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hhaaa

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true?

a)

A. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses

b)

B. applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses

c)

C. applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses

d)

D. can be configured only on Gigabit interface

2.

Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?

a)

A. source

b)

B. static

c)

C. pool

d)

D. overload

3.

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

a)

A. outside global

b)

B. outside local

c)

C. inside global

d)

D. inside local

e)

E. outside public

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity?

a)

A. The router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address

b)

B. The inside global address is incorrect

c)

C. The NAT configuration on interface S0/0/1 is incorrect.

d)

D. Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside

5.

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.3.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3. Which configuration should be used?

a)

A. Option A

b)

B. Option B

c)

C. Option C

6.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

a)

A. config t

ip access-list extended wwwblock

deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80

int vlan 100

ip access-group wwwblock in

b)

B. config t

ip access-list extended wwwblock

deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80

permit ip any any

int vlan 20

ip access-group wwwblock in

c)

C. config t

ip access-list extended wwwblock

permit ip any any

deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80

int vlan 30

ip access-group wwwblock in

d)

D. config t

ip access-list extended wwwblock

deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80

int vlan 20

ip access-group wwwblock in

7.

Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)

a)

A. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

b)

B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

c)

C. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

d)

D. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

e)

E. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

8.

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

a)

A. The packets fail to match any permit statement

b)

B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access list

c)

C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

d)

D. The ACL is empty

e)

E. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

9.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on R1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any R1 interface and allows all other traffic?

a)

A. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22

access-list 100 permit ip any any

interface GigabitEthernet0/0

ip access-group 100 in

b)

B. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22

access-list 100 permit ip any any

c)

C. line vty 0 15

access-class 100 in

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23

access-list 100 permit ip any any

interface GigabitEthernet0/0

ip access-group 100 in

d)

D. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23

access-list 100 permit ip any any

line vty 0 15

access-class 100 in

10.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5:


Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?

a)

A. inbound on router A Fa0/0

b)

B. outbound on router B Fa0/0

c)

C. outbound on router A Fa0/1

d)

D. inbound on router B Fa0/1

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)

a)

A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

b)

B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255

c)

C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in

d)

D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127

e)

E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

12.

Refer to the exhibit.


interface GigabitEthernet0/1

ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

ip access-group 2699 in

!

access-list 2699 deny icmp any 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255 echo

access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 2699 permit ip any 10.10.1.0 0.0.0.255

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22


A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

a)

A. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

b)

B. no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

c)

C. access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

d)

D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

13.

Refer to exhibit

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?


Option A


Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 209.165.201.2 0.0.0.0

Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload

Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200

Router1(config)#ip nat inside

Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0

Router1(config)#ip nat outside


Option B


Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.255

Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload

Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200

Router1(config)#ip nat inside

Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0

Router1(config)#ip nat outside


Option C


Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 192.168.100.0 0.0.0.255

Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload

Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200

Router1(config)#ip nat inside

Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0

Router1(config)#ip nat outside


Option D


Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 192.168.100.32 0.0.0.31

Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload

Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200

Router1(config)#ip nat inside

Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0

Router1(config)#ip nat outside

a)

A. Option A

b)

B. Option B

c)

C. Option C

d)

D. Option D

14.

Refer to the exhibit.


An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface Gi0/1. Which access list must be applied?

a)

A. Option A

b)

B. Option B

c)

C. Option C

d)

D. Option D

15.

Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?

a)

A. show ipv6 interface

b)

B. show access-list

c)

C. show ipv6 access-list

d)

D. show ipv6 route

16.

Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected?

a)

A. There is a native VLAN mismatch

b)

B. Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

c)

C. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN

d)

D. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

17.

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?

a)

A. The link is in a downstate.

b)

B. The link is in an error disables stale

c)

C. The link is becomes an access port

d)

D. The link becomes a trunkport

18.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?

a)

A. switchport access vlan 67

b)

B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

c)

C. switchport private-vlan association host 67

d)

D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

19.

Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the


GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

SW1#show run int gig 0/1

interface GigabitEthernet0/1

switchport access vlan 11

switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-10

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport trunk native vlan 5

switchport mode trunk

speed 1000

duplex full

a)

A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5

b)

B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11

c)

C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1

d)

D. The frame is dropped

20.

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

a)

A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs

b)

B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table

c)

C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

d)

D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN

21.

An engineer must configure interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

a)

A. configure IEEE 802.1p

b)

B. configure IEEE 802.1q

c)

C. configure ISL

d)

D. configure DSCP

22.

Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two)

a)

A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel

b)

B. STP does not block EtherChannel links

c)

C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports

d)

D. EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel

e)

E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail

23.

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

a)

A. on

b)

B. auto

c)

C. active

d)

D. desirable

24.

Refer to the exhibit.

a)

A.

interface range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode active

b)

B.

interface range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode desirable

c)

C.

interface range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode passive

d)

D.

interface range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode auto

e)

E.

interface range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode on

25.

Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?

a)

A. standby 10 preempt

b)

B. standby 10 version 1

c)

C. standby 10 priority 150

d)

D. standby 10 version 2

26.

Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?

a)

A. show hsrp

b)

B. show sessions

c)

C. show interfaces

d)

D. show standby

27.

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

a)

A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN

b)

B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

c)

C. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them

d)

D. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

e)

E. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

28.

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

a)

A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP routing table

b)

B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN

c)

C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links and data path

d)

D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

29.

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

a)

A. It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information

b)

B. It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination

c)

C. It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric

d)

D. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network

30.

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

a)

A. listening

b)

B. backup

c)

C. forwarding

d)

D. standby

31.

A computer needs both hardware and software to work

a)

true

b)

false

32.

What manages the hardware and runs the software?

a)

Computer Systems

b)

Dedicated Systems

c)

Embedding Systems

d)

Operating Systems

33.

What is a good definition of software?

a)

parts of a computer that are soft

b)

Parts of a computer that you can't see

c)

A set of rules that tell a computer what to do

d)

games

34.

What does GUI stand for?

a)

Genuine Umpire Impressions

b)

Graphical User Interface

c)

Graphic Up Industry

35.

Which of these is an example of an operating system?

a)

Windows

b)

Word

c)

Excel

d)

PS3

36.

Application software is...

a)

help the user run specific tasks like word processors, web browser, email, clients, games, etc

b)

run tasks like the operating systems, utilities, etc

c)

help the user run things down

d)

run tasks like the doing my homework, revision, etc

37.

what is this operating system called

a)

windows

b)

mac os x

c)

linux

d)

penguin dude

38.

The term OS is short for?

a)

Apple

b)

Operating Software

c)

Operating System

d)

Overload System

39.
A computer can function without an operating system
a)
True
b)
False
40.
Which of the following is the process of starting or restarting a computer or mobile device?
a)
Booting
b)
Lauching 
c)
Loading
d)
Keying
41.
A(n) ______________________ is the most important software that runs on a computer.
a)
Operating System
b)
Windows
c)
Anti Virus
d)
iOS
42.
Which of the following is the most recent version of Windows?
a)
Windows 8
b)
Windows 7
c)
Windows 10
43.

The screen that you see when your computer has finished starting up is called the ____________.

a)

Task Bar

b)

Start up screen

c)

Home

d)

Desktop

44.
What operating system is this a symbol of?
a)
Mac OS X
b)
Linux
c)
Windows
45.

A computer uses ________ hold files

a)

Folder

b)

Icons

c)

Recycle bin

d)

Applications

46.

The Outlook signature can include

a)

Rich Text

b)

Handwritten signature (as image)

c)

Hyperlinks

d)

All of the above

47.

What do you call an email address that delivers the email to multiple recipient inboxes?

a)

Distribution List

b)

Shared Mailbox

c)

Contact List

d)

None of these

48.

Which among the following are Automatic Replies in Outlook, used for?

a)

send automatic acceptance for meeting invites

b)

configure automatic response for spam messages

c)

let people who send you email know that you won't be responding to their messages right away

49.

Which among the following options can be used to add a flag or reminder against a message that you create, or already received?

a)

Mark as Unread

b)

Move to Inbox

c)

Categorize

d)

Follow Up

50.

As a meeting organizer, you can choose whether to allow or restrict attendees to forward a meeting invitation to others.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

A file in OneDrive cannot be directly attached to an email.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

You can delay the delivery of an individual message by having them held in the Outbox for a specified time after you click Send.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Raju wants his colleague Arjun to respond to his email by a given date. Can Raju configure the email to do this?

a)

Yes

b)

No

54.

Can you directly set up a meeting from an email?

a)

Yes

b)

No

55.

Raju sent a meeting invite to three of his colleagues. Later he realised he would like to have a 4th colleague in the meeting. Can he choose to inform only the newly added person about the inclusion?

a)

Yes

b)

No

56.

What option in Outlook can be used to initiate a poll?

a)

Polly

b)

Voting Buttons

c)

Elect

d)

Rate

57.

How do you set Arial font for your emails as per 10xDS branding? Choose the best option

a)

File - Options - Mail - Stationary and Fonts - Select Arial

b)

New email - Write and select text and change the fonts everytime you send an email

c)

Any font is acceptable as per 10xDS branding hence font update is not required

58.

Which is the best way to set 'Out of office' emails?

a)

Professional email with a return date and Back-Up contact details

b)

Professional email with a return date

c)

Professional email with Back-Up contact details

59.

Raju sends an email to Arjun using the font 'Arial' in the content. Will Arjun be able to view the email in 'Arial' by default?

a)

Yes

b)

No

60.

You cannot accept or reject a meeting invite without notifying the organizer.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

What is this

a)

Outlook

b)

Lookout

c)

Inlook

d)

Lookin

62.

What do we use Outlook for?

a)

Email

b)

Document

c)

Games

d)

Drawing

63.

Number 5?

a)

Font

b)

Font size

c)

Font Color

64.

Name the buttons in area number 2.

a)

Bold - Italic - Underline

b)

Italic - Bold - Font Color

c)

Left - Italic - Right

d)

Font Color - Italic - Underline

65.

Number 1?

a)

Font

b)

Font size

c)

Font Color

66.

Number 3?

a)

Font

b)

Font size

c)

Font Color

67.

Number 1?

a)

List of emails

b)

Sender

c)

Subject

d)

Message preview box

68.

Number 2?

a)

New mail button

b)

Sender

c)

Subject

d)

Message preview box

69.

Number 3?

a)

New mail button

b)

Reply

c)

Subject

d)

Message preview box

70.

Number 4?

a)

New mail button

b)

Reply

c)

List of folders

d)

Message preview box

71.

Number 5?

a)

New mail button

b)

Reply

c)

List of folders

d)

List of emails

72.

Number 6?

a)

Sender

b)

Reply

c)

List of folders

d)

List of emails

73.

Number 7?

a)

Sender

b)

Subject

c)

List of folders

d)

List of emails

74.

Number 1?

a)

To

b)

Cc

c)

Bcc

d)

Subject

75.

Number 2?

a)

Text box

b)

Cc

c)

Bcc

d)

Subject

76.

Number 3?

a)

Text box

b)

Send button

c)

Bcc

d)

Subject

77.

Number 4?

a)

Text box

b)

Send button

c)

To

d)

Subject

78.

Number 5?

a)

Text box

b)

Send button

c)

To

d)

Cc

79.

Number 6?

a)

Bcc

b)

Send button

c)

To

d)

Cc