b)

The Great Dying

c)

Uniformitarianism

d)

Eon

197.

When most of the major groups of animals first appear in the fossil record.

a)

Law of Superposition

b)

The Great Dying

c)

Great Cambrian Explosion

d)

Era

198.

Division of periods in geological history

a)

Eons

b)

Epoch

c)

Era

d)

Law of Superposition

199.

Chronological chart that shows the events and past lives of organisms in Earth's history.

a)

Geological Time Scale

b)

Cambrian Explosion

c)

Eon

d)

Era

200.
How old do Paleontologists believe the Earth is?
a)
2015 years old
b)
3.6 billion years old
c)
4.6 billion years old
d)
4.6 million years old

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