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Worksheets

Question Bank for Grade 7 Science

Total questions: 227

Worksheet time: 2hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the cell process called that produces identical cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Cellular Respiration

2.

Which results in offspring that are genetically unique and display a combination of traits from each parent?

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

Neither

d)

Both

3.

A bee flies from one apple blossom to another and transfers pollen as it goes. Which type results from pollination?

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

Neither

d)

Both

4.

Which type of reproduction results in offspring that are identical to the parent?

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

Neither

d)

Both

5.

A daffodil can reproduce through both sexual and asexual reproduction. How does it reproduce asexually?

a)

All Of These

b)

Self-Pollination

c)

Through their root systems

d)

Cross-Pollination

6.

The main goal of organisms is to produce as many offspring as possible to carry on their genetic information.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Which type of reproduction tends to be a longer process?

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

They occur at the same rate

d)

Both are slow processes

8.

Which type of reproduction tends to produce more offspring?

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

They occur at the same rate

9.

Sexual, Asexual, or Both?

a)

Sexual

b)

Asexual

c)

Both

d)

Neither

10.

What is the cell process called that produces sex cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Cellular Respiration

11.

What theory proposes that organisms with traits better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce?

a)

Acquired Characteristics

b)

Embryology

c)

Survival of the Smartest

d)

Natural Selection

12.

The fur of the snowshoe rabbit changes to a lighter color in the winter. This allows the rabbit to blend in with its surroundings. This change is an example of:

a)

Adaptation

b)

Extinction

c)

Competition

d)

Succession

13.
When every organism of a species has died.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artificial Selection
14.
Evolution typically happens...
a)
in a few weeks
b)
over millions of years
c)
never
d)
in 100 years
15.
Bird's beaks evolve mainly due to the type of ___________________ available.
a)
food
b)
water
c)
shrubs
d)
mates
16.

Match the following terms with their definitions

a)

Evolution

1.

a change in a species DNA over time because of natural selection

b)

Adaptation

2.

Any variation that makes an organism better able to survive

c)

Variation

3.

An inherited trait that makes and individual different

d)

Mutation

4.

A permanent change in the DNA

17.

Whales and dolphins both descended from a dog-like creature. What would we call the dog-like creature?

a)

Great-Grandparent species

b)

Old Species

c)

A common ancestor

d)

A common descendant

18.

In the phrase "survival of the fittest," the term "fittest" refers to:

a)

The best-adapted organisms

b)

The biggest organisms

c)

The smartest organisms

d)

The fastest organisms

19.

the process by which organisms that are best adapted to their environment are most likely to survive and reproduce.

a)

adaptation

b)

natural selection

c)

niche

d)

competition

20.

an inherited behavior or physical characteristic that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its environment.

a)

adaptation

b)

natural selection

c)

niche

d)

competition

21.

Adaptations can be:

a)

camouflage

b)

ability to survive cold weather

c)

hunting skills

d)

all of the above

22.

Differences in traits are called:

a)

natural selection

b)

genetic variations

c)

artificial selection

d)

adaptations

23.

Vocab check:

The theory that organisms have slowly changed over time...

a)

fossil record

b)

relative dating

c)

evolution

d)

adaptation

24.

The following evidence supports the theory of evolution: Check all that apply.

a)

similar body structures in organisms

b)

Similar DNA in organisms

c)

population trends

d)

ancient fossils revealing adaptations of organisms

e)

natural selection

25.
The preserved remains or physical evidence of an organism that lived in the past are called...
a)
evolutionary features
b)
fossils
c)
mutations
d)
variations
26.

The end result of mitosis is

a)

4 Identical Cells are produced

b)

4 genetically different cells are produced

c)

2 identical cells are produced

d)

2 genetically different cells are produced

27.

The end result of meiosis is...

a)

4 identical cells

b)

4 genetically different cells

c)

2 identical cells

d)

2 genetically different cells

28.

How many chromosomes do the daughter cells have in mitosis?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

2

d)

4

29.

How many chromosomes do the daughter cells have in meiosis?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

2

d)

4

30.

If an organism reproduces asexually, its offspring will most likely be...

a)

genetically identical to the parent

b)

genetically different from each other

c)

produced from specialized cells known as gametes

d)

A mutant

31.

What is the correct order for the phases of mitosis?

a)

Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase

b)

Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Metaphase

c)

Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase

d)

Prophase,

Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

32.

Timmy fell off his skateboard and scraped his knee. Which cell process is going to be used to heal the wound?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

The wound would not heal

d)

Cell diffusion

33.

Which phase does the cell grow and develop?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Metaphase

34.

How many divisions are in meiosis?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

2

d)

4

35.

Which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

36.

In which phase does crossing-over happen?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

37.

Mitosis is the same as which of the following?

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

c)

Meiosis III

d)

Crossing Over

38.

What phase is this?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase II

39.

What phase is this?

a)

Telophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

40.

What phase is this?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Anaphase II

41.

What phase is this?

a)

Metaphase II

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Anaphase I

42.

What phase is this?

a)

Metaphase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Telophase I

d)

Anaphase II

43.

What phase is this?

a)

Metaphase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Telophase I

d)

Anaphase I

44.

What phase is this?

a)

Telophase II

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Anaphase I

45.

What phase is this?

a)

Metaphase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Telophase II

d)

Anaphase I

46.

What phase is this?

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Telophase I

c)

Telophase II

d)

Anaphase I

47.

What phase is this?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Telophase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Prophase I

48.

What phase is this?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Anaphase I

49.

What phase is this?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Anaphase I

50.

What phase is this?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase II

51.

What phase is this?

a)

Telophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Telophase II

52.

What phase is this?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Prophase II

53.

What phase is this?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Prophase II

54.

How do plants in the soil affect how fast erosion happens?

a)

It doesn't affect erosion.

b)

It slows down erosion.

c)

It speeds up erosion.

55.

Which of the following is not considered a factor of erosion?

a)

rain/running water/waves

b)

gravity

c)

extreme heat

d)

wind

56.

How do agriculture, cultivation, forest harvesting, and overgrazing affect soil?

a)

They do not affect soil.

b)

They have a negative affect on soil.

c)

They have a positive affect on soil.

57.

Soil erosion occurs . . .

a)

where animals eat away all the plants

b)

on steep slopes

c)

when forests are removed

d)

all of these

58.

What is the relationship between wind erosion and plant cover?

a)

More plants means more erosion

b)

Less plant cover means less erosion

c)

There is no relationship

d)

More plants means less erosion

59.

If wind, water, or ice move sediment from one place to another, it is called...

a)

weathering.

b)

erosion.

c)

a sinkhole.

d)

continental drift

60.

A city crew cleans the storm drains as a storm is approaching. Why is this management important? Storm drains...

a)

keep ocean waves from carrying sand away from the beach.

b)

are a wall that keeps the wind from blowing soil away.

c)

allow water to quickly move underground causing less erosion.

61.

Adding harmful waste to water, air, or land is ...

a)

Pollution

b)

Smog

c)

Nonrenewable Resources

d)

Renewable Resources

62.

What is the development of land for houses and other buildings near a city called?

a)

composting

b)

urbanization

c)

ruralization

d)

mining

63.

Besides disturbing habitats, roadways increase:

a)

mining

b)

wastes

c)

agriculture

d)

runoff

64.

Which image shows an urban area?

a)
b)
c)
d)
65.

Which image shows an rural agricultural area?

a)
b)
c)
d)
66.

Which image shows an residential or suburban area?

a)
b)
c)
d)
67.

Which image shows a natural area?

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

Resources that are not able to be reproduced as quickly as they are used are called _____.

a)

renewable resources

b)

replaceable resources

c)

non renewable resources

d)

non replaceable resources

69.

Geothermal energy uses heat from ____ to produce electricity.

a)

the earth

b)

coal

c)

oil

d)

natural gas

70.

Uranium atoms are split to create a tremendous amount of energy in a _____ power plant.

a)

biomass

b)

geothermal

c)

nuclear

d)

hydroelectric

71.

What type of power plant uses the potential energy of water trapped behind a dam?

a)

nuclear power plant

b)

hydroelectric power plant

c)

solar station

d)

tidal harness

72.
Which renewable resource gets its direct energy from the sun? 
a)
Geothermal
b)
Solar
c)
Wind
d)
Hydrogen
73.

What is a disadvantage of using non-renewable resources?

a)

They have a large carbon footprint.

b)

They can all be used up over time.

c)

They can lead to global warming.

d)

All of these.

74.

Which of the following can be a disadvantage of renewable resources?

a)

They can be intermittent (only available at certain times or in certain places).

b)

They release a lot of CO2 and have a large carbon footprint.

c)

They are renewable and will always be available.

d)

Renewable resources have no disadvantages.

75.
All of the following are nonrenewable resources EXCEPT
a)
Coal
b)
animals
c)
petroleum (oil)
d)
natural gas
76.
Which of the following is a way a person could conserve natural resources?
a)
recycling waste materials like plastic, glass, paper, and aluminum
b)
limiting water use when showering, brushing teeth, and shaving
c)
using rechargeable batteries
d)
all of the above are good conservation practices
77.
Which of the following natural resources are nonrenewable?
a)
Water
b)
Animals
c)
Natural gas
d)
Wind
78.
What does conserving resources mean?
a)
Use as much of the resources as you can
b)
Only use the resources at school
c)
Protecting the resource so it does not run out
79.
Where is pollution found on the earth?
 
 
  
a)
only in the air 
b)
only on the land 
c)
only in the water 
d)
on land, in the air, and in the water 
80.
What is a renewable resource?
 
 
  
a)
 one that can be replaced quickly 
b)
one that is man-made
c)
one that comes from the sun 
d)
one that will never run out 
81.

Pollution traced to a single point

a)

water shed

b)

permeable

c)

point source pollution

d)

non-point source pollution

82.

The Portion of water that flows across the surface that does not soak into the ground and runs into water bodies

a)

what

b)

fertilizer

c)

erosion

d)

runoff

83.

Pollution that cannot be traced to a single point because comes from many sources

a)

estuary

b)

water shed

c)

non point source pollution

d)

point source pollution

84.
A barefoot student steps on a hot concrete surface. Most of the heat transferred to the student’s skin by this contact is by the process of—
a)
convection
b)
conduction
c)
vaporization
d)
radiation
85.
what is conduction?
a)
direct touch
b)
air or liquids
c)
heat waves/ light waves
d)
drinking hot coffee
86.

In what state of matter is kinetic energy the highest most likely?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

87.

Which model is demonstrating what molecules in a solid look like.

a)
b)
c)
88.

Which model is demonstrating what molecules in a liquid look like.

a)
b)
c)
89.

Which model is demonstrating what molecules in a gas look like.

a)
b)
c)
90.

If thermal energy is increasing, what is happening to the kinetic energy.

a)

Kinetic energy would be decreasing

b)

Kinetic energy would stay the same

c)

Kinetic energy would be increasing

91.

The total kinetic energy of the tiny particles that make up matter.

a)

Thermal Energy

b)

Energy Transfer

c)

Temperature

d)

Heat

92.

Movement of energy from one object to another.

a)

Heat

b)

Energy Transfer

c)

Themal Energy

d)

Temperature

93.

Energy transferred between two objects with varying temperatures, always transferring from warmest to coldest until the two objects have equal temperatures.

a)

Heat

b)

Thermal Energy

c)

Energy Transfer

d)

Temperature

94.

What type of heat transfer takes place when you touch a warm mug of hot chocolate?

a)

Radiation

b)

Convection

c)

Conduction

d)

None of the above

95.

Conduction requires

a)

Electricity

b)

the electromagnetic spectrum and particles

c)

air or water flow

d)

direct contact

96.

Heat transfer always moves ...

a)

cold to hot

b)

east to west

c)

hot to cold

d)

north to south

97.

The following diagram shows water in contact with an ice cube and warmer air.

Which way will energy flow?

a)

From the air to the water

b)

From the water to the air

c)

From the ice cube to the air

d)

From the ice cube to the water

98.
Which direction is heat flowing in the picture?
a)
from the hand to the ice
b)
from the ice to the hand
c)
heat is not being transferred
d)
there is no way to tell
99.
The earth receives heat energy from the sun by _______________, which is the transfer of energy as electromagnetic waves?
a)
radiation
b)
convection
c)
conduction
d)
greenhouse effect
100.

Where do we see conduction in a pot of boiling water on the stove?

a)

The water heats up by touching the hot, metal pot.

b)

The steam from the hot water rises out of the pot.

c)

The heat from the fire can be felt on all sides.

101.

The handle of a metal spoon warms up when it is placed in a hot bowl of soup because of ________.

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

102.

You get sunburned due to __________ from the sun.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

103.

Near the ceiling of a room the air is warmer. The warm air rises because of ________.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

104.

The heat from a lamp allows a lizard to remain warm. This is an example of which type of heat transfer?

a)

radiation

b)

conduction

c)

convection

105.

The type of heat transfer that creates currents in water is called ________.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

106.

Cell divides twice

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

107.

What is this?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

108.

2 daughter cells

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

109.

Occurs in both plants and animals

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

110.

What is this?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

111.

Begins with interphase

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Both

112.

Sam and Madeline are having another baby. Which statement is true?

a)

The baby will inherit the trait.

b)

The baby will be a carrier for the trait.

c)

The baby will not inherit or carry the trait.

d)

None of these are correct.

113.

This pedigree shows how left handedness has been passed. Can Mike and Molly have a left handed child?

a)

No, their child can't be left handed.

b)

There is not enough information to tell.

c)

Yes, they can have a left handed child.

d)

They can have a left or right handed child.

114.

Which statement about this Punnett square is NOT true?

a)

There is a 50% of offspring with green pods.

b)

The offspring have a 50% chance of inheriting a dominant gene.

c)

The parents are heterozygous.

d)

Each parent carries at least one recessive gene.

115.

Which statement about this Punnett square is true?

a)

All of the offspring will have brown eyes.

b)

1 parent has brown eyes and the other has blue.

c)

Both parents have blue eyes.

d)

They have a 25% chance of offspring with brown eyes.

116.

Which statement about this Punnett square is NOT true?

a)

1 parent is heterozygous, the other is homozygous.

b)

The offspring have a 50% chance of being homozygous.

c)

The offspring have a 50% chance of having blue eyes.

d)

50% of the offspring be homozygous for brown eyes.

117.

How many offspring did Walter and Suzanne have?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

7

d)

5

118.

Which statement about this Punnett square is true?

a)

Both parents have yellow pods.

b)

All of the offspring will inherit at least 1 yellow pod gene.

c)

The parents are both heterozygous.

d)

Yellow pods is a dominant trait.

119.

How many female carriers are in this pedigree?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

3

d)

4

120.

If 1 parent has curly hair (CC) and 1 has straight hair (cc), what type of genotype will their offspring inherit?

a)

CC

b)

cc

c)

Cc

d)

There is not enough information to tell.

121.

If 1 parent has curly hair (CC) and 1 has straight hair (cc), what type of offspring will they have?

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Homozygous

c)

Whatsazygous

d)

Whosazygous

122.

How many children did Noah and Mary have?

a)

3; 2 girls and 1 boy.

b)

3; 2 boys and 1 girl

c)

4; 3 girls and 1 boy

d)

4; 2 girls and 2 boys

123.

Which of the following shows how a trait is passed through multiple generations of a family?

a)

Family Square

b)

Genetic Chart

c)

Punnett Square

d)

Pedigree Chart

124.

What is a tool used to predict which genes an offspring can inherit?

a)

Punnett Square

b)

Pedigree Chart

c)

Genetic Chart

d)

Family Square

125.

What does each box in a Punnett square represent?

a)

A 100% chance of possible genes from the parents.

b)

A 50% chance of possible genes from the parents.

c)

A 25% chance of possible genes from the parents.

d)

A 75% chance of possible genes from the parents.

126.

Can 2 right handed people have a left handed baby?

a)

No, they will always pass on a dominant gene to be right handed.

b)

Yes, if they both pass on a recessive left handed gene.

c)

Yes, handedness is always 50% right, 50% left.

d)

Yes, if at least 1 parent passes on a left handed gene.

127.

Gregor Mendel bred pea plants with green pods (GG) with plants that had yellow pods (gg). What is true about the offspring of these plants?

a)

They would all have yellow pods.

b)

They would all have green pods.

c)

They would all be homozygous.

d)

50% would have yellow pods and 50% would have green.

128.

What does a fully colored in circle or square on a pedigree represent?

a)

Someone who carries a gene for the trait.

b)

Someone who has the trait.

c)

Someone who has no genes for the trait.

d)

Someone who has reproduced.

129.

What does a half shaded in circle or square represent on a pedigree?

a)

Someone who carries a gene for the trait.

b)

Someone who has the trait.

c)

Someone who has no genes for the trait.

d)

Someone who has died.

130.

What do the circles and squares represent on a pedigree chart?

a)

Squares have the trait, circles are carriers.

b)

Squares are females, circles are males.

c)

Circles are females, squares are males.

d)

Circles have the trait, squares are carriers.

131.

Which statement about this Punnett square is NOT true?

a)

The parents genotypes are both Bb.

b)

Purple is the dominant flower color.

c)

They could have offspring with purple or white flowers.

d)

The offspring have a 50% chance for purple flowers.

132.

Which of the following are not a part of the Electromagnetic Spectrum?

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

Radio waves

c)

Magnetic waves

d)

x-rays

133.

Gamma Rays are

a)

High energy

b)

Low energy

c)

Medium energy

d)

Not Dangerous

134.

Diagram shows a phenomenon occurs when the spotlight is directed onto a mirror surface. What is the principle of light shown in the situation?

a)

Light travels in a straight line

b)

Refraction of light

c)

Reflection of light

d)

Light travels in parallel

135.
How does light move?
a)
zig-zag
b)
up and down
c)
scattered
d)
straight line
136.
Which pairs of colors of pigment combine to make black?
a)
green and magenta
b)
red and cyan
c)
yellow and blue
d)
All of the above
137.

A student placed a pencil in a cup of water. The pencil appears broken because light

a)

always travels in a straight line.

b)

bends when it passes through water.

c)

makes the water in the glass evaporate.

d)

reflects the pencil on the water's surface.

138.
Swimming pools and the ocean look shallower than they really are due to:
a)
reflection 
b)
dispersion
c)
refraction
d)
total internal reflection
139.
Which wave has the largest wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
None (same wavelength)
140.
Which wave has the largest frequency?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
None (same frequency)
141.

Which particle is a wave of light?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

photon

142.

Radio waves and _______ are used in communication

a)

Microwaves

b)

Gamma rays

c)

Visible light

d)

Ultraviolet

143.
This color in the visible part of the spectrum has the lowest energy. 
a)
Blue
b)
Green
c)
Red
d)
Violet
144.
This color in the visible part of the spectrum has the highest energy.
a)
Blue
b)
Red
c)
Violet
d)
Yellow
145.

Utilized in treating cancer, the radiotherapy

a)

gamma ray

b)

x-ray

c)

visible light

d)

microwave

146.

the height or depth of a wave that determines how much ENERGY the wave carries. In a sound wave, it is also synonymous with how much volume the wave carries.

a)

wavelength

b)

compression

c)

amplitude

147.

The wave of energy we can see is ___________

a)

visible light

b)

radio waves

c)

microwaves

d)

x-rays

148.

What is radiant energy?

a)

energy from the earth

b)

energy from heat

c)

energy given off by the sun

d)

energy from ocean waves

149.

The definition of the word refract is __________

a)

to make warm

b)

to go through

c)

to bend

d)

to create energy

150.

The highest point of a wave is known as the ___________

a)

wavelength

b)

trough

c)

amplitude

d)

crest

151.
Can travel through matter (gas, liquid, solid) and empty space. 
a)
sound
b)
light
152.

The area inside the city is called ______.

a)

urban

b)

suburban

c)

rural

153.

Urban sprawl

a)

is when cities spread out using up surrounding land.

b)

puts a strain on existing infrastructures.

c)

creates an increase in pollution.

d)

all of these.

154.

A poorly planned development that spreads a city’s population over a wider and wider geographic area is

a)

industrialization

b)

urban sprawl

c)

urbanization

d)

metropolitan area

155.

Urban land use does not typically include...

a)

farming

b)

residential

c)

industrial

d)

commercial

156.

Which activities are found in a rural settlement?

a)

Mining, fishing, farming and industry.

b)

Livestock, construction, fishing and farming.

c)

Farming, agriculture, tourism and industry.

d)

Livestock, farming, fishing and mining.

157.

Find the picture that shows an urban community.

a)
b)
c)
158.

Find the picture that shows a suburban community.

a)
b)
c)
159.

Find the picture that shows a rural community.

a)
b)
c)
160.

The natural environment exploited by humans leads to.............

a)

Change in habitat

b)

Change in ecosystem

c)

Environmental degradation

d)

Changes in environment

161.

.................. is the decline in the productive capacity of land for some time or permanently.

a)

Land Reclamation

b)

Land Degradation

c)

Land Use

d)

Land Profile

162.

Desertification refers to

a)

increasing forest cover

b)

increase in water table

c)

increase in agricultural land

d)

increase in dry areas of land

163.

This image is an example of what type of land degradation

a)

Desertification

b)

Deforestation

c)

Urban Sprawl

d)

Urbanization

164.
Where is pollution found on the earth?
 
 
  
a)
only in the air 
b)
only on the land 
c)
only in the water 
d)
on land, in the air, and in the water 
165.

What is an effect of land pollution?

a)

no clean drinking water

b)

loss of habitat for animals

c)

diseases from breathing in poor quality air

166.

What is the largest cause of land pollution?

a)

Animal waste

b)

Plants decomposing

c)

Human actions

167.

Which of the following are causes of land pollution?

a)

Mining

b)

Increase in greenhouse gases

c)

Pesticides

d)

Landfills

e)

Human sewage

168.
What are the effects of deforestation ?
a)
loss of habitat
b)
increased green house gasses 
c)
soil erosion and flooding
d)
all of the above
169.
Does deforestation contribute to global warming?
a)
No, trees aren't that important
b)
Sometimes because only the cutting down of Maple trees contributes to global warming
c)
No, deforestation adds methane to the atmosphere, which makes the Earth cooler
d)
Yes; less trees means less CO2 is turned into oxygen.
170.

What is land pollution

a)

A known substance in the air that can cause harm to humans and the environment.

b)

Destruction of the Earth’s surface caused by human activities and the misuse of natural resources.

c)

The application of science and engineering knowledge and concepts to care for and/or restore our natural environment and/or solve environmental problems.

d)

Destruction of the Earth’s surface caused by renewable energy

171.
To reduce pollution in the environment, people should ______________ materials.
a)
recycle
b)
pollute
c)
throw away
d)
clean
172.

What does a wave carry from place to place?

a)

energy

b)

matter

c)

people

173.

The highest point on a transverse wave is the

a)

compression

b)

crest

c)

rest position

d)

trough

174.

The lowest point on a transverse wave is the

a)

compression

b)

crest

c)

rest position

d)

trough

175.

The number of waves that pass somewhere in a second is:

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

wavelength

176.

A wave that can travel through matter and empty space is a:

a)

electromagnetic wave

b)

longitudinal wavy

c)

transverse wave

177.

What kind of wave is this?

a)

electromagnetic

b)

longitudinal

c)

transverse

178.

Waves that require a material to travel though are called

a)

electromagnetic waves

b)

mechanical waves

c)

ocean waves

d)

transverse waves

e)

I do not know and do not wish to answer.

179.

This picture is an example of which type of wave?

a)

transverse wave

b)

compression wave

c)

ocean wave

180.

#1 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

181.

#2 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

182.

#3 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

183.

#4 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

184.
What is a repeating pattern that can transfer energy?
a)
Motif
b)
Prism
c)
Radio
d)
Wave
185.
What is the distance from the peak of one wave to the next peak?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Frequency
c)
Period
d)
Wavelength
186.
What is the height of a wave from its resting point?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Frequency
c)
Period
d)
Wavelength
187.
What is the number of waves that pass a point in one second?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Frequency
c)
Period
d)
Wavelength
188.
These waves make water molecules vibrate and warm up.
a)
Gamma
b)
Microwaves
c)
Radio
d)
Ultraviolet
189.
These high-energy waves are given off by radioactive materials.
a)
Gamma
b)
Microwaves
c)
Radio
d)
Ultraviolet
190.
These waves are used to send signals, including WiFi and text messages.
a)
Gamma
b)
Microwaves
c)
Radio
d)
Ultraviolet
191.
These waves from the sun cause sunburn.
a)
Gamma
b)
Microwaves
c)
Radio
d)
Ultraviolet
192.
Increasing the amplitude of a wave, _________ the wave's energy.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
does not change
193.
The energy of waves _______ as the wavelength gets shorter.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
194.

Urbanization is

a)

the process by which human activity and natural process damage land to the point that it can no longer support the local ecosystem.

b)

replacing forests, fields, and grasslands with houses, roads, schools and shopping area.

c)

the growth of urban areas caused by people moving into cities

d)

The process by which wind, water, ice, or gravity transports soil and sediment from one location to another

195.

When human activity and natural process damage land to the point it can no longer support the local ecosystem.

a)

Urbanization

b)

Erosion

c)

Land Degradation

d)

Deforestation

196.

When wind, water, ice, or gravity transports soil and sediment from one area to another it is called

a)

Erosion

b)

Desertification

c)

Deforestation

d)

Urbanization

197.

This image is an example of what type of land use

a)

Residential

b)

Commercial

c)

Agricultural

d)

Recreational

198.

Land that is kept untouched but is used for hiking and other leisure activities

a)

Transport land

b)

Agricultural Land

c)

Residential Land

d)

Recreational Land

199.

This image is an example of what type of land degradation

a)

Desertification

b)

Deforestation

c)

Urbanization

d)

Urban Sprawl

200.

Land used for business and/or use of natural resources is called

a)

Residential Land

b)

Transport Land

c)

Commercial Land

d)

Agricultural Land

201.

Land use for building homes and small communities

a)

Recreational Land

b)

Residential Land

c)

Transport Land

d)

Commercial Land

202.

Urban Sprawl is

a)

large network of roads and train tracks that connect urban and rural areas across the country

b)

process by which land becomes more desert-like and unable to support life

c)

replacing forests, fields, and grasslands with houses, roads, schools and shopping area.

d)

the process by which human activity and natural process damage land to the point that it can no longer support the local ecosystem.

203.

Land use for roads and train tracks is called

a)

Transport land

b)

Industrial Land

c)

Residential Land

d)

Agricultural Land

204.

True or false: Rural areas have a dense population and many buildings.

a)

True

b)

False

205.

Several factors can lead to land degradation. Which of these activities is least likely to contribute to land degradation?

a)

Urbanization

b)

Deforestation

c)

Poor farming methods

d)

Using an irrigation system on crops

206.

Soil erosion can increase when humans remove trees and other vegetation from an area. What is this process called?

a)

Decomposition

b)

Conservation

c)

Deforestation

d)

Urbanization

207.

Choose the following that describes why land is important to humans . (Choose all that apply)

a)

Fossil Fuels for energy

b)

Nutrients for plants to grow

c)

Buildings

d)

Minerals for Construction

208.
Who was the naturalist that traveled the world to study plants and animals?
a)
Albert Einstein
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Charles Barkley
d)
Isaac Newton
209.
The gradual change in species over time is...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
210.
Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________
a)
increase in number
b)
become extinct
211.
To adjust to a changing environment
a)
Mutation
b)
Adapt
212.
Another word for adapt is ____________.
a)
change
b)
create
213.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
214.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
215.
The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________
a)
Species
b)
Environmental Change
c)
Adaptation
d)
Variation
216.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
217.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
218.
The struggle for existence against other members of an organisms species is
a)
Competition
b)
Natural Selection
c)
gene flow
d)
genetic drift
219.
Remains of ancient organisms are called
a)
Extinctions
b)
Fossils
c)
Mutations
d)
Variations
220.
A well-tested concept that explains a wide range of observations is called a(an):
a)
hypothesis
b)
experiment
c)
cause and effect
d)
scientific theory
221.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
222.
What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial
c)
variation
d)
adaptation
223.
What is an organism that has similar characteristics and can reproduce?
a)
species
b)
organism
c)
embryology
d)
vestigial 
224.
What is this an example of?
a)
diversity of species
b)
variation
c)
vestigial structures
d)
DNA studies
225.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light 
b)
dark
226.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
227.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection