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Ag Econ Final Review

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines “Opportunity Costs”?

a)

The cost of doing business

b)

The costs associated with specialization

c)

The costs of opportunities foregone

d)

The costs associated with labor

2.

Which is the best example of a “natural resource”?

a)

Fertilizer, chemicals, and crop seed

b)

Manufactured goods

c)

Human Labor

d)

Land

3.

What type of economic system allows individuals to own resources like land?

a)

Capitalism

b)

Communism

c)

Socialism

d)

Mixed economic system

4.

Which branch of economics would be concerned with the textbook costs for students at MJC?

a)

Macroeconomics

b)

Normative

c)

Positive

d)

Microeconomics

5.

What branch of economics is concerned with inflation and the unemployment rate?

a)

Microeconomics

b)

Normative

c)

Positive

d)

Macroeconomics

6.

Which type of economic system does the US have?

a)

Capitalism

b)

Socialism

c)

Mixed

d)

Communism

7.

Would this example be “positive” or “normative” economics? An economist wants to study the effects of processing plant supply chain issues on consumer demand for beef.

a)

Normative

b)

Positive

8.

The study of economics at the simplest level addresses the problem of over-coming

a)

Scarcity

b)

Adversity

c)

Opportunity costs

d)

Communism

9.

When given a set of human and non-human resources, _______ of effort generally results in higher total output.

a)

Positive economics

b)

Specialization

c)

Scarcity

d)

Cooperation

10.

Economic reasoning that is true for one individual but not for society as a whole is referred to as:

a)

Fallacy of composition

b)

Socialism

c)

Opportunity costs

d)

Communism

11.

If the price index received by farmers for 2015 was .97. Which statement would be most accurate?

a)

Relative to the base year, farm prices were 3% higher

b)

Relative to the base year, farm prices were 97% higher

c)

Relative to the base year, farm prices were 3% higher

d)

Relative to the base year, prices were 3% lower in 2015

12.

Assumed the base year is 2015, calculate the output index value for 2014.

a)

1.02

b)

.92

c)

1.08

d)

.97

13.

Calculate the price index for 2016 as indicated. The base year is 2015, round the nearest 100th.

a)

.97

b)

.92

c)

1.03

d)

1.07

14.

Given the table below, what is the price index for 2014 assuming the base year is 2013.

a)

1.50

b)

.50

c)

1.25

d)

.92

15.

Given the following table, relative to 2013 (base year) the price of corn for 2014 was?

a)

Higher by 25%

b)

Higher by 20%

c)

Lower by 20%

d)

Lower by 25%

16.

The base year is indicated by:

a)

1.00

b)

1.50

c)

.90

d)

1.10

17.

What is the marginal utility for A?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

45

d)

1

18.

According to the following table, which of the “Consumption Bundles” is most preferred?

a)

D

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A

19.

“I wanted to purchase a new laptop but I just couldn’t afford it.” This statement portrays that we are all faced with what economists call ______________.

a)

The law of diminishing returns

b)

the law of demand

c)

The budget constraint

d)

The consumer delimna

20.

The marginal utility of a good such as ice cream declines with increases in consumption of that good. The phenomenon is referred to as the _______ (an economic law)

a)

The law of diminishing marginal utility

b)

Engel’s law

c)

Supply and demand

d)

Total utility

21.

Engel’s law states:

a)

As income rises, food expenditures increase exponentially

b)

As income rises, the portion of the dollar spend on food rises

c)

As income rises, the portion of the dollar we spend on food falls

d)

Marginal utility declines as more of a good is consumed during a specific time period

22.

For Herman, 4 wings and 3 bottles of Dr. Pepper generate the same utility as 6 wings and 2 bottles of Dr. Pepper. These combinations are called ______ _____. And form the basis for the calculation of marginal rate of substitution.

a)

Consumer bundles

b)

Combination bundles

c)

Consumption bundles

23.

In studying consumer behavior, we assume consumers are ______ and _____ their utility/satisfaction.

a)

Rational-maximize

b)

Irrational-minimize

c)

Irresponsible-ruin

d)

Open-minded- demand

24.

Another name for an “isoutility curve” is an _______ ______

(a)  

25.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

As consumption increases, marginal utility increases

b)

The marginal rate of substitution is always a positive number

c)

The total utility curve has a negative slope

d)

The marginal utility curve has a negative slope

26.

The graph of alternative consumption bundles that provides a consumer with a given level of satisfaction is called a (n) _____________________ curve.

a)

ISO-utility

b)

Budget

c)

Consumption bundles

d)

Engel

27.

In the example of an inferior good; as consumer income increases, demand for the good will

a)

Increase

b)

No answer provided

c)

Remain unchanged

d)

Decrease

28.

The change in the economic welfare of the consumer can be approximated by the concept of “consumer surplus”

a)

False

b)

True

29.

“Consumer Equilibrium” in economics refers to which of the following?

a)

The demand line intersecting the supply line

b)

The point where the iso-utility curve and the budget line are tangent

c)

The point where consumers buy the maximum quantity

d)

The point where price and demand are equal

30.

Which of following is NOT a factor that affects consumer demand as we studied it in class?

a)

consumer taste and preferences

b)

Global politics

c)

Price

d)

Consumer income

31.

Which of the following would be considered and “inferior” good?

a)

Pizza

b)

A t- bone steak

c)

Cherry pie ala mode

d)

Turkey hotdogs

32.

Advertising and promotion can cause the demand curve to shift to the right.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

A food safety scare such as an “E Coli” outbreak in beef would cause what type of immediate change on the demand change.

a)

A shift to the left

b)

An increase in price

c)

A decrease in price

d)

A shift to the right

34.

The “law of demand” states that: “as price increases, demand decreases”

a)

True

b)

False

35.

During the Covid 19 pandemic, the federal government has been pumping billions of dollars into the American economy. What immediate effect does this have on the demand curve?

a)

Shifts the demand curve right

b)

Makes consumer goods cheaper/more affordable

c)

Shifts the demand curve left

d)

makes consumer goods more expensive

36.

What does the point P represent

a)

ISO-utility

b)

Intersection of budget and iOS-utility

c)

Consumer equilibrium

d)

Market equilibrium

37.

If goods are _____ that means the goods can replace each other so a change in the price of one good will have an impact on the demand of the other good. Example: If the price of beef goes up, the demand for chicken will increase.

a)

elastic

b)

Substitutes

c)

Substitute

38.

What is an economic characteristics of elastic goods?

a)

Price has no effect on demand

b)

They are necessities

c)

They are unique

d)

They have substitutes

39.

What is an economic characteristic of an “inelastic” good?

a)

It has substitutes

b)

As your income increases you buy more

c)

As your income increases you buy less

d)

It is a necessity

40.

The producer of an inelastic good would make more profit by raising the price of the good

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Which of the following would be an “inferior” good

a)

Steak

b)

Lobster

c)

Chicken hot dogs

d)

Cabernet Sauvignon wine

e)

Rack of lamb

42.

Goods that are ____ are generally consumed together like peanut buttter and jelly

a)

Compliments

b)

Complement

43.

___ goods are goods which show an increase in demand as a consumer’s income increase

a)

Luxuary

b)

Normal

44.

(a)   goods are goods which show a decrease in demand as consumer’s income increases.

45.

A general property of demand curves is that short-run demand is more inelastic than long-run demand

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The producer of an inelastic good would make more profit by raising the price of the good

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Competitive markets work best when there are only a few sellers

a)

True

b)

False

48.

“No entry barriers” refers to the fact that anyone can start a business of that type

a)

True

b)

False

49.

An example of an “entry barrier” could be a patent or special licensing required to start a business

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which economic input class includes all services used in the production of a product with the exception of management

a)

Labor

b)

Capital

c)

Land

d)

Asset

51.

Which stage of the production function does the “law of diminishing marginal returns” start

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage IIII

52.

Which of the following would not fit the description of a “capital” input?

a)

40 acres of walnuts

b)

Almond shaker

c)

50 gallons of round up

d)

A free stall barn

53.

_______ products are those which are undifferentiated in the market place and this prevent buyer preference. In agriculture, grades an standards enforced by the USDA make this a regular occurrence

a)

Homogeneous

b)

Same

c)

Differentiated

54.

Competitive markets work best when they are only a few sellers

a)

True

b)

False

55.

“No entry barriers” refers to the fact that anyone can start a business of that type

a)

True

b)

False

56.

An example of an “entry barrier” could be a patent or special licensing required to start a business

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which economic input class includes all services used in the production of a product with the exception of management

(a)  

58.

Which stage of the production function does the "Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns" start?

a)

Stage I

b)

Stage II

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage 0

59.

Which of the following would not fit the description of a “capital” input?

a)

40 acres of walnuts

b)

Almond shaker

c)

50 gallons of round up

d)

A free stall barn

60.

products are those which are undifferentiated in the market place and this prevents buyer preference. In agriculture, grades are standards enforced by the USDA make this regular occurrence.

(a)  

61.

Define what is a production function?

4 lines
62.

“Fixed resources” are those resources that (a)   even as output increases (think of the pizza oven example in the video)

63.

Which economic input class includes both renewable and nonrenewable resources.

(a)  

64.

______ _______ refers to the condition in perfect competition where all sellers of the product have access to information about prices, production costs and historical production data.

(a)  

65.

The input class requires leadership, organization, decision-making and profit maximization

(a)  

66.

Economic profit or _____ _______ is the economic return above the firm’s cost of production.

a)

Producer surple

b)

Opportunity cost

c)

Short run profits

d)

Producer profits

67.

Which of the following markets is likely to most nearly reflect a perfectly competitive market?

a)

The wheat market

b)

The farm implement market

c)

The textile market

d)

The automobile market

68.

According to a supply and demand curve, shortages occur when prices are too

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

No answer provided

69.

The slope of a supply curve is

a)

Positive

b)

Upward

c)

Downward

d)

Negative

e)

A and b

70.

Market price (market equilibrium) is determined by the producer

a)

True

b)

False

71.

In a perfectly competitive market like agriculture producers must accept prices for products, they are called _____ ______

a)

Price takers

b)

Price makers

72.

A supply decrease will shift the supply curve to the

a)

Left

b)

Right

c)

Up

d)

Down

73.

The demand curve is determined by consumer’s decisions

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Market price (market equilibrium) is determined by the interaction of supply and demand

a)

True

b)

False

75.

A supply increase will shift the supply curve to the

a)

Left

b)

Right

76.

The intersection of the supply and demand curves represents

a)

Equilibium

b)

Market equilibrium

c)

Consumers

77.

According to a supply and demand curve, surplus occurs when prices are too

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Neither

d)

No answer

78.

In general, oligopolies compete using the practice of

a)

Collusion

b)

Price takers

c)

Non-competition

d)

Product differentiation

79.

Which of the following is the best example of an oligopoly?

a)

US Farm Machinery

b)

American corn farmers

c)

Fast food restaurants

d)

Utilities Companies

80.

Which of the Anti-Trust Laws below was the first of its kind and is still playing a role in preventing the formation of monopolies in the USA?

a)

Sherman Anti-Trust Act

b)

Packer’s and Stockyard’s Act

c)

Clayton Act

d)

Capper Volstead Act

81.

In the beef processing industry, three firms- Conagra, Excel and IBP - comprise roughly 85% of the buying side of the market. This situation characterizes a(n)

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Perfect competition

d)

Monopolistic competition

82.

A monopoly can consist of one or more businesses selling the same product

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Which of the following types of market structure is most often accused of “collusion”

a)

Oligopoly

b)

Monopoly

c)

Perfect competition

d)

Imperfect competition

84.

Which of the following would be a characteristic of an “imperfectly competitive” market?

a)

Product differentiation

b)

Few sellers

c)

Perfect market information

85.

Businesses can classed by: number of firms, product differentiation, market information and entry/exit barriers. What type of firm would be a business firm like Nutcher Milk?

a)

Imperfect competition

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Perfect competition

d)

Monopoly

86.

Which of the following is an example of an Agricultural Cooperative operating in California?

a)

Bel Koop Ag

b)

Diamond Walnut

c)

Associated Feed Mill

d)

Blue Diamond

87.

Which of the following legislative Acts exempted Agricultural Cooperatives from Anti-Trust Laws?

a)

Capper-Volstead Act

b)

Sherman Anti-Trust Act

c)

Packer’s and Stockyards Act

d)

Clayton Act

88.

Which agricultural commodities generally do not receive agricultural subsidies?

a)

Wheat

b)

Dairy products

c)

Livestock and Meat Products

d)

Corn

89.

A “bumper crop” in agriculture shifts the supple curve to the left

a)

True

b)

False

90.

A “bumper crop” for a farmer generally results in _______ (lower or higher) prices?

a)

Lower

b)

Higher

91.

The food and fiber industry is one of the most highly regulated industries in the United States

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Because most farmers pay cash for their assets, they have=be the lowest capital invested per worker for any sector of the economy

a)

True

b)

False

93.

One way to reduce agricultural surpluses is to provide food subsidies. List one example as given in your test of a “Food Subsidy” provided to needy Americans.

a)

Food Stamp Program

b)

Stamp

c)

SNAP

94.

Because farmers are typically engaged in purely competitive markets, they lack market power

a)

True

b)

False

95.

Consumers in the United States spend approximately __% of their disposable income on food and rarely experience an interruption in the supply of food products

a)

50%

b)

15%

c)

30%

d)

5%

96.

Which of the following is Not a form of “government intervention” in agriculture?

a)

Foreign Trade Enhancements

b)

Adjusting production to market demand

c)

Price and income support paymets

d)

Market price intervention

97.

In general, demand for agricultural products (food & fiber) is

a)

Elastic

b)

No answer

c)

Inelastic

d)

No answer

98.

During the “Great Recession” which was the financial crisis caused by the bankruptcy of major financial firms, the federal government utilized a nonconventional method to stimulate the economy. What is it called

a)

Quantitive Easing

b)

The New Deal

c)

Deflationary Gap Stop

d)

Expansionary Monetary Policy

99.

Which of the following is the most liquid asset

a)

Cash in savings account

b)

A vehicle

c)

A credit card bill

d)

Condo

100.

The “fiduciary monetary system” is what the US relies on to support its economy. It is the belief that a piece of paper (money) can be exchanged for goods and services.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

What time period did the “Great Recession” occur in the US?

a)

1914-16

b)

1980-85

c)

1929-32

d)

2007-09

102.

A branch location of the Federal Reserve is located in which city in California?

a)

Modesto

b)

Pablo Alto

c)

Sacramento

d)

San Fransico

103.

Contractionary monetary policies drive up interest rates and depress investment expenditures by businesses and households

a)

True

b)

False

104.

The Federal Reserve stores all of the gold used to back US dollars

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Which US President established the Federal Reserve?

a)

Theodore Roosevelt

b)

Franklin D. Roosevelt

c)

Abraham Lincoln

d)

Woodrow Wilson

106.

The Federal Reserve began operating in 1914 as the U.S. _____ ____

a)

Central bank

b)

Main bank

c)

Wells fargo

107.

Raising the “discount rate” would be an example of “expansionary” monetary policy

a)

True

b)

False