wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AP Gov mega awesome review Units 1-5

Total questions: 500

Worksheet time: 13hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes how federal judges are selected?

a)

A direct election by the people

b)

By scoring highly on the Civil Service test (earning it via merit)

c)

They are selected by other federal judges

d)

They are appointed by the President

2.

Which of the following best explains why the Supreme Court should be politically insulated?

a)

To allow them to have an easy job

b)

To ensure their safety

c)

To allow them to interpret the Constitution without concern of the public's opinion

d)

To make them eligible for re-election

3.

In most scenarios, federal district courts have which two types of jurisdiction?

a)

Original and appellate

b)

Mandatory and discretionary

c)

Original and mandatory

d)

Discretionary and appellate

4.

In most scenarios, the Supreme Court has which two types of jurisdiction?

a)

Original and appellate

b)

Mandatory and discretionary

c)

Original and mandatory

d)

Discretionary and appellate

5.

Which of the following court cases allowed for the Supreme Court to rule things unconstitutional?

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

US v. Lopez

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

6.

Which of the following court cases established the supremacy of the federal government over the states?

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

US v. Lopez

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

7.

Which of the following court cases established the federal government needs constitutional justification to make laws and protects the rights of states?

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

US v. Lopez

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

8.

Which of the following scenarios would likely lead to the most vetoes in a Presidential term?

a)

A Republican President, Democratic majority Senate, and Democratic majority House

b)

A Republican President, Senate, and House of Representatives

c)

A Democratic President, Democratic majority House, and Republican majority Senate

9.

Which of the following is a tool the minority party in the Senate can use to delay bills?

a)

Filibuster

b)

Cloture

c)

Remand

d)

None of the above

10.

Of the options provided, which form of government gave the most power to the state governments?

a)

The Articles of Confederation

b)

The US Constitution

c)

The Declaration of Independence

d)

Magna Carta

11.

Of the following options, which group wanted to give more power to the federal government?

a)

Federalists

b)

Anti-Federalists

12.

Which best describes the distribution of power advocated for by the Anti-Federalists?

a)

More power to the federal government than under the Articles of Confederation, but less than what the Federalists hoped for

b)

All power given to the state governments

c)

All power given to the federal government

d)

More power than the Federalists hoped for at the federal government, but not completely unitary government

13.

Are federal judges elected?

a)

No

b)

Yes

14.

Who determines the size of the Supreme Court?

a)

Congress

b)

The President

c)

The Constitution

d)

The people

15.

Does the Supreme Court have any authority to enforce its rulings?

a)

No

b)

Yes

16.

Why does Alexander Hamilton consider the judicial branch to be the weakest branch in Federalist 78?

a)

Because it has no ability to enforce its decisions

b)

Because they aren't elected

c)

Because there are too many judges

d)

None of the above

17.

Which of the following list (in order) what is outlined in Articles I-III of the Constitution?

a)

Legislative, executive, and judicial branches

b)

Legislative, judicial, and executive branches

c)

Judicial, executive, and legislative branches

d)

Executive, judicial, and legislative branches

18.

Which branch is intended to be least responsive to the public?

a)

Legislative

b)

Executive

c)

Judicial

19.

Which of the following is true of the Supreme Court?

a)

It has discretionary jurisdiction, meaning it can choose which cases it reviews

b)

It has appellate jurisdiction, meaning it can choose which cases it reviews

c)

It has mandatory jurisdiction, meaning it has to hear any case that appeals to it

20.

A judicial ______ would interpret the Constitution based on their own views more often that previously determined cases.

a)

Activist

b)

Restraintist

c)

Original intentist

21.

The most likely outcome when a case is appealed to the Supreme Court is

a)

that the appeal is not accepted

b)

that the appeal is accepted and the original ruling is upheld

c)

that the appeal is accepted and the original ruling is overturned

d)

All of the scenarios provided are equally likely

22.

Can the President fire a federal judge once they are selected?

a)

Yes

b)

No

23.

Which of the following CANNOT be overturned by the Supreme Court?

a)

A new piece of legislation

b)

An executive order

c)

A treaty with a foreign nation

d)

A Constitutional amendment

24.

Can a President veto parts of a bill?

a)

No, the entire bill has to be vetoed

b)

Yes

25.

What is the purpose of the War Powers Resolution?

a)

To re-establish the checks on the executive branch to create war

b)

To ensure the legislative branch's approval is needed to carry out a war

c)

To keep Presidential power in check

d)

All of the above

26.

Executive agreements and executive orders are used now more than ever. This is an indication that

a)

Presidents try to avoid checks on their power whenever possible

b)

Presidents are corrupt

c)

The legislative branch refuses to help the President more often than in previous administrations

d)

None of the above

27.

In which policy field does Congress give the President the most decision-making power?

a)

Domestic policy

b)

Foreign policy

c)

Military policy

d)

Social issues

28.

whether court decisions are translated into actual policy that will affect the behaviors of the people

a)

statuatory construction

b)

judicial activism

c)

judicial implementation

d)

supreme court

29.

A veto of a bill brought about by the president's failure to sign it within ten days of the adjournment of Congress.

a)

Filibuster

b)

Gridlock

c)

Pocket Veto

d)

Rider

30.

In Federalist #70, Hamilton argued for the importance of ______.

a)

a strong singular executive

b)

a strong plural executive

c)

a weak singular executive

d)

a weak plural executive

31.

Federalist #70 talks repeatedly about the importance of ______ in the executive branch.

a)

energy

b)

juice

c)

substance

d)

caution

32.

What are the requirements for Congress to be able to override a Presidential veto?

a)

Majority vote of both houses

b)

2/3 vote of either the House or Senate

c)

2/3 vote of both houses

d)

3/4 vote of both houses

33.

Which of the following best describes the differences in the House and Senate?

a)

The House is much more formal and structured

b)

The Senate is much more formal and structured

34.

Which house of Congress allows for unlimited debate?

a)

Senate

b)

House of Representatives

35.

Which term is used to describe a government where a majority of Congressional representation is the opposite party of the President?

a)

Divided government

b)

Unitary government

c)

Confederal government

d)

Federal government

36.

Which house of Congress is intended to be more reflective of the views of the public?

a)

Senate

b)

House of Representatives

37.

Who is responsible for redrawing the district lines every ten years?

a)

Congress

b)

An independent subcommittee

c)

Eldridge Gerry

d)

State legislatures

38.

Which of the following is the term used to describe redrawing district lines with the intention of giving an advantage or disadvantage to a specific group in a future election?

a)

Gerrymandering

b)

Merrygandering

c)

Redistricting

d)

Reapportionment

39.

What is "the electorate"?

a)

All of the possible voters in a society

b)

All citizens in a society

c)

All active voters in a society

d)

All non-voters in a society

40.

Brutus #1 represents the ideas of _______.

a)

Federalists

b)

Anti-Federalists

41.

Brutus #I argues that the proposed Constitution will have a diminishing effect on __________.

a)

the States

b)

foreign policy

c)

the federal judiciary

d)

national tax policy

42.

Brutus #I argues that eventually the new government proposed by the new Constitution would devolve into _________.

a)

direct democracy

b)

tyranny

c)

chaos

43.

Who can carry out concurrent powers?

a)

Federal government

b)

State governments

c)

Both federal and state governments

d)

No one

44.

How did James Madison view the existence of “faction” in America?

a)

He feared faction and felt that there was no way to control it.

b)

He liked faction and wanted the strongest faction to dominate

c)

He refused to acknowledge that any factions existed in the new nation.

d)

He feared faction but thought its effects could be managed by the existence of many competing factions.

45.

To James Madison, the size of the American nation should be

a)

small, to allow lots of individual attention.

b)

medium, because he believed in Aristotle’s “moderation in all things.”

c)

large, so that many diverse groups could exist.

d)

spherical, in order for the president to be in the center.

46.

James Madison’s Federalist Paper #10 articulated the belief that the Constitution would:

a)

lead to a tyranny of the majority

b)

control the effects of factions

c)

promote the growth of political parties

d)

allow the states to maintain their preeminence

47.

One of the major issues debated at the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia was -

a)

proposing a new strategy to proceed with the abolition of slavery

b)

creating a plan for representation of both large and small states

c)

whether or not to remain neutral in the French Revolution

d)

if Missouri should be allowed to join the country as a free state

48.

Northern and Southern delegates vehemently argued on how slaves should be counted as population for representation purposes, the result of this debate was the -

a)

Three-fifths compromise

b)

Great Compromise

c)

Virginia and Kentucky Resolutions

d)

Missouri Compromise

49.

Which of these requires a 3/4ths vote in state legistlatures?

a)

Ratifying a constitutional amendment

b)

Ratifying a treaty

c)

Cloture

d)

Removing a president from office

50.
Which Court case helped strengthen the Necessary and Proper Clause and the Supremacy Clause?
a)
Marbury v. Madison (1803)
b)
McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)
c)
Gibbons v. Ogden (1824)
d)
U.S. v. Lopez (1995)
51.
Which Court case limited the extent that the federal government can apply the Commerce Clause?
a)
Marbury v. Madison (1803)
b)
McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)
c)
Gibbons v. Ogden (1824)
d)
U.S. v. Lopez (1995)
52.
Federal funds given to the states are referred to as what?
a)
Mandates
b)
Grants-in-aid
c)
Preemptions
d)
Conditions of aid
53.
Which of these federal grants are very specific as to requirements of the states?
a)
Categorical grants
b)
Block grants
c)
Preemption grants
d)
Mandatory grants
54.
Which of these federal grants are very general with regards to requirements of the states?
a)
Categorical grants
b)
Block grants
c)
Preemption grants
d)
Mandatory grants
55.
What type of federalism is referred to as "layer cake" federalism?
a)
New Federalism
b)
Fiscal Federalism
c)
Dual Federalism
d)
Cooperative Federalism
56.
What type of federalism if referred to as "marble cake" federalism?
a)
New Federalism
b)
Fiscal Federalism
c)
Dual Federalism
d)
Cooperative Federalism
57.
What type of federalism refers to the pattern of spending, taxing, and providing grants in the federal system?
a)
New Federalism
b)
Fiscal Federalism
c)
Dual Federalism
d)
Cooperative Federalism
58.
The transfer of powers and responsibilities from the federal government to the states is known as what?
a)
Preemption
b)
Devolution
c)
Judicial Review
d)
Limited Government
59.
Which group believed in having a strong national government around the time of the Constitution?
a)
Federalists
b)
Anti-Federalists
c)
Democrats
d)
Republicans
60.
Which group believed in a limited national government with rights guaranteed to citizens around the time of the Constitution?
a)
Federalists
b)
Anti-Federalists
c)
Democrats
d)
Republicans
61.
Which Federalist Paper discusses factions as being inevitable but controllable in a large republic such as the United States?
a)
Federalist #10
b)
Federalist #51
c)
Federalist #78
d)
Federalist #85
62.
Which Federalist Paper argues for the necessity of a separation of powers?
a)
Federalist #10
b)
Federalist #51
c)
Federalist #78
d)
Federalist #85
63.
Why can no branch of government become too strong or powerful?
a)
Not enough laws are there to control power.
b)
separation of powers checks the other branches
c)
the president of the U.S. has all the control
d)
no one branch wants to be powerful
64.
Under the Articles of Confederation, most of the power was where?
a)
Legislative branch
b)
the president
c)
the states
d)
national government
65.
Under the Articles of Confederation, how many votes did each state get when voting on a new law?
a)
Zero
b)
One
c)
Two 
d)
Three
66.
The New Jersey Plan was supported by _____ states and the Virginia Plan was supported by _____ states
a)
northern; southern
b)
large; small
c)
southern; northern
d)
small; large
67.
Bicameral means there are ___ branches or houses
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
68.
Which of the following documents represents the first adopted Constitution for the United States?
a)
Bill of Rights
b)
Articles of Confederation
c)
Virginia Plan
d)
U.S. Constitution
69.
In a federal system of government, political power is primarily
a)
vested in local governments
b)
vested in the regional governments
c)
divided between the central government and regional governments
d)
divided between regional governments and local governments
70.
Which principle states that the government is subject to the will of the people (the people decide)?
a)
limited government
b)
checks and balances
c)
popular sovereignty
d)
federalism
71.
How does the Constitution get amended?
a)
A majority of Congress followed by signature of the President
b)
A 2/3rds majority of Congress followed by signature of the President
c)
A 2/3rds majority of Congress followed by ratification from 3/4s of the states
d)
A 3/4ths majority of Congress followed by ratification from 2/3rds of the states
72.
In the Federalist papers, James Madison expressed the view that political factions
a)
are undesirable but inevitable in a free nation
b)
should play a minor role in any free nation
c)
are central to the creation of a free nation
d)
are necessary to control the masses in a free nation
73.
Of the following, the most significant difference between the Constitution of 1787 and the Articles of Confederation was that the Constitution
a)
made states sovereign over the national government, while the Articles were based on national sovereignty.
b)
was difficult to amend, while the Articles included an easier process requiring approval by a simple majority of states.
c)
created a dominant national executive, while the Articles established a dominant national legislature.
d)
provided for a strong national government with many powers, while the Articles created a weak central government with few independent powers.
74.
The Connecticut Compromise drafted at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 is significant for which of the following reasons?
a)
It established the presidential system and gave the United States Supreme Court power to serve as the ultimate arbiter of constitutional disputes.
b)
It provided equality of representation among the states in both the House of Representatives and the Senate.
c)
It proposed a Senate with equal representation for each state and a House of Representatives with membership established according to the population of each state.
d)
It denied Congress the power to establish tariffs on exported merchandise.
75.
According to James Madison, which of the following best controls the effects of factions?
a)
Direct democracy
b)
Popular election of state judges
c)
A large republic
d)
Property requirements for eligibility to work
76.
Under the Articles of Confederation, which of the following were true?

I. Congress could not tax the states directly.
II. The executive branch of government exercised more power than Congress.
III. Congress was a unicameral body.

IV. States were represented in Congress proportionally according to population.
a)
I and II
b)
I and III
c)
II and III
d)
II and IV
77.
The Connecticut Compromise resolved the controversy at the Constitutional Convention involving
a)
the method of choosing the President.
b)
the regulation of interstate and foreign trade.
c)
representation in Congress.
d)
the protection of the institution of slavery.
78.
The issue of enslaved people for the purpose of representation was the main issue of -
a)
Great Compromise
b)
One-Third Compromise
c)
Three-Fifths Compromise
d)
Slave Compromise
79.

To choose the president through an indirect vote we use the

a)

Commerce compromise

b)

Great Compromise

c)

Three-fifths Compromise

d)

Electoral College

80.
Who names new Supreme Court Justices?
a)
The President
b)
The Electoral College
c)
Congress
81.
As originally written, who could citizens directly vote for according to the constitution? 
a)
Members of the House only
b)
Senators only
c)
both senators and members of the house
d)
Members of the house and the president
82.
When Thomas Jefferson copied John Locke's ideas about the social contract, what did he say the people had the right to do to a government who was not protecting the people's rights?
a)
Write a letter
b)
Suggest how it could be better
c)
Wait until they started to respect the people's rights
d)
Abolish it
83.

The ____________ clause gives federal law ultimate authority when there is a conflict between states and the national government.

a)

elastic

b)

supremacy

c)

necessary and proper

d)

full faith and credit

84.
What allows for the Constitution to be a flexible document?
a)
The amendment process
b)
The enumerated powers
c)
The delegated powers
d)
The impeachment process
85.
Gives Congress the power to regulate commerce among the states, with foreign nations, and among Indian tribes.
a)
Supremacy Clause
b)
Full Faith and Credit Clause
c)
Privileges and Immunities Clause
d)
Commerce Clause
86.
Which political set up most approximates the U.S. system of government?
a)
A representative republic
b)
Direct democracy
c)
Socialist democracy
d)
A parliamentary republic
87.
States honoring each other's laws and records refers to which constitutional clause?
a)
Commerce Clause
b)
Supremacy Clause
c)
Privileges and Immunities Clause
d)
Full Faith and Credit Clause
88.
States not discriminating against residents from other states refers to which constitutional clause?
a)
Commerce Clause
b)
Supremacy Clause
c)
Privileges and Immunities Clause
d)
Full Faith and Credit Clause
89.

All of the following were weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT:

a)

Nine of the thirteen states had to approve all laws.

b)

A national court system ruled on the constitutionality of laws.

c)

Congress worked in committees without a chief executive.

d)

Congress could raise money by borrowing or by asking states for money.

90.

Which of the following was adopted to resolve the issue of representation in the House and Senate?

a)

Three-Fifths Compromise

b)

Virginia Plan

c)

New Jersey Plan

d)

Great Compromise

91.

Which of the following accurately characterizes the main difference between elite theories and pluralist theories of politics in the United States?

a)

Elite theories argue that a single minority dominates in all policy areas; pluralist theories argue that many minorities compete in different policy areas.

b)

Elite theories argue that social status is the major source of political power; pluralist theories argue that wealth is the major source.

c)

Elite theories view government as efficient; pluralist theories view it as slow and wasteful.

d)

Elite theories concentrate on the role of interest groups; pluralist theories emphasize the role of individuals.

92.

Which of the following is the best example of a categorical grant?

a)

Money given to states for special education programs

b)

Money given to individuals in the form of tax rebates

c)

Money given to states unconditionally

d)

Money given to states to spend at their discretion on transportation

93.

The debates between Federalists and Anti-Federalists were primarily about which of the following issues?

a)

The right of the people to rebel

b)

The existence of slavery

c)

The scope of power of the central government

d)

The need to establish a standard currency

94.

In a federal system of government, political power is primarily

a)

vested in the regional governments

b)

vested in the central government

c)

divided between regional governments and local governments

d)

divided between the central government and regional governments

95.

The Americans with Disabilities Act, which provides protections for the disabled, is an example of

a)

a federal mandate

b)

horizontal federalism

c)

dual federalism

d)

state supremacy

96.

The “Bill of Rights” is found in

a)

The Declaration of Independence.

b)

The Third Article of the Constitution

c)

Amendments to the Constitution

d)

Bills passed by Congress

97.

Which of the following statements best describes government under the Article of Confederation?

a)

The Confederation government established guidelines for setting new territories and admitting new states.

b)

The Confederation government was hampered in its ability to levy taxes.

c)

The Articles of Confederation had been written so that real power remained with the states.

d)

States could not make treaties without Congress’s approval.

98.

Giving state governments greater discretion in deciding how to achieve the specific goals of welfare reform is an example of

a)

an unfunded mandate

b)

implied powers

c)

dual federalism

d)

devolution

99.

Cooperative federalism can best be described by which of the following statements?

a)

Government must have cooperation from the people in order to make legislative decisions.

b)

Different levels of government are involved in common policy areas.

c)

The federal government must make regulations that can be applied across every state in the same way.

d)

Business and government can work together to more effectively accomplish shared goals.

100.

The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to

a)

prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government

b)

reserve powers to the states

c)

restrict the application of judicial review

d)

allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest

101.

Which of the following constitutional principles most directly addresses the relationship between the national and state governments?

a)

The Bill of Rights

b)

Separation of powers

c)

Representation

d)

Federalism

102.

Of the following, which has been used most to expand the power of the national government?

a)

The First Amendment

b)

The Fifth Amendment

c)

The habeas corpus clause of the Constitution

d)

The commerce clause of the Constitution

103.

The outcome of a conflict between the Constitution and the states is determined by

a)

the Great Compromise

b)

the supremacy clause

c)

Federalist #10

d)

judicial review

104.

Which of the following was stipulated in Article III of the Constitution?

a)

creation of the Supreme Court

b)

executive powers

c)

powers of Congress

d)

full faith and credit clause

105.

Which of the following would least likely be favored by state governments?

a)

unfunded mandates

b)

categorical grants

c)

block grants

d)

revenue sharing

106.

Which of the following statements is correct about the differences between the Federalists and Anti-Federalists?

a)

Neither group was willing to dissolve the union over the questions of counting slaves for purposes of representation.

b)

The Federalists believed a Bill of Rights was essential whereas the Anti-Federalists did not.

c)

The Federalists believed in national sovereignty whereas the Anti-Federalists believed in strong state governments.

d)

he Federalists did not believe in the need for a presidential cabinet whereas the Anti-Federalists did.

107.

Which of the following is an example of checks and balances, as established by the Constitution?

a)

A requirement that states lower their legal drinking age to eighteen so they can receive federal highway grants

b)

Media criticism of public officials during an election campaign period

c)

The requirement that presidential appointments to the Supreme Court be approved by the Senate

d)

The election of the President by the Electoral College rather than by direct election

108.

The importance of Shays' Rebellion to the development of the United States Constitution was that it

a)

revealed the necessity of adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution

b)

demonstrated the intensity of anti-ratification sentiment within the thirteen states

c)

convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan

d)

indicated that a strong national government was needed to protect property and maintain order

109.

States and localities have the most discretion in establishing policy when federal funding is derived from

a)

categorical grants

b)

matching grants

c)

block grants

d)

project grants

110.

The Constitution grants Congress the power to establish post offices and post roads. This is an example of

a)

enumerated powers

b)

implied powers

c)

reserved powers

d)

concurrent powers

111.

“Dual Federalism” refers to the fact that

a)

the Constitution provides two layers of government in the nation—the national and the state

b)

There are two major forms of aid from the national government to the states—categorical and block grants

c)

both the national and state governments can levy taxes on citizens

d)

there is a distinct line between policies surrounding public education and private education in the states.

112.

Both the national and states’ governments can establish court systems. This is an example of

a)

reserved powers

b)

a mandate

c)

concurrent powers

d)

full faith and credit clause

113.

During the period just before adoption of the Constitution, an outbreak of violence known as _______________ may have made national leaders more receptive to political change.

a)

The Battle of Gettysburg

b)

The Battle of Concord and Lexington.

c)

The Revolutionary War.

d)

Shays’ Rebellion.

114.

“In every free government, the people must give their assent to the laws by which they are governed. This is the true criterion between a free government and an arbitrary one. The former are ruled by the will of the whole, expressed in any manner they may agree upon; the latter by the will of one, or a few. If the people are to give their assent to the laws, by persons chosen and appointed by them, the manner of the choice and the number chosen, must be such, as to possess, be disposed, and consequently qualified to declare the sentiments of the people; for if they do not know, or are not disposed to speak the sentiments of the people, the people do not govern, but the sovereignty is in a few. Now, in a large extended country, it is impossible to have a representation, possessing the sentiments, and of integrity, to declare the minds of the people, without having it so numerous and unwieldy, as to be subject in great measure to the inconveniency of a democratic government….” --Brutus 1

a)

Average citizens cannot be trusted to vote because of low levels of education.

b)

The federal government should have greater authority than state legislatures.

c)

Nations with extended territory cannot fairly represent their citizens in a republican form of government.

d)

A small federal legislature is the best way to represent the will of the people in a large country.

115.

The Declaration of Independence cites specific reasons for separating from British rule, including the British imposing taxes and maintaining a standing army without consent. Which of the following principles or ideas would these grievances be most related to?

a)

The authority to create a centralized military among the colonies

b)

Natural rights such as life, liberty, and property

c)

The incorporation of checks and balances among the branches of government

d)

Concurrent powers allowing the colonies to draft their own laws

116.

Which of the following best characterizes the general argument made in Brutus 1?

a)

A large republic is dangerous to personal liberty and undermines the states.

b)

A small republic is more susceptible to corruption than a large republic.

c)

A large republic would be preferable to a small one because more people could participate.

d)

A small republic would pose more danger to individual liberty than a large republic.

117.

Which of the following is an accurate summary of James Madison's argument in The Federalist 10?

a)

A large republic makes it possible to abolish factions and concentrate all power at the national level.

b)

A large republic allows the federal government to dominate the state governments through the necessary and proper clause.

c)

A large republic is a direct democracy where the people have a direct vote in policy matters, which controls factions.

d)

A large republic presents more opportunities for groups to participate, compete, and limit each other.

118.

In The Federalist 10, which of the following did James Madison argue would best control the negative effects of factions?

a)

A large federal republic

b)

A large unitary government

c)

A small direct democracy

d)

A law that prohibits factions

119.

Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the infographic above?

a)

Once a proposed amendment passes the first round of approval, there are four ways it can be ratified.

b)

Amendment proposals are more easily passed by Congress than by states.

c)

Only a few amendments have been ratified by special conventions in at least three-fourths or 34 of the states.

d)

Amending the Constitution is a relatively easy process.

120.

Which concern of the framers does the method illustrated in the infographic address?

a)

National security

b)

Individual rights

c)

Flexibility

d)

Fair representation

121.

The cartoon expresses which of the following viewpoints?

a)

Political ideology consists of an individual's set of beliefs

b)

Many Americans are not well informed and hold conflicting views about the role of government.

c)

Americans become more conservative as they age.

d)

American political culture consists of shared beliefs and customs

122.

The cartoon expresses which of the following viewpoints?

a)

It's hard to define "life, liberty, and pursuit of happiness."

b)

Politicians tend to be more focused on public opinion than policy.

c)

The members of the Continental Congress were old and feeble.

d)

Sometimes even wealthy and educated individuals don't know the best course of action.

123.

According to the cartoon, the founding fathers wrote the Constitution to achieve what goal?

a)

establish republican government

b)

prevent one branch of government from becoming too powerful

c)

balance liberty with the protection of social order

d)

prevent the elite from holding too much power

124.

Which inference is most clearly drawn from the graph?

a)

More federal grant money goes to "Other" than to all specifically identified categories combined.

b)

During the period 2000-2010, "Transportation" funding grew by a greater percentage than "Income security" funding.

c)

The category receiving the largest federal funding has shifted over time from "Education, training, employment, and social services" in 1975 to "Health" in 2011.

d)

The same amount of funding has been allocated to "community and regional development" each year since 1978.

125.

In United States v. Morrison, the Supreme Court struck down the Violence Against Women Act of 1994, stating: "Gender-motivated crimes of violence are not, in any sense of the phrase, economic activity. While we need not adopt a categorical rule against aggregating the effects of any non economical activity in order to decide these cases, thus far in our Nation's history out cases have upheld Commerce Clause regulation of intrastate activity only where that activity is economic in nature."


Which of the following cases best serves as precedent for the decision in United States v. Morrison?

a)

U.S. v. Lopez

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

d)

None of these cases could serve as precedent.

126.

The term “bicameralism” refers to the

a)

establishment of two legislative chambers that have different structures and rules

b)

members of the House of Representatives having two-year terms

c)

president having veto power over both chambers of Congress

d)

members of the House and Senate having to appease their mutual constituencies

127.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of Congress and the Presidency?

a)

Congress has greater control over Judicial Appointments

b)

Congress has greater control over Budgetary Policy

c)

Congress has greater control over the Bureaucracy

d)

Congress has greater control over military leadership

128.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of the Presidency and Congress?

a)

The President has greater control over Foreign Policy

b)

The President has greater control over ratifying treaties

c)

The President has greater control over Fiscal Policy

d)

The President has greater control over Cabinet Appointments

129.

Congress has...

a)

Veto Power

b)

Power of the Sword

c)

Power of the Purse

d)

Discretionary Authority

130.

Which house of Congress is more formal, and has stricter rules over debate?

a)

The House of Representatives

b)

The Senate

131.

A committee chair in the House of Representatives is always...

a)

a member of the majority party in the chamber

b)

the member with the longest service in the House

c)

a trusted ally of the President

d)

the member with the longest service on the committee

132.

Which of the following statements about motions for cloture is true?

a)

They are applied only to budget appropriation bills.

b)

They are applied to bills that failed in the previous session of Congress.

c)

They force a bill out of committee so that the full House can vote on it.

d)

They are used by senators to end a filibuster and bring a bill to a vote.

133.

The practice in Congress whereby Representative A promises to vote for Representative B’s legislation, provided that Representative B will support Representative A’s legislation, is referred to as...

a)

personal casework and services

b)

partisan discipline

c)

logrolling

d)

pork barrel legislation

134.

Which of the following is a unique power held by members of the Senate?

a)

Control of the veto

b)

The ability to filibuster

c)

Control of the appropriations process

d)

The ability to impeach the president

135.

Nominations to the Supreme Court must be approved by a...

a)

simple majority vote in the Senate only

b)

simple majority vote in both the House of Representatives and the Senate

c)

two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives only

d)

two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives and the Senate and a majority of the sitting justices on the Supreme Court

136.

The power of the Rules Committee in the House of Representatives rests on its authority to...

a)

place a bill on the legislative calendar, limit time for debate and determine the type of amendments allowed

b)

initiate all spending legislation and hold budget hearings

c)

Choose the President if no candidate wins a majority in the electoral college

d)

choose the chairs of other standing committees and issue rules for the selection of subcommittee chairs

137.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of the trustee model of representation?

a)

Congress passes a bill allocating money to clean up nuclear waste sites after a wave of large-scale peaceful protests.

b)

The NAACP leadership sends representatives to Washington to lobby for changes to the Voting Rights Act.

c)

A presidential candidate advocates using an executive order to increase the minimum wage for federal contractors.

d)

A member of Congress votes to close a popular tax loophole based on the belief that the money would be better spent paying down the national debt.

138.

Which of the following is generally true of the gerrymandering of congressional districts?

a)

It results in more Democrats being elected to the House.

b)

It guarantees that all minority parties will be equally represented.

c)

It creates districts that favor one political party over another.

d)

It illegally violates the principle of one-person, one-vote.

139.

Which of the following describes the ruling in Shaw v. Reno (1993)?

a)

The Voting Rights Act was ruled unconstitutional.

b)

Racial gerrymandering was ruled unconstitutional.

c)

The poll tax was eliminated.

d)

It was decided that congressional districts needed to be equal in size.

140.

Executive agreements have been cited as evidence that

a)

modern presidents often try to avoid legislative checks and balances on their authority

b)

the executive branch has become too large and bureaucratic

c)

presidents have less power in handling foreign policy than in handling domestic policy

d)

interest groups have too much power in the contemporary governmental system

141.

The primary function of the White House staff is to...

a)

initiate policy

b)

advise the president

c)

represent the bureaucratic agencies

d)

provide information to the Office of Management and Budget

142.

In The Federalist 78, Alexander Hamilton states, “A constitution is, in fact, and must be regarded by the judges, as a fundamental law. It therefore belongs to them to ascertain its meaning.” Which of the following Supreme Court cases is most relevant to this statement?

a)

Baker v. Carr (1962)

b)

Marbury v. Madison (1803)

c)

Shaw v. Reno (1993)

d)

McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)

143.

Supreme Court justices were given life terms subject to good behavior by the Framers of the Constitution in order to ensure that...

a)

justices are free from direct political pressures

b)

justices are encouraged to make politically popular decisions

c)

cooperation between the judicial and legislative branches is assured

d)

justices remain accountable to the public

144.

Rules and regulations created by an agency such as the Federal Communications Commission are called...

a)

constitutional law

b)

common law

c)

statutory law

d)

administrative law

145.

Congress has exerted the greats influence on the operation of a federal agency by doing which of the following?

a)

Requiring the agency to participate in interagency task forces

b)

Dismissing an agency head who disagrees with congressional priorities

c)

Reviewing the annual budget appropriations for the agency

d)

Passing “sunset” legislation that terminates programs after a certain period

146.

Polling that takes place as voters leave the polling place is called a(n)

a)

exit poll

b)

straw poll

c)

scientific poll

d)

biased sample

147.

A set of ideas and beliefs about how govt should operate and how much government should be involved in our daily lives is your ...

a)

political ideology

b)

political party

c)

political spectrum

d)

Two-party system

148.

A voter who wants less government control over the economy as well as personal conduct of citizens is a ...

a)

Pure conservative

b)

Pure liberal

c)

Libertarian

d)

Populist

149.

People who fall into this category support low taxes, limited govt involvement in regulating the economy and funding for a strong national defense.

a)

Liberal

b)

Moderate

c)

Conservative

150.

Which political party is more liberal?

a)

Democratic Party

b)

Republican Party

151.
Which political party traditionally supports tax cuts for all Americans?
a)
Republicans
b)
Democrats
152.

Which of the following is NOT one of the political socialization agents, which is instrumental in forming political beliefs?

a)

the Media

b)

School

c)

Peer Groups

d)

Hobbies

153.

The key to a successful sample is to have a sample that

a)

is exactly 5% of the population that is being polled

b)

is polled only when it is ensured that they have enough time to answer the questions

c)

is hand selected by the pollsters according to political views

d)

accurately reflects the population

154.
Which of the following is not a factor of how a person typically forms their political ideology?
a)
Family
b)
Religion
c)
Hobbies
d)
Education
155.

Someone who supports government spending on social programs would likely fall on the _________ side of the political spectrum.

a)

Left

b)

Right

c)

Center

d)

Top

156.

Which political ideology is described below: favor freedoms of the individual, favor small government, favor states' rights, and favor religious freedoms?

a)

Conservative

b)

Liberal

c)

Authoritarian

d)

Libertarian

157.

Children are most likely to adopt the party identification ...

a)

of their parents

b)

of the president

c)

of their friends

d)

endorsed by the media

158.

The belief that ultimate power resides with the people is

a)

checks and Balances

b)

consent of the Governed

c)

popular sovereignty

d)

public opinion

159.

The rate of error in a random sampling – usually +/- 3% for a sample of at least 1,500 individuals - is the ...

a)

fractional failure

b)

percentage error

c)

sampling problems

d)

margin of error

160.

The fact that individuals have dynamic & changing values that transform as they grow older (which effects their voting habits) is known as ...

a)

the generational effect

b)

the life-cycle effect

161.

America's federal judiciary is established in...

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article IV

162.

Which branch of government has the authority to establish "inferior" federal courts?

a)

Executive branch

b)

Legislative branch

c)

Judicial branch

d)

State legislatures

163.

The court that has the authority to hear a case first has

a)

Appellate Jurisdiction

b)

Primary Jurisdiction

c)

Original Jurisdiction

d)

Secondary Jurisdiction

164.

Most of the cases SCOTUS hears come from

a)

Original Jurisdiction

b)

Appellate Jurisdiction

165.

The US Constitution directly creates only the (a)   Court.

166.

While the President has the power to appoint federal judges, who must approve them?

(a)  

167.

How is the Judicial Branch able to check the power of the other branches?

a)

By refusing to seat members of Congress

b)

By impeaching members of the other branches

c)

By using Judicial Review

d)

By Judicial Declaration

168.

The Supreme Court expresses its official opinion through the ________ _______

a)

Judicial Review

b)

Majority Opinion

c)

Concurring Opinion

d)

Dissenting Opinion

169.

Which type of judicial philosophy goes by what is directly written within the Constitution to help to decide the case?

a)

Judicial Restraint

b)

Judicial Activism

170.

The majority opinion, issued by the Supreme Court as the final decision of a case, becomes the standard or guide that will be followed in deciding similar cases in the future. this standard or guide is known as a

a)

Precedent

b)

Stare Decisis

c)

Brief

d)

Decision

171.

The judicial philosophy that advocates the courts' active role in policymaking is called

a)

strict constructionist

b)

loose constructionist

c)

judicial activism

d)

judicial restraint

172.

"It is emphatically the province and duty of the judicial department to say what the law is. Those who apply the rule to particular cases, must of necessity expound and interpret that rule. If two laws conflict with each other, the courts must decide on the operation of each."

-Chief Justice John Marshall

Which of the following principles is most accurately reflected in the quote from John Marshall?

a)

Republicanism

b)

Judicial Review

c)

Constitutionalism

d)

Checks and Balances

173.

What is the document that must be filed in order for SCOTUS to hear an appeal?

a)

Writ of Breve

b)

Writ of Mandamus

c)

Writ of Habeus Corpus

d)

Writ of Certiorari

174.

What kind of opinion is written by a justice who disagrees with the majority opinion of the court?

a)

Majority Opinion

b)

Dissenting Opinion

c)

Concurring Opinion

d)

Minority Opinion

175.

This position is currently held by Noel Francisco, he's the DOJ official who represents the federal government in front of the SCOTUS.

a)

Soliciter General

b)

Petitioner

c)

Chief Justice

d)

Secretary of Justice

176.

A guiding principle in which justices rely on precedent; basically states that the ruling in the lower court is upheld.

a)

Dissenting Opinion

b)

Amicus brief

c)

Stare decisis

d)

Original Jurisdiction

177.

Literally meaning "friend of the court", these are submitted to the SCOTUS by non-parties in a case that have a stake in the case. Some justices read them. Some don't.

a)

Amicus Curiae

b)

Writ of habeus corpus

c)

Miranda rights

d)

Appellate jurisdiction

178.

After the President nominates a federal judge...

a)

They must be approved by a ⅔ majority in the senate

b)

They must be approved by a simple majority in the senate

c)

They must be approved by 60 senators

d)

...they must be approve by a simple majority in the house

179.

Method of polling in which the wording of questions pushes respondents toward a particular answer or view?

a)

Push polling

b)

straw poll

c)

scientific polling

d)

public interest group

180.

An unscientific attempt to measure public opinion?

a)

Straw Poll

b)

Push Poll

c)

Random Sample

d)

universe

181.

A person can be politically socialized by?

a)

following local and federal laws

b)

reading new laws that are passed

c)

talking with peers and family members

d)

writing and conducting political polls

182.

Polling that takes place as voters leave the polling place?

a)

exit poll

b)

straw poll

c)

scientific poll

d)

biased sample

183.
A set of ideas, beliefs... about how government should operate and how much government should be involved in our day to day lives.
a)
Political Ideology
b)
Political Party
c)
Political Spectrum
d)
Two Party System
184.
A poll that takes place as voters leave the primary election is 
a)
a push poll
b)
a straw poll
c)
a random sampling poll
d)
an exit poll 
185.
A voter who wants less government control over the economy as well as person conduct of citizens
a)
Pure conservative
b)
Pure liberal
c)
Libertarian
d)
Populist
186.
People who fall into this category support funding of social programs, higher taxes in order to provide government services, and government involvement in regulating the economy.
a)
Liberal
b)
Moderate
c)
Conservative
187.
People who fall into this category support low taxes, limited government involvement in regulating the economy and funding for a strong national defense.
a)
Liberal
b)
Moderate
c)
Conservative
188.
People who fall into this category support funding of social programs, higher taxes in order to provide government services, and government involvement in regulating the economy.
a)
Liberal
b)
Moderate
c)
Conservative
189.
Which of the following political parties is more liberal?
a)
Democratic Party
b)
Republican Party
190.
Which political party traditionally supports tax cuts for all Americans?
a)
Republicans
b)
Democrats
191.
Public opinion refers to 
a)
a person who influences how others think 
b)
the attitudes held by large numbers of people
c)
the process by which people form opinions about issues 
d)
private organizations that work to change public policy 
192.
"It is vital that the United States have a large military in order to protect all Americans from threats by terrorist groups."
a)
Liberal
b)
Conservative
193.
"Corporations can't be trusted to treat people fairly they need to be regulated in order to protect workers."
a)
Liberal
b)
Conservative
194.
"Taxes are too high! The government should be smaller and taxes should be lower!"
a)
Liberal
b)
Conservative
195.
Who is this?
a)
Kristoff
b)
Olaf
c)
Aladdin
d)
Random Dude
196.
Of the following political socialization agents, which has the greatest impact on forming political beliefs?
a)
Demographics
b)
School
c)
Peer Groups
d)
Political Leaders 
197.
Generational effects tend to be felt most strongly by which group?
a)
Women
b)
Men
c)
Younger Generation
d)
Minority groups
198.
Which of the following BEST describes a straw poll?
a)
scientific
b)
representative
c)
credible
d)
unscientific
199.
Because it is impossible to measure everyone’s opinions, pollsters frequently rely on __________________ sampling.
a)
Quantitative
b)
Qualitative
c)
Random
d)
Quota
200.
The key to a successful sample is to have a sample that
a)
Is exactly five percent of the population that is being polled.
b)
Is polled only when it is ensured that they have enough time to answer the questions.
c)
Each participant is hand selected according to political views.
d)
Accurately reflects the population
201.

The notion that the people must agree on who their rulers will be is referred as?

a)

Sanctity of Property

b)

Natural Rights

c)

Consent of the Governement

d)

Limited Government

e)

Direct Democracy

202.

The primary result of shays rebellion was?

a)

To spread similar, unruly behavior to even larger and more effective group

b)

To force states to pass "force acts" and print money

c)

To calm the elite's fears about the economic climate

d)

To serve as a factor motivating the American Revolution

e)

To precipitate a review of the Arts of Confederation in Annapolis

203.

(T or F) The Articles of Confederation established a strong central government to respond to issues of economical and national crisis.

a)

True

b)

False

204.

According to James Madison, which of the following is the primary source of political conflict?

a)

Different political ideologies

b)

Different religious views

c)

The distribution of Wealth

d)

Self-interested human nature

e)

The lack of education

205.

(T or F) The delegates at the Philadelphia Convention believed that humans were primarily self-interested

a)

True

b)

False

206.

The Connecticut Compromise did which of the following?

a)

It guaranteed that slaves would count as three-fifths of a person in calculating a state's representation in Congress

b)

It insured that states would continue to influence the national government through a federalist system

c)

It created two houses of Congress with different bases for determining congressional determination

d)

It established that a state's representation in Congress would be based solely on the state's population of free citizens

e)

It ensured that citizens of larger states would have more power than citizens of smaller citizens

207.

Which of the following economic powers are given to Congress in the U.S. Constitution?

a)

The power to tax and borrow money

b)

The power to regulate interstate and foreign commerce

c)

The power to broadly protect property rights

d)

The power to print and coin money

e)

All of the Above

208.

The US Constitution in its original form, prior to amendment

a)

Dealt more thoroughly with economic issues than with issues of equality

b)

Dealt more thoroughly with issues of equality than with economic issues

c)

Emphasized both economic and equality issues to a large degree

d)

Mentioned both economic and equality issues only in passing

e)

Dealt with neither economic nor equality issues

209.

(T or F) The Virginia plan called for each state to be equally represented in the new congress

a)

True

b)

False

210.

The system of governance set up in the U.S. constitutional republic tends to

a)

Favor the status quo and limit political change

b)

Be relatively efficient in producing political results

c)

Encourage direct democracy

d)

Centralize Power

e)

All of the above

211.

(T or F) The Framers believed that, like the separation of powers and checks and balances, federalism would act as a check on the national government

a)

True

b)

False

212.

The Bills of Rights was adopted primarily to

a)

Allay fears that the Constitution would restrict freedom

b)

Ensure that the Constitution had the support of the Federalists

c)

Protect the states against the potential for abuses by the national government

d)

Guarantee that Congress had sufficient authority to address national economic crises

e)

Satisfy Madison's concerns about factions and to check their effects

213.

(T or F) The Constitution went into affect once the delegates in Philadelphia had voted to approve the document

a)

True

b)

False

214.

Which of the following means of amending the Constitution has never been used to date?

a)

Proposal by two-thirds support in both houses of Congress

b)

Ratification by three-fourths of state legislation

c)

Ratification by three-fourths of state conventions

d)

Proposal through a national convention called by Congress

e)

Each of the above has been used at least once

215.

(T or F) The Equal Rights Amendment is an example of a constitutional amendment that failed to be ratified

a)

True

b)

False

216.

Which statement is correct?

a)

Members of the eighteen-century upper class generally supported democracy

b)

The Constitution has gradually been democratized over time

c)

A republic is a form of democracy in which voters directly control the government

d)

As the country has grown, elected officials are less close to those they represent

e)

The Constitution encourages efficiency in policymaking

217.

After a national census has been taken, changes in population distribution cause the changing of congressional seats among the states. This effect is commonly called

a)

Congressional districting

b)

Apportionment

c)

Gerrymandering

d)

Reapportionment

218.

In Tinker v. Des Moines (1969), the Supreme Court upheld a student's right to wear an armband in protest. The wearing of the armband was protected as a form of which of the following?

a)

Prior restraint

b)

Symbolic speech

c)

Redress of grievances

d)

Peaceful public protest

219.

Which of the following correctly describes the concept of prior restraint?

a)

The government attempting to prevent something from being published by the press

b)

The right of individuals to plan, coordinate, and execute peaceful methods of protest

c)

The punishment of individuals for making statements critical of the government

d)

The Supreme Court blocking government action on the grounds that it is unconstitutional

220.

When the process of incorporation is referred to as "selective," it is in reference to the fact that

a)

the Court only incorporates a right in some cases but not all.

b)

incorporation has happened on an amendment-by-amendment basis.

c)

extension of rights may be withheld from some groups, such as students.

d)

decisions from those cases do not set precedent for future cases.

221.

McDonald v. Chicago (2010) is the most recent case to use selective incorporation. What right did it incorporate?

a)

The right to privacy

b)

The right to bear arms

c)

The right to an attorney

d)

The right o avoid self-incrimination

222.

This case was based on the Establishment Clause

a)

McDonald v. Chicago

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines

d)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

223.

This case was based on the Free Exercise Clause

a)

McDonald v. Chicago

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines

d)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

224.
Schenck v. United States established that "Clear and Present Danger" could limit which basic right?
a)
Freedom of Speech
b)
Freedom of Press
c)
Freedom of Religion
d)
Cruel and Unusual Punishment
225.
Where are American civil liberties found?
a)
the Preamble
b)
the Bill of Rights
c)
the Declaration of Independence
d)
Article IV
226.
This is when there are written lies about a person to damage their reputation.
a)
Censorship
b)
Slander
c)
Libel
d)
Bail
227.
Which amendment protects you from being searched without a warrant? 
a)
First Amendment
b)
Second Amendment
c)
Third Amendment
d)
Fourth Amendment
228.
Incorporation doctrine involves
a)
application of the Bill of Rights to the states
b)
the governments power to regulate corporations
c)
the extension of judicial review to state courts
d)
the interpretation of the commerce clause
229.
Which clause prohibits the US government form interfering with a citizen's right to practice religion.
a)
establishment clause
b)
necessary and proper clause
c)
free exercise clause
d)
supremacy clause
230.
Which clause of the 14th Amendment is used as the basis for selective incorporation?
a)
Citizenship
b)
Equal Protection
c)
Due Process
d)
Privileges and Immunities
231.

If one is arrested for a misdemeanor and cannot afford an attorney the suspect is entitled to a lawyer free of charge courtesy of what case?

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines

d)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

232.

In which of these cases did the Supreme Court use the Right to Privacy to justify their decision?

a)

Engel v. Vitale

b)

Schenck v. United States

c)

McDonald v. Chicago

d)

Roe v. Wade

233.
What kind of government concentrates all power in the national government?
a)
Federal
b)
Confederation
c)
Unitary
d)
Nationalist
234.
What power did the Articles of Confederation government enjoy?
a)
Regulate interstate commerce
b)
Impose direct taxes on the people
c)
Coin money
d)
Negotiate foreign treaties
235.
Which of the following term refers to a type of power given specifically to the federal government?
a)
Implied
b)
Inherent
c)
Expressed
d)
Reserved
236.
Which of the following is an example of an expressed power?
a)
To charter a national bank
b)
To raise taxes
c)
To annex territory to the US
d)
To tax US exports
237.
Which of the following is a term used to describe powers given to the state governments exclusively?
a)
Enumerated
b)
Inherent
c)
Reserved
d)
Concurrent
238.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a reserved power?
a)
Licensing doctors, lawyers, and barbers
b)
Managing local, state and federal elections
c)
Regulating INTRASTATE commerce
d)
Negotiating foreign treaties
239.
Which of the following is an example of a kind of federalism in which the state and federal governments have distinct, separate spheres in which each level is dominant in its own sphere?
a)
Dual Federalism
b)
Cooperative Federalism
c)
Confederalism
d)
Nullification crisis
240.
Which of the following is a type of congressional law such as a requirement that all public schools have wheelchair ramps that may or may not come with money?
a)
Block grants
b)
Mandates
c)
Categorical grants
d)
Executive orders
241.
This law transformed the welfare program from a categorical grant into _____  under President _____ ?
a)
a block grant, Clinton
b)
a voluntary program, Bush
c)
a non binding resolution, Nixon
d)
a mandate, Carter
242.
What amendment reserves powers not given to the federal government to the states?
a)
1st
b)
10th
c)
24th
d)
Trick Question: No amendment does this
243.
Which of the following groups preferred stronger state governments?
a)
New Deal Democrats in the 1930s
b)
Antifederalists
c)
the Supreme Court under Earl Warren
d)
Whig Party supporters of the American system
244.
Which of the following refers to the process of transferring powers from the federal government to state governments?
a)
Devolution
b)
Monetarism
c)
Reconstruction
d)
Centralization
245.
Which of the following was true of courts under the Articles government?
a)
Individual states did not have their own court systems
b)
There were no federal courts
c)
US legal procedures borrowed practices largely from France.
d)
American states generally did not have state constitutions
246.
Which of the following is a provision that gives the federal government's laws precedence over state governments?
a)
Supremacy clause
b)
Presentment clause
c)
Equal protection clause
d)
Establishment clause
247.
Which of the following ruled that the Medicaid expansion of the ACA was optional for state governments?
a)
Heart of Atlanta Motel v. USA
b)
Shelby County v. Holder
c)
NFIB v. Sebelius
d)
McCulloch v. Maryland
248.
Which of the clauses below was the baiss of the decision in McCulloch v. Maryland?
a)
Inelastic clause
b)
10th amendment
c)
Necessary and Proper clause
d)
Presentment clause
249.
Which decision below gave the federal government exclusive power to regulate interstate commerce?
a)
McCulloch v. Maryland
b)
Gibbons v. Ogden
c)
Dred Scott v. Sandford
d)
Plessy v. Ferguson
250.
What kind of situation characterizes contemporary US federal-state relations?
a)
Dual Federalism
b)
Strict institutionalism
c)
Cooperative Federalism
d)
Original Federalism
251.
What program below is an example of a categorical grant?
a)
Welfare
b)
Medicaid
c)
Temporary Aid to Needy Families
d)
The US Department of Defense
252.
Which Supreme Court decision below required that public schools be integrated?
a)
Korematsu v. US
b)
Marbury v. Madison
c)
Brown v. Board of Education
d)
Griswold v. Connecticut
253.

The Constitution stated that the requirements for being president are all the following EXCEPT

a)

having resided in the United States for at least 14 years

b)

being at least 35 years old

c)

being a natural-born citizen

d)

being a member of a political party

254.

The 22nd Amendment, passed in 1951

a)

gave impeachment powers to Congress

b)

provided for direct election of the president by the people

c)

limited presidents to two terms of office

d)

provided for the prez/VP candidates to run as a team

255.

In order to pass articles of impeachment against a president, it takes

a)

a two-thirds vote in the Senate

b)

a majority vote in the House of Representatives

c)

a two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives

d)

a majority vote in the Senate

256.

In order to convict and remove an impeached president, it takes

a)

a two-thirds vote in the Senate

b)

a majority vote in the Senate

c)

a majority vote in the House of Representatives

d)

a two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives

257.

All of the following powers are granted to the President by the Constitution EXCEPT

a)

granting pardons for federal offenses

b)

ensuring that the laws are faithfully executed

c)

forming new cabinet-level departments

d)

receiving ambassadors

258.

Which of the following can the president do without seeking the consent of Congress?

a)

Ratify a treaty

b)

Appoint members to the cabinet

c)

Declare war

d)

Deploy troops

259.

Since the 1970s, presidents have made use of executive orders to an increasing rate because

a)

are noncontroversial measures that can be easily implemented

b)

avoid judicial review

c)

are rarely defeated in Congress

d)

do not need to be passed by Congress

260.

Which of the following is likely to result when Congress refuses to act as a check on the power of the president?

a)

The Supreme Court will intervene to check the power of the president.

b)

The president will be able to push the limits of constitutional authority.

c)

The people will vote in new members of Congress during the next election

d)

Treaties, such as the Geneva Convention, will be treated as executive agree

261.

Cabinet-level executive departments are created by

a)

Congress

b)

rarely held national referendums

c)

the president

d)

the Constitution

262.

The head of each cabinet-level executive department is appointed by the president and

a)

must be confirmed by a majority of the House

b)

must be confirmed by a majority of the Senate

c)

is not subject to House or Senate approval

d)

must be confirmed by a majority of both the House and the Senate

263.

A presidential veto

a)

can be overturned by 2/3 vote of both House and Senate

b)

can be overturned only by majority vote of the Supreme Court

c)

can be overturned by a 2/3 vote of either House or Senate

d)

cannot be overturned

264.

What is one way the Congress can respond to the president’s power as commander-in-chief?

a)

Refuse to allocate funds for military operations

b)

Impeach the vice president

c)

Reject presidential nominees to the Supreme Court

d)

Override the president’s veto

265.

Which of the following is NOT one of the president’s powers as the nation’s chief diplomat?

a)

negotiating executive agreements which don't require Congress approval

b)

declaring war against an adversary

c)

mediating disputes between nations other than the U.S.

d)

negotiating treaties with other nations

266.

Executive agreements require

a)

ratification by the House of Representatives

b)

ratification by the Senate

c)

ratification by both the House and the Senate

d)

no ratification

267.

Presidents are elected to serve a ____ year term and are limited to _____ terms.

a)

2 / 2

b)

4 / 2

c)

6 / 2

d)

4 / 4

268.

If the President makes a suggestion for a law, signs a bill into law or vetoes a law, we say he is operating in his role as:

a)

Chief of State/Chief Citizen

b)

Chief Diplomat

c)

Chief Executive/Chief Administrator

d)

Chief Legislator

269.

In The Federalist 70, Alexander Hamilton states that “energy in the executive is a leading character in the definition of good government.” In this statement, Hamilton is arguing in favor of the need for

a)

a single executive who can respond quickly to crises

b)

a president who has a good understanding of public policy

c)

a president who is youthful and assertive

d)

a president who has a good understanding of public policy

270.

Which of the following is an example of how the innovation of social media can influence presidential behavior?

a)

The president holds a press conference to discuss midterm election results.

b)

The president outlines the administration's legislative agenda in the State of the Union Address.

c)

The president announces the nomination of a cabinet secretary on the Internet.

271.

Which of the following is a constitutional power that Congress has over foreign policy? (select all that apply)

a)

Declaring war

b)

Approving nominees for ambassadors

c)

Serving as commander-in-chief

d)

Ratifying treaties

272.

Which of the following is a constitutional power that the president has over foreign policy? (select all that apply)

a)

Deploying troops

b)

Receiving ambassadors from foreign nations

c)

Declaring war

d)

Passing laws that increase military funding

273.
The colonist fought to protect liberties that they believed were
a)
discovered in nature and history 
b)
based on a "higher law"
c)
ordained by god 
d)
all of the above 
274.
When he wrote the Deceleration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson replaced ________  with "the pursuit of happiness."
a)
property 
b)
liberty 
c)
equality 
d)
life 
275.
The original purpose of the constitutional convention was to 
a)
draw up a bill of rights 
b)
discuss regulations on intrastate commerce 
c)
revise the articles of confederation 
d)
build an army 
276.
French political pundits and Thomas Paine praised the state constitution of Pennsylvania because it was radically 
a)
centralized 
b)
democratic 
c)
legalistic 
d)
elitist 
277.
Shay's Rebellion stirred fears of some that state governments were
a)
becoming too powerful 
b)
about to collapse 
c)
controlled by the British 
d)
opposed to liberty 
278.
The Philadelphia Convention attracted about ___ delegates from states 
a)
55
b)
12
c)
30
d)
75
279.
The colonist new vision of government insisted that
a)
each branch of government be equal 
b)
the executive branch be superior to the legislative branch 
c)
the legislative branch be superior to the executive branch 
d)
the branched of the government be unified 
280.
The Articles of Confederation attempted to create 
a)
A firm league of friendship among the states 
b)
a centralized government 
c)
a strong state commitment to the national government 
d)
none of the above 
281.
All of the following were true of the government under the Articles except 
a)
Each state had one vote in congress 
b)
There was no national judicial branch 
c)
The national government couldn't regulate commerce 
d)
Amendments required the support of nine or thirteen states 
282.
Powers that are exclusively given the states are referred to as "_______ powers" 
a)
reserved 
b)
enumerated 
c)
concurrent 
d)
awesome
283.
The majority of delegates to the Constitutional Convention were 
a)
veterans of the Continental Army 
b)
Lawyers 
c)
Governors 
d)
body builders 
284.
The delegates to the Constitutional Convention shared a commitment to 
a)
liberty 
b)
fraternity 
c)
democracy 
d)
competition 
285.
Supporters of a strong national government favored the 
a)
Virginia plan 
b)
New Jersey plan 
c)
Pennsylvania Plan 
d)
Idea of a Chipotle in Monroe 
286.
The presiding officer at the Constitutional Convention was 
a)
James Madison 
b)
Patrick Henry 
c)
Thomas Jefferson 
d)
George Washington 
287.
The power to collect taxes would be an example of a(n) "______ power."
a)
enumerated 
b)
concurrent 
288.
The Great Compromise was supported by the votes of delegates from _____ states.
a)
6
b)
12
c)
5
d)
4
289.
the Constitution called for Senators to be 
a)
elected by the people 
b)
elected by members of the House 
c)
chosen by the electoral college 
d)
selected by the state legislatures 
290.
All of the following statements regarding the amendment process are correct except:
a)
Amendments can only be proposed by the Senate 
b)
States may ratify amendments through their legislatures or special ratifying conventions 
c)
Congress can call a National Convention at the request of two-thirds of the states
291.
The American version of representative democracy was based on two major principles 
a)
separation of powers and federalism 
b)
self-interest and constitutionalism 
c)
liberty and equality 
d)
unification and centralism 
292.
What would be the impact of the line-item veto on the separation of powers?
a)
It would weaken the presidency and strengthen Congress 
b)
It would strengthen the presidency in relation to congress
c)
It would prevent the supreme court from using Judicial Review 
d)
It would strengthen the power of the states 
293.
John Adams "real revolution" is described as:
a)
the war against imposing monarchies
b)
A change in tax policies imposed by England 
c)
Changing common thoughts about federalism 
d)
Radical change in principles, opinions, sentiments of the people
294.
The power to print money would be an example of a(n) "_______ power" 
a)
popular 
b)
Enumerated 
c)
awesome
d)
reserved 
295.
The Anti federalist are best described as 
a)
Nationalist 
b)
Radicals 
c)
states' righters
d)
Framers
296.
In the Constitution, slavery was 
a)
not specifically mentioned 
b)
recognized as a necessary institution 
c)
expressly permitted in the south 
d)
outlawed after 20 years
297.
The Framers believed equality was 
a)
protected by limited government 
b)
inconsistent with liberty 
c)
a meaningless abstraction 
d)
guaranteed by political privilege
298.

How can we amend the Constitution?

a)

Step 1: Proposal by either 2/3 of congress or 2/3 of the states. Step 2: Ratification by at least 2/3 of the state legislature.

b)

Step 1: Proposal by either 2/3 of congress or 2/3 of the states. Step 2: Ratification by at least 3/4 of the state legislature

c)

Step 1: Proposal by either 3/4 of congress or 2/3 of the states. Step 2: Ratification by at least 2/3 of the state legislature

d)

Step 1: Proposal by either 2/3 of congress or 3/4 of the states. Step 2: Ratification by at least 2/3 of the state legislature

299.

What powers are granted exclusively to the executive branch in the 2nd Article?

a)

Commander and chief of armed forces

b)

Can negotiate treaties

c)

Enforce laws

d)

Can issue executive orders

e)

Veto laws

300.

What is participatory democracy?

a)

Groups compete for power and form compromises

b)

The government is in the hands of a few people who are powerful and trustworthy

c)

Broad participation in the government by as many people as possible (everyone has a voice)

301.

Which federal supreme court cases established the idea of Judicial Review?

a)

McCulloch v. Maryland

b)

Tinker v. DesMoines

c)

Marbury v. Madison

d)

Engel v. Vitale

e)

U.S. v. Lopez

302.

What is a republic/ republicanism?

a)

A form of government where representatives elected by the people serve in the government

b)

A form of government where everyone serves in the government no matter your status

c)

A form of government where people form groups of likeminded people with similar interests and leaders from those groups serve in the government

d)

The republican party

303.

What is a "social contract"?

a)

An unsigned agreement that the people of a nation agree upon that says that they are willing to give up some of their power in return of their gov. upholding their rights

b)

A contract one must sign before officially becoming a citizen of the United States that agrees to not rebelling or messing up the social hierarchy

c)

A contract that a member of government signs before taking their place of power or office that acknowledges that the power of the government is in the hands of the people.

d)

An unsigned contract that every citizen agrees to that says that you will give up all your power to the national government

304.

What does the 3rd Amendment State?

a)

No federal law can abridge a citizens right to bear or own arms for their own protection

b)

No federal law can be put in place to force soldiers to live on private grounds even in times of war

c)

Slaves are now considered citizens of the United States and therefore now are entitled to natural rights and protection under the law

d)

Citizens have the right to privacy and private property and it can not be searched by the federal government without a probable cause warrant approved by a judge. (Search and Seizure)

305.

What are concurrent powers?

a)

Powers that are exclusive to the federal government

b)

Powers that are exclusive to the state government

c)

Powers that are granted to only the state governments directly in the constitution

d)

Powers that are shared between the federal and state government

306.

What is the name of one of the biggest compromises in the Constitution that stated that congress would have two bodies: one based off of population and the other was equal representation for every state no matter size

a)

The Virginia Plan

b)

The Compromise of Congress

c)

The New Jersey Plan

d)

The Great Compromise

307.

Which of the following do States Prefer because it allows them to have the most freedom in deciding where they want to spend the funds?

a)

Block Grants

b)

Categorical Grants

c)

Unfunded Mandates

308.

Which number amendment states that the President can only serve 2 terms of up to 4 years?

a)

Amendment 17

b)

Amendment 22

c)

Amendment 6

d)

Amendment 21

309.

What was NOT a problem with America's first "constitution" the Articles of Confederation?

a)

Gave too much power to the states; federal gov. was not powerful enough

b)

Federal gov. couldn't tax (could only request the taxes)

c)

Gave too much power to the federal gov.; states got too little power

d)

There was no federal militia

310.

What are the exclusive powers given to congress?

a)

Federal taxation

b)

Declare war

c)

Pass bills into laws

d)

Regulate interstate commerce

e)

Make bills

311.

What does the commerce clause state?

a)

Congress has the right to regulate interstate commerce

b)

Congress has the right to control taxes

c)

The states have the right to regulate interstate commerce

d)

The states have the right to control their own instate taxes

312.

Which amendment stated that in the case that the president dies, is taken out of office, or resigns the Vice president will take his place?

a)

19th amendment

b)

5th amendment

c)

27th amendment

d)

25th amendment

313.

Which of the following explains why any attempt to reduce Social Security benefits is difficult?

a)

The Supreme Court has ruled that benefits are constitutionally required.

b)

Interest groups concerned with Social Security are ineffective.

c)

The global economy makes government insurance programs necessary.

d)

There are many voters who support Social Security.

e)

Government cannot predict the number of new retirees each year.

314.

A state government places security cameras facing a popular site of protest in a public square in front of its statehouse. This scenario illustrates

a)

how political attitudes quickly shift in the United States

b)

the balance of promoting stability and ensuring civil liberties

c)

the free-rider problem of organizing a civil rights protests

d)

the impact of globalization on individual political attitudes

315.

Candidates for political office use public opinion polls for all of the following purposes EXCEPT to

a)

assess recognition of the candidate’s name

b)

measure voters’ support for the candidate’s issues

c)

bring the opposition’s opinions into alignment with those of the candidate

d)

fine-tune policy stands

e)

identify key issues among the voters

316.

When a child’s parents both identify strongly with the same political party, the child will most likely

a)

identify with the opposing party

b)

identify with the parents’ party

c)

have a low sense of political efficacy

d)

become an independent rather than a party identifier

317.

Children are most likely to adopt the party identification

a)

of their parents

b)

of the president

c)

of their friends

d)

endorsed by the media

318.

Which of the following is NOT a core value of United States political culture?

a)

Legal equality

b)

Political equality

c)

Economic equality

d)

Freedom of religion

319.

Which of the following best explains the data in the line graph?

a)

Between 2012 and 2018, the economy did not grow enough to make economic issues a top priority.

b)

Voters care more about jobs than the budget deficit because there has been an increase in unemployment between 2010 and 2018.

c)

The economy is likely the most important issue because it is a broader category that is more open to individual interpretation than both jobs and the budget deficit.

d)

Complex issues such as the budget deficit receive little attention in the media even though citizens care deeply about them.

320.

Which of the following statements is supported by data in the graph?

a)

The higher the income, the more likely that the person will support smaller government.

b)

Liberals are less likely than conservatives to support bigger government.

c)

A decrease in income is likely to increase the possibility that a person will obtain a college degree.

d)

Women are more likely than men to be in favor of smaller government and fewer government services.

321.

Which of the following statements is consistent with data shown in the bar graph?

a)

Men are more likely than women to believe that there should be an increase in government spending to provide social services for the elderly.

b)

Conservatives are more likely than liberals to believe that spending on public transportation should be increased to connect citizens to employment opportunities.

c)

Republicans are more likely than Democrats to believe that there should be fewer regulations on businesses to promote economic growth and increase wages.

d)

Those with higher incomes are more likely than those with lower incomes to believe that education spending should be a federal responsibility to guarantee that each citizen has an equal chance at success.

322.

Using both of the maps, which of the following best explains the role that ideology has played in the shaping of corporate tax rates?

a)

The maps indicate that there is no correlation between corporate tax rates and a state’s ideology.

b)

The maps indicate that states that have high corporate tax rates are more likely to enact liberal policies.

c)

The maps indicate that states with high corporate tax rates are more likely to hold libertarian positions.

d)

The maps indicate that states with high corporate tax rates do not have an ideological preference.

323.

Based on the line graph, which of the following statements about church attendance in 1972 is true?

a)

In 1972, about 30% of people surveyed reported attending church monthly or less.

b)

In 1972, more people surveyed reported attending church weekly than reported attending rarely or never.

c)

In 1972, most people surveyed reported attending church yearly.

d)

In 1972, more people surveyed reported attending church yearly than reported attending weekly.

324.

It is NOT part of America's core values

a)

Free enterprise

b)

Individualism

c)

Patriotism

d)

Rule of law

325.

White protestant male farmer on the South

a)

Reinforcing cleavages

b)

Cross-cutting cleavages

c)

Political ideology

d)

Party identification

326.

Group that DOES NOT tend to vote on democrats

a)

Jews

b)

Women

c)

Catholics

d)

Protestants

327.

Regions of the US in the Soth/Southwest that have been growing in population and have attracted retirees

a)

Sun belt

b)

Rust belt

c)

Bible belt

d)

Economic belt

328.

Measures inflation

a)

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

b)

Change in Product and Inflation (CPI)

c)

Office of Management and Budget (OMB)

d)

Congressional Budget Office (CBO)

329.

Is NOT a kind of poll

a)

Tracking poll

b)

Benchmark poll

c)

Pre-election poll

d)

Entrance poll

330.

Most Americans identify themselves as

a)

Liberals

b)

Conservatives

c)

Libertarians

d)

Independents

331.

Is NOT a means tested entitlement program

a)

Social Security Income

b)

Medicaid

c)

Medicare

d)

SNAP (Food Stamps)

332.

Women tend to vote for

a)

Democrats

b)

Republicans

333.

Younger people tend to vote for

a)

Democrats

b)

Republicans

334.

Wealthier people tend to vote for

a)

Democrats

b)

Republicans

335.

A libertarian would agree with

a)

Cutting all taxes

b)

Increasing taxes on the rich

c)

Decreasing taxes

336.

Widely shared beliefs, values and norms about how citizens should relate with government

a)

Political socialization

b)

Political culture

c)

Political ideology

d)

Party identification

337.

Rich = pay more taxes

Poor = pay less taxes

(percentage)

a)

Flat taxes

b)

Proportional taxes

c)

Regressive taxes

d)

Progressive taxes

338.

Defined as the ups and downs of the economy

a)

Business cycle

b)

Political socialization

c)

Fiscal policy

d)

Monetary policy

339.

Done by Executive and Legislative branches

a)

Monetary Policy

b)

Fiscal Policy

c)

Consumer Price Index

d)

Federal Reserve

340.

The goal of this group is to win elections and hold political office

a)

Interest Group

b)

Political Ideology

c)

Political Party

d)

Political Action Committee

341.

This occurs when a group of people who used to vote for one party now vote for another

a)

Critical Election

b)

Political Machine

c)

Closed Primary

d)

Party Realignment

342.

An election that demonstrates a sharp change in who people vote for; often leading to a party realignment

a)

critical election

b)

national election

c)

primary election

d)

congressional election

343.

This is the first step in the process to win the presidency

a)

General Election

b)

National Convention

c)

Electoral College

d)

Primary Election

344.

This is a representative at the national convention that is not tied to a particular state; is often a powerful figure in the political party

a)

delegate

b)

superdelegate

c)

vice president

d)

presidential nominee

345.

This is the idea that whoever wins the MOST votes in an election (even if it's not a majority), wins that position

a)

run-off election

b)

pluralist voting

c)

winner-take-all

d)

reapportionment

346.

This often leads to gridlock in government

a)

party polarization

b)

Electoral College

c)

Judicial Review

d)

Necessary & Proper Clause

347.

What is the idea that candidates who win an election are bound to carry out their campaign promises?

a)

Presidential Coattails

b)

Caucuses

c)

Critical Elections

d)

Mandate Theory of Elections

348.

This is a type of primary election where you do not have to be registered to a particular party to vote for a primary candidate

a)

Closed Primary

b)

Open Primary

c)

Super Tuesday Primary

d)

Iowa Caucus

349.

During this stage of the presidential election, there is one candidate from each major party fighting to win the votes of voters.

a)

Primary Election

b)

National Convention

c)

General Election

d)

Inauguration

350.

You determine the number of votes your state gets for this by combining the total number of your House Representatives + Senators.

a)

National Convention Delegates

b)

Caucus

c)

National Convention Superdelegates

d)

Electoral College

351.

This process occurs every 10 years after the census to determine how many representatives each state will have in the House of Reps.

a)

Gerrymandering

b)

Reapportionment

c)

Midterm Elections

d)

Party Realignment

352.

This is the election that occurs 2 years after a president was elected; it is often used as a measuring stick to gauge how the public views the work of the current adminstration

a)

General Election

b)

Midterm Election

c)

Nomination Election

d)

Primary Election

353.

The purpose of this organize is to regulate campaign finance

a)

PAC

b)

BCRA

c)

FCC

d)

FEC

354.

This type of organization can raise & spend unlimited $$ to support a campaign, as long as they don't directly coordinate with the campaign.

a)

PAC

b)

Interest Group

c)

SuperPAC

d)

FEC

355.

This court case established the idea that spending money is equivalent to free speech, therefore allowing unlimited spending by SuperPACs

a)

Lopez v US

b)

McCullough v Maryland

c)

Engel v Vitale

d)

Citizens United v FEC

356.

This is a type of interest group that is fighting for an issue that benefits everyone in society, not just its members

a)

Economic Interest Group

b)

Public Interest Group

c)

Private Interest Group

d)

Dark Money Group

357.

This theory of interest groups believes that there are too many interest groups asking the gov to do things, that nothing ends up getting done

a)

Pluralist

b)

Elite

c)

Hyperpluralist

d)

Issue Network

358.

This group of political players is comprised of an Interest Group, Congressional Committee, and a Bureaucratic Agency

a)

Iron Triangle

b)

Issue Network

c)

Congressional Committee

d)

Political Party

359.

This is a person advocating for the interests of their interest group to members of government that can help them achieve their goals

a)

Representative

b)

Senator

c)

Lobbyist

d)

President

360.

One way an interest group might influence the political process is by writing one of these to express support for a particular interest in a court case.

a)

newspaper article

b)

political advertisement

c)

litigation

d)

amicus curiae brief

361.

This is the idea that interest groups use their money and expertise to influence the outcome of an election

a)

Litigation

b)

electioneering

c)

amicus curiae brief

d)

primary election

362.

The media can help set the political agenda by the way in which is ____ an issue

a)

prior restraint

b)

electioneers

c)

frames

d)

legally challenges

363.

When a media source acts as a ____, they are conducting investigative journalism

a)

press secretary

b)

political party

c)

interest group

d)

watchdog

364.

Because TV news often presents a news story in 60 second (or less) segments, politicians often pare their speeches down so that media can grab _____ easier.

a)

right of rebuttal

b)

equal time rule

c)

sound bites

d)

media events

365.

When an interest groups achieves a goal that benefits everyone in society, not just its members, this is called a:

a)

collective good

b)

free rider problem

c)

single-issue problem

d)

potential problem

366.

Which of these is not typically an advantage of incumbents

a)

Getting SuperPAC $

b)

Name Recognition

c)

Mail info for free

d)

Press coverage of congressional actions

367.

 

Which article established (started) the Judicial Branch?

a)

Article 1

b)

Article 2

c)

Article 3

d)

Article 4

368.

A court's authority to hear a case for the first time is called ______.

a)

Original Jurisdiction

b)

Appellate Jurisdiction

c)

First Jurisdiction

d)

Primary Jurisdiction

369.

The Supreme Court has the power of Judicial Review. What is Judicial Review?

a)

when the Supreme Court enforces the laws of the Legislative Branch

b)

when the Supreme Court decides if a law or executive action is constitutional or not

c)

when the Supreme Court vetoes a Bill from Congress

d)

when the Supreme Court creates a new law

370.

Supreme Court nominees are confirmed by...

a)

House of Representatives

b)

President

c)

Senate

d)

Chief Justice

371.

If a Supreme Court justice agrees with the decision of the court, but did not agree with the reasoning of how they came to that conclusion, the justice may write a ____.

a)

Plurality Opinion

b)

Majority Opinion

c)

Dissenting Opinion

d)

Concurring opinion

372.

Justices who believe that the court should act as an instrument of public policy are said to have which judicial philosophy?

a)

Judicial Activism

b)

Judicial Restraint

c)

Conservative

d)

Liberal

373.

This principle means "let the decision stand"

a)

Writ of Certiorari

b)

Precedent

c)

Amicus curiae

d)

Stare decisis

374.

This document, written by Alexander Hamilton, makes the argument that justices should have lifetime appointments and have the power of judicial review.

a)

Federalist 10

b)

Federalist 51

c)

Federalist 70

d)

Federalist 78

375.
The ___ amendment limits the president to 2 terms.
a)
12th
b)
22nd
c)
25th
d)
20th
376.
The constitutional amendment that established the order of succession of the presidency is the ___ amendment.
a)
22nd
b)
23rd
c)
24th
d)
25th
377.

“energy in the executive is the leading character in the definition of good government."

a)

Federalist 51

b)

Federalist 10

c)

Federalist 70

d)

Federalist 78

378.
The main job of federal bureaucrats is to...
a)
implement and regulate government policies
b)
compete with the private sector for monopoly power
c)
protect the interests of their constituencies
d)
advise the president and Cabinet on internal affairs.
379.

In Federalist #70, which of the following best summarizes Alexander Hamilton's argument?

a)

The executive branch is too powerful under the Articles of Confederation.

b)

The executive branch should be the most powerful branch of government.

c)

The executive branch is designed to handle emergencies and immediate crises.

d)

The executive branch would function best with a single person in charge.

380.
Helping to pass a bill through Congress is an example of what role of the President?
a)
Chief Citizen
b)
Chief Administrator
c)
Chief of Party
d)
Chief Legislator
381.
The executive branch is created in 
a)
Article 1
b)
Article 2
c)
Article 3
d)
Article 4
382.
Which of the following is NOT an expressed power of the president?
a)
declare war
b)
commander-in-chief
c)
grant pardons
d)
make appointments
383.
 A rule or regulation issued by the Chief Executive (President) that has the force of law without the approval of Congress.
a)
executive order
b)
executive agreement
c)
cloture rule
d)
filibuster
384.

What action is taken to formally accuse an official of misconduct in office?

a)

habeas corpus

b)

pardon

c)

censure

d)

impeachment

385.

If Congress adjourns during the ten days the president has to consider a bill passed by both houses of Congress, but which the president has not yet signed, what is the result?

a)

Line-item veto

b)

Legislative veto

c)

Executive veto

d)

Pocket veto

386.

What is the minimum age to become a House of Representative Member?

a)

No prerequisite

b)

25

c)

30

d)

35

387.

Which chamber of the federal legislature is considered to be closer and more responsive to the American citizens?

a)

Senate

b)

House of Representatives

c)

State Assembly

d)

State Senate

388.

Cloture is a process designed to accomplish...

a)

bringing a bill out of committee

b)

the ending a filibuster

c)

Gerrymandering

d)

select committee chairmen

389.

All revenue bills must originate where?

a)

The House of Representatives

b)

The Senate

c)

The Office of the President

d)

The Congressional Budget Office

390.

Which of the following is NOT a model used by members of Congress in the execution of their responsibilities.

a)

Politico

b)

Delegate

c)

Logroller

d)

Trustee

391.

A conference committee is comprised of...

a)

Senators only

b)

House representatives only

c)

Members of both the Senate and House of Representatives

d)

Subcommittees in the House of Representatives

392.

Which of the following is NOT a major difference between the House of Representatives and the Senate

a)

Members of the House are elected every two years and the Senate every 6 years.

b)

Senators must be 30 years old and Representatives must be 25

c)

The Senate passes appropriation legislation and the HoR confirms Presidential appointments.

d)

The Senate was originally chosen by State Legislatures while the HoR was originally chosen by the people.

393.

Which of the following is NOT one of the broad categories of roles/powers Congress has.

a)

Budgeting

b)

Campaigning

c)

Oversight of Government

d)

Lawmaking

394.

What is Madison's solution to the problem he identifies in Fed #51 - "The legislative Authority necessarily predominates."

a)

Bicameralism

b)

Strong Executive

c)

Increased State Power

d)

Monarchy

395.

the dominant set of beliefs, customs, traditions, and values that define the relationship between citizens and government

a)

individualism

b)

political culture

c)

political socialization

d)

political ideology

396.

the belief that individuals should be responsible for themselves and for the decision they make

a)

individualism

b)

political culture

c)

political socialization

d)

political ideology

397.

Economic system in which government intrudes as little as possible in the economic transaction among citizens and businesses

a)

free enterprise

b)

supply side economics

c)

monetary policy

d)

Keynesian economics

398.

principle that no one, including public officials, is above the law

a)

rule of law

b)

individualism

c)

political culture

d)

political hierarchy

399.

the experiences and factors that shape an individual's political values, attitudes, and behaviors.

a)

political ideology

b)

individualism

c)

political culture

d)

political socialization

400.

an individual's coherent set of beliefs about government and politics

a)

political ideology

b)

individualism

c)

political culture

d)

political socialization

401.

What is the purpose of a political party's platform?

a)

to tell Americans what to believe

b)

to outline and make clear their views on important issues

c)

to help candidates who don't understand the issues

d)

to make it easy for opposing parties to adopt their views

402.

What is a strategy an interest group might use to influence an election's outcome (results)?

a)

pay candidates to quit running

b)

conduct public opinion polls

c)

run TV and newspaper ads

d)

hire high-powered lobbyists to influence legislators

403.

The Save the Turtles Political Action Committee (PAC) can only support one candidate. The chart below shows four candidates' positions on important issues. Which candidate would the PAC choose to support, based upon this information?

a)

Don McDude

b)

Bernie McSanders

c)

Mitchie O'Connell

d)

Hilaria McLinton

404.

What do lobbyists try to do?

a)

help Congress in writing legislation for the common good

b)

ensure the federal budget balances

c)

help the President to choose Supreme Court justices and Cabinet members

d)

influence the decisions made by government officials

405.

Which is NOT a way that the media affects government?

a)

monitor elected officials to ensure responsible behavior

b)

influence voters' criteria for evaluating candidates

c)

encourage voters to share their beliefs and views

d)

shape legislation (laws) by influencing Congressional voting

406.

How do Political Action Committees (PACs) influence government?

a)

advising the President

b)

staffing Congressional offices

c)

financially supporting causes and campaigns

d)

sending written summaries of cases to the Supreme Court

407.

What do the following groups have in common? M.A.D.D., A.A.R.P., W.W.F., N.R.A., P.E.T.A.?

a)

They're all government agencies seeking to influence Congress.

b)

They're all nonprofit groups seeking funding for their causes.

c)

They're all political third parties seeking election of supportive candidates.

d)

They're all interest groups seeking to draw attention to and lobby for their causes.

408.

Why is the same event sometimes reported differently by different news networks?

a)

Newspapers and networks hold certain political beliefs (biases) that are shown in their reporting.

b)

Newspapers and networks don't get enough information to report events accurately.

c)

Some newspapers and networks just want to trick the public into believing things that aren't true.

d)

Political parties pay newspapers and news networks to make them look good, leading to false reporting.

409.

What would be the most accurate source to find information about candidates' views during an election?

a)

a private interest group's website

b)

a record of the candidates' voting history on issues-related legislation

c)

a TV commercial sponsored by a political party

d)

a newspaper editorial

410.

Carlos is 21 years old. He goes to college in the evenings, works at a nursing home for senior citizens during the day, and is happy to return to his rented apartment home at night. Based on the candidates' positions on the chart, which one is Carlos most likely to vote for?

a)

Candidate A

b)

Candidate B

c)

Candidate C

d)

Candidate D

411.

"The impeachment of Trump doesn't matter to me because he's the Republican candidate, and I always vote Republican" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

412.

"I'm going to vote for Bernie Sanders in the primary because I think he has the best plan to help me with my student loan debt" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

413.

"Nancy Pelosi's leadership in the House has been awful, I will vote Republican because of it" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

414.

"I'm voting for Joe Biden because he gives me hope that we will be able to unify our country and begin to get things done across party lines" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

415.

Voting rights have __________ over time.

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

416.

Which amendment gave African American men the right to vote?

a)

13th

b)

14th

c)

15th

d)

17th

417.

Which Amendment led to the direct election of Senators?

a)

17th Amendment

b)

18th Amendment

c)

20th Amendment

d)

23rd Amendment

418.

Based on the original wording of the Constitution, who elected Senators?

a)

the people in the State

b)

the state legislature

c)

the Electoral College

d)

the governor of the State

419.

Which Amendment gave women the right to vote?

a)

23rd

b)

18th

c)

21st

d)

19th

420.

Which Amendment abolished poll taxes?

a)

21st

b)

22nd

c)

23rd

d)

24th

421.

Which of the following was NOT banned by the Voting Rights Act of 1965?

a)

Motor voter laws

b)

Grandfather Clauses

c)

Literacy Tests

d)

Poll taxes

422.

Which Amendment gave 18-20 year olds the right to vote?

a)

23rd

b)

26th

c)

27th

d)

25th

423.

What did the Motor Voter Act do?

a)

It requires you to renew your driver's license in order to vote.

b)

It requires states to transport you to the polls on election day.

c)

It requires states to let you register to vote when you apply for or renew your driver's license.

d)

It requires you to have a state ID to vote.

424.

What conclusion can be drawn from analyzing the chart?

a)

The majority of Americans take get involved in the political process through donating money to a campaign.

b)

Volunteering for a political campaign is the way that most baby boomers participate in politics.

c)

Attendance at political rallies has increased in the last decade.

d)

Casting a vote is the primary way that most Americans participate in government.

425.

According to historical data, which age group has been known to have the highest voter turnout?

a)

18-24

b)

25-44

c)

45+

426.

Which of the following can be contributing factors to low voter turnout in the United States?

a)

Lack of information, Experience, Residential Mobility and Income

b)

Elections held on random days of the week

c)

Taxes imposed by the king

d)

All of the above

427.

A preference, opinion or attitude that favors one way of thinking or feeling over another.

a)

Third Parties

b)

Bias

c)

Society

d)

Government

428.

A Political Party that is not one of the two major parties in the country; a minor party

a)

Two-Party System

b)

Socialist Party

c)

Political System

d)

Third Party

429.

A Political System consisting primarily of two major political parties, more or less equal in strength.

a)

Two-Party System

b)

Socialist Party

c)

Political System

d)

Third Party

430.

A political party that believes that the federal government should take a more active role in people's lives, particularly those who are in need.

a)

Republican Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Libertarian Party

d)

Socialist Party

431.

A political party that believes in individual freedom and believes the only purpose of government is to protect this freedom.

a)

Republican Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Libertarian Party

d)

Socialist Party

432.

A political party that believes that the federal government should play a less active role in people's lives and that individuals can take care of themselves without government help.

a)

Republican Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Libertarian Party

d)

Socialist Party

433.

A written statement of the goals of a political party.

a)

Candidate

b)

Government

c)

Party Platform

d)

Society

434.

An organization that tries to get political power by electing members to public office so that their political ideas can become laws or policies

a)

Political System

b)

Government

c)

Party Platform

d)

Political Party

435.
A political party is a group of persons who join together in order to
a)
Alert the public to problems that need government action
b)
Gain control of the government through the electoral process
c)
Educate the public about the need for political activism
d)
Ensure that nominees for public office are of good character
436.
The Free Soil party, the “Know Nothing” party, and the Right to Life party are all examples of 
a)
Ideological parties
b)
Single-issue parties
c)
Splinter parties
d)
Economic protest parties
437.

What is the primary goal of political parties?

a)

to create a national platform

b)

to get their candidates elected

c)

to collect campaign contributions

d)

to attract members who agree on issues

438.

Which of these is the most common form of individual involvement with a political party?

a)

attending a party rally or meeting

b)

making a financial contribution to the party

c)

registering to vote as a member of the party

d)

working on the campaign of a party candidate

439.

The American tendency toward ________ encourages the two major parties to build broad coalitions.

a)

big government

b)

idealism

c)

radicalism

d)

moderation

440.
When fewer voters support one of the two major parties and begin to think of themselves as "independent" voters, we have seen 
a)
realignment
b)
dealignment
c)
abstention
d)
straight-ticket voting
441.
A shift in party allegiances, such as Southerners leaving the Democratic Party and moving support to the Republican Party , is known as
a)
realignment
b)
dealignment
c)
coattail effect
d)
proportional representation
442.

an organized effort to influence the policy process by persuading public officials to favor or oppose action on a specific issue

a)

Interest group

b)

lobbying

c)

platform

d)

Political action committee

443.

All of the people entitled to vote in a given election

a)

pluralism

b)

Primary election

c)

electorate

d)

Political party

444.

an organization that seeks to achieve power by electing its members to public office

a)

political action committees

b)

political parties

c)

pluralism

d)

lobbying

445.

any organized group whose members share a common goal and try to promote their interests by influencing government policymaking and decision making

a)

Interest group

b)

platform

c)

Political action committee

d)

lobbying

446.

a political party’s statement of principles and objectives

a)

Interest group

b)

caucus

c)

platform

d)

ideology

447.

an electoral system that awards offices to the highest vote-getters without ensuring representation for voters in the minority; under this system, a slim majority of voters can control 100 percent of elected offices

a)

caucus

b)

electorate

c)

proportional representation

d)

winner-take-all system

448.

an organization that raises and distributes funds to candidates running for office

a)

Political party

b)

Interest group

c)

platform

d)

political action committees (PACs)

449.

a political system in which two parties dominate the electoral process and control the government

a)

public agenda

b)

political action committees

c)

two-party system

d)

pluralism

450.

an election in which voters determine their party’s nominee for an elective office

a)

primary election

b)

open primary

c)

midterm election

d)

general election

451.

a public official seeking reelection to the position he or she currently occupies

a)

party base

b)

self-announcement

c)

incumbent

d)

swing voter

452.

an election in which voters choose among candidates from different parties to fill an elective office

a)

caucus

b)

primary election

c)

general election

d)

winner-take-all system

453.
The opposite of political apathy would be
a)
  Independents
b)
 Political efficacy
c)
 Literate
d)
  Electorate
454.
Who has the lowest voter turnout  
a)
elderly
b)
18 year old
c)
women(25-50)
d)
men(25-50)
455.
  How many Electoral College votes do you need to win 
a)
270
b)
435
c)
535
d)
100
456.
Which of the following is not a functions of the major parties in United States politics 
a)
providing a mechanism for the conduct of government.
b)
insuring the good performance of their elected candidates.
c)
nominating candidates for office.
d)
supporting split-ticket voting.
457.
Who can vote in a closed  primary
a)
all qualified voters may vote.
b)
only declared party members 
c)
voters must vote a split ticket.
d)
voters must complete separate ballots for both parties.
458.
What party is in favor of deregulation of most businesses?
a)
Whigs
b)
Anti-Federalist
c)
Democracts
d)
Republicans
459.
What party is would like to see affordable healthcare for all citizens?
a)
Republicans
b)
Know-Nothing
c)
Whigs
d)
Democrats
460.
What is most common form of political participation ?
a)
voting
b)
protesting
c)
running for office
d)
debating
461.
Which of the following is NOT a major defect of the Electoral College?
a)
Popular Vote is directly reflected by the Electoral College
b)
the winner of the popular vote is not always guaranteed the presidency
c)
any election might have to be decided in the House of Representatives
d)
electors are not required to vote in accord with the popular vote
462.
Which is true about Super PACs?
a)
are not regulated by the FEC
b)
are allowed to coordinate with candidates
c)
can receive unlimited donations and spend as much as they want
d)
cannot use express advocacy
463.
The impact of the mass media on the public agenda can best be described as its ability to
a)
focus the public's attention on specific issues.
b)
tell people what opinions to have about those issues.
c)
tell people whom to vote for.
d)
can be used to focus government attention on specific problems or issues.
464.
An organization of people sharing common interest or goals that seek to influence the making of public policy.
a)
Interest Group
b)
Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 (McCain-Feingold Act)
c)
Lobby
d)
Open Primary
465.
People who seek to control Gov't through winning elections

Example = Democrats & Republicans
a)
Political Party
b)
Interest Group
c)
Political Lobbying
d)
Political Agenda
466.
Private organizers who share certain views & work to shape public policy

Example = NRA or MADD
a)
Interest Group
b)
Mass Media
c)
Political Party
d)
Interest Factions
467.
Pressure legislators & public-policy-making; Seek to influence on an issue

Think $$$
a)
Lobbying
b)
Public Opinion Polls
c)
Mass Media
d)
Interest Groups
468.
The use of ________, especially TV has really changed modern politics in the USA.
a)
Mass Media
b)
Literature
c)
Fliers
d)
Lobbying
469.
The party out of power criticizes the policies and behaviors of the party in power. What is this called?
a)
the governing function 
b)
the bonding agent function
c)
the nominating function
d)
the watchdog function 
470.
Which of the following terms means that people are gradually moving away from both parties?
a)
realignment
b)
dealignment
c)
gerrymandering
d)
reevaluation
471.
Television and radio are regulated by the
a)
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
b)
Department of Health & Human Services
c)
Federal Communications Commission
d)
Securities & Exchange Commission
472.
Which of the following is not a main type of interest group?
a)
economic issues
b)
equality concerns
c)
consumer interests
d)
litigation
473.
The official statement of a party's policy goals, released as party of the national party convention, is known as
a)
grassroots organization
b)
the party in the electorate
c)
the party platform
d)
the party pyramid
474.
The __________ problem occurs when people fail to join a groupbecause they can get the benefits the group offers without contributing to the group’s efforts.
a)
pluralist
b)
free-rider
c)
group coordination
d)
group formation
475.
Which of the following is a consequence of the rise of television broadcasting?
a)
Candidates are more capable of running for office on their own by appealing to people directly through TV.
b)
Individuals have a greater need for political parties to help them make decisions.
c)
Groups have greater access to spread their issues and messages to the public.
d)
Congress has received more television coverage compared to the other two branches of government.
476.

What is the purpose of a political party's platform?

a)

to tell Americans what to believe

b)

to outline and make clear their views on important issues

c)

to help candidates who don't understand the issues

d)

to make it easy for opposing parties to adopt their views

477.

What is a strategy an interest group might use to influence an election's outcome (results)?

a)

pay candidates to quit running

b)

conduct public opinion polls

c)

run TV and newspaper ads

d)

hire high-powered lobbyists to influence legislators

478.

The Save the Turtles Political Action Committee (PAC) can only support one candidate. The chart below shows four candidates' positions on important issues. Which candidate would the PAC choose to support, based upon this information?

a)

Don McDude

b)

Bernie McSanders

c)

Mitchie O'Connell

d)

Hilaria McLinton

479.

What do lobbyists try to do?

a)

help Congress in writing legislation for the common good

b)

ensure the federal budget balances

c)

help the President to choose Supreme Court justices and Cabinet members

d)

influence the decisions made by government officials

480.

How do Political Action Committees (PACs) influence government?

a)

advising the President

b)

staffing Congressional offices

c)

financially supporting causes and campaigns

d)

sending written summaries of cases to the Supreme Court

481.

What do the following groups have in common? MADD, AARP, NAACP, NRA, NOW?

a)

They're all government agencies seeking to influence Congress.

b)

They're all nonprofit groups seeking funding for their causes.

c)

They're all political third parties seeking election of supportive candidates.

d)

They're all interest groups seeking to draw attention to and lobby for their causes.

482.

Why are the same events sometimes reported differently by different news networks?

a)

Newspapers and networks hold certain political beliefs (biases) that are shown in their reporting.

b)

Newspapers and networks don't get enough information to report events accurately.

c)

Some newspapers and networks just want to trick the public into believing things that aren't true.

d)

Political parties pay newspapers and news networks to make them look good, leading to false reporting.

483.

What would be the most accurate source to find information about candidates' views during an election?

a)

a private interest group's website

b)

a record of the candidates' voting history on issues-related legislation

c)

a TV commercial sponsored by a political party

d)

a newspaper editorial

484.

"The impeachment of Trump doesn't matter to me because he's the Republican candidate, and I always vote Republican" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

485.

"I'm going to vote for Bernie Sanders in the primary because I think he has the best plan to help me with my student loan debt" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

486.

"Nancy Pelosi's leadership in the House has been awful, I will vote Republican because of it" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

487.

"I'm voting for Joe Biden because he gives me hope that we will be able to unify our country and begin to get things done across party lines" would be an example of:

a)

Retrospective voting

b)

Prospective voting

c)

Party-line voting

d)

Rational choice

488.

Voting rights have __________ over time.

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

489.

Which amendment gave African American men the right to vote?

a)

13th

b)

14th

c)

15th

d)

17th

490.

Which Amendment led to the direct election of Senators?

a)

17th Amendment

b)

18th Amendment

c)

20th Amendment

d)

23rd Amendment

491.

Which Amendment gave women the right to vote?

a)

23rd

b)

18th

c)

21st

d)

19th

492.

What did the Motor Voter Act do?

a)

It requires you to renew your driver's license in order to vote.

b)

It requires states to transport you to the polls on election day.

c)

It requires states to let you register to vote when you apply for or renew your driver's license.

d)

It requires you to have a state ID to vote.

493.

According to historical data, which age group has been known to have the highest voter turnout?

a)

18-24

b)

25-44

c)

45+

494.

Which of the following can be contributing factors to low voter turnout in the United States?

a)

Lack of information, Experience, Residential Mobility and Income

b)

Elections held on random days of the week

c)

Poll Taxes

d)

All of the above

495.

A political party that believes that the federal government should take a more active role in people's lives, particularly those who are in need.

a)

Republican Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Libertarian Party

d)

Socialist Party

496.

A political party that believes that the federal government should play a less active role in people's lives and that individuals can take care of themselves without government help.

a)

Republican Party

b)

Democratic Party

c)

Libertarian Party

d)

Socialist Party

497.
A shift in party allegiances, such as Southerners leaving the Democratic Party and moving support to the Republican Party , is known as
a)
realignment
b)
dealignment
c)
coattail effect
d)
proportional representation
498.

A public official seeking reelection to the position he or she currently occupies

a)

party base

b)

self-announcement

c)

incumbent

d)

swing voter

499.
  How many Electoral College votes do you need to win 
a)
270
b)
435
c)
535
d)
100
500.
Television and radio are regulated by the
a)
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
b)
Department of Health & Human Services
c)
Federal Communications Commission
d)
Securities & Exchange Commission