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Worksheets

Optional EOC Review

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

___________a molecule that is present in all living cells and that contains the information that determines the traits a living thing inherits and needs to live.

a)

Cell

b)

Stimulus

c)

Homeostasis

d)

DNA

2.
When you step out into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6F.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
3.
Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
4.
A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes.
a)
All living things adapt to their environment
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things have cells
d)
All living things use energy
5.
Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11".
a)
All living things contain cells
b)
All living things maintain homeostasis
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things grow
6.
The roots of a plant grow towards a source of ground water.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things reproduce
c)
All living things respond to their environment
d)
All living things grow
7.
YOU are a multi-celled organism but an amoeba is a single celled organism.
a)
All living things have cells
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things respond to their environment
8.
Which biomolecule is made of nucleotides and contain you DNA?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipids
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
9.
Which biomolecule helps form muscles?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Protein
d)
Lipids
10.
Which biomolecule is responsible for insulation and energy storage?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
11.
Which biomolecule has sugars and starches?
a)
Lipids
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Nucleic Acid
12.
Which biomolecule is your main source of energy?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
13.
Which biomolecule contains fats, oils, and waxes?
a)
Proteins
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipids
d)
Carbohydrate
14.
What do monomers do?
a)
Bonds to make a Polymer
b)
Creates Protiens
c)
Stores energy
d)
Splits to make more cells
15.
The monomer of a protein is called...
a)
an amino acid
b)
a monosaccharide
c)
a fatty acid
d)
a nucleotide
16.
Building blocks of polymers.
a)
monomer
b)
polypeptide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
glycerol
17.
What elements are common to all 4 biomolecules?
a)
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
b)
Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus
c)
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
d)
Carbon, Hydrogen, Phosphorus
18.

Which biomolecule makes up cell membranes?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic acid

19.
Which biomolecule is made of amino acids?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Protein
d)
Lipid
20.
What is the diffusion of water?
a)
osmosis
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
facilitated diffusion
21.
What are the three types of passive transport?
a)
osmosis, diffusion, active transport
b)
active transport, facilitated diffusion, osmosis
c)
diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion
d)
facilitated diffusion, active transport, diffusion
22.
What are the three types of transport that go from high to low concentration?
a)
active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion
b)
diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion
c)
osmosis, active transport, isotonic
d)
facilitated diffusion, hypertonic, active transport
23.
Which type of movement goes from low to high concentration?
a)
active transport
b)
diffusion
c)
osmosis, 
d)
facilitated diffusion
24.

What type of solution is a cell in when it gets bigger than normal while in tap water?

a)

hypertonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypotonic

25.

What type of solution is a cell in when it shrinks while in salt water?

a)

hypertonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypotonic

26.
What three substances make up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids, starches, nucleic acids
b)
lipids, fats, sugars
c)
lipids, sugars, proteins
d)
lipids, proteins, carbohydrates
27.

95% of the cells life cycle

Stage where DNA is copied

a)

Interphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

28.

Chromatids separate

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

29.

Nuclear membrane reforms around the new daughter cells.

Cytoplasm begins to "pinch" in.

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Interphase

30.

Programed cell death

a)

Chromosome

b)

Metaphase

c)

Interphase

d)

Apoptosis

31.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

32.

If an egg cell of an organism contains 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes should be present in a heart cell of the same organism?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

6

d)

48

33.

What is a gamete?

a)

a body cell (ex. skin or heart cell)

b)

an autosome

c)

a sex cell (ex. sperm or egg)

d)

a somatic cell

34.

Somatic cells are formed during what process?

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

DNA replication

d)

interphase

35.

The matching pair of chromosomes you inherit from your genetic parents are called

a)

sister chromatids

b)

autosomes

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

sex chromosomes

36.

When does "crossing over" of genes occur during meiosis?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

37.

How many chromosomes are in the somatic cells of humans?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

42

d)

26

38.

A diploid pea plant cell contains 14 chromosomes. How many chromsomes would be in a haploid pea plant cell?

a)

28

b)

14

c)

7

d)

21

39.

What is the purpose of meiosis?

a)

growth

b)

repair

c)

reproduction

d)

to create identical cells

40.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

growth and repair

b)

reproduction

c)

genetic diversity

d)

to create unique cells

41.

True or False: Crossing over only occurs in meiosis.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

True or False: DNA replication occurs only before mitosis

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

44.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

45.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

46.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

47.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
48.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
49.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
50.
What is the location in the cell for transcription?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
d)
mitochondria
51.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

52.

How many nucleotides code for 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

53.

What is the location in the cell for translation?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

54.

Where are chromosomes found?

a)

vacuole

b)

cell membrane

c)

nucleus

d)

mitochondria

55.

Segments of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) found in chromosomes that give instructions for producing a certain characteristic.

a)

heredity

b)

gene

c)

allele

d)

genotype

e)

phenotype

56.

The different forms of a gene.

a)

Genes

b)

Allele

c)

Phenotype

d)

Pedigree

57.

A trait that is always hidden when the dominant allele is present.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Recessive allele

c)

Genotype

d)

Heredity

58.

An organism that has two different alleles for a trait.

a)

Genes

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Genotype

d)

Dominant allele

59.

If two alleles are the same for a certain trait they are considered

a)

Homozygous

b)

Twins

c)

Heterozygous

d)

Common

60.
What is NOT an inherited trait of humans?
a)
Favorite type of music
b)
Freckles
c)
Hair color
d)
Height
61.

What word describes a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

camouflage

d)

adaptation

62.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Variation
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Extinction
63.
Which of the following explains adaptation.
a)
An individual organism changes to meet its needs in the environment. These changes pass down to their offspring.
b)
The species as a whole changes their characteristics.
c)
Beneficial traits allow organism to survive and pass on those traits
d)
New characteristics arise in a species as needed.  If these traits are helpful, they are passed down.
64.
Evolution works by 
a)
individuals changing to suit their environment
b)
Individuals learned new traits and pass them on
c)
sudden change in the environment cause a species change 
d)
small changes pass down through many generations
65.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
66.

Individuals undergo evolution.

a)

True

b)

False

67.
Which of the following is a factor in natural selection?
a)
Individuals of species compete with one another to survive.
b)
All species are genetically diverse.
c)
Individuals better able to adapt to changes leave more offspring.
d)
All are correct 
68.

Charles Darwin observed that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics, this supports the hypothesis that these finches

a)

are twins

b)

acquired traits through use and disuse.

c)

all eat the same type of food.

d)

descended from a common ancestor.

69.

Genetic drift is more likely to happen in...

a)

aquatic populations

b)

small populations

c)

terrestrial populations

d)

older populations

70.

Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...

a)

random chance

b)

natural selection

c)

non-random mating (sexual selection)

d)

artificial selection

71.

Which of the following is an example of the founder effect?

a)

Humans choose two dogs they like the characteristics of and breed them together.

b)

Affected individuals with blue skin can trace their ancestry back to one of the first settlers in the region.

c)

The environment of a fox population changes and over time foxes who are white survive and pass on their genes to their offspring.

d)

Cheetah populations reach their lowest levels with reduced diversity and as they rebound are so genetically similar they appear to be inbred.

72.

Which of the following is an example of the bottleneck effect?

a)

Cheetah populations reach their lowest levels with reduced diversity and as they rebound are so genetically similar they appear to be inbred.

b)

Affected individuals with blue skin can trace their ancestry back to one of the first settlers in the region.

c)

The environment of a fox population changes and over time foxes who are white survive and pass on their genes to their offspring.

d)

Humans choose two dogs they like the characteristics of and breed them together.

73.
The type of genetic drift that follows the colonization of a new habitat by a small group of individuals is called
a)
the Hardy-Weinberg principle
b)
the founder effect
c)
directional selection
d)
the bottleneck effect
74.
Which of the following is an example of the founder effect?
a)
Bald Eagles are hunted until near extinction, population recovers.
b)
Small group of iguanas floats to an island, starts a new population.
c)
Red fox pups are more likely to survive in a snowy environment if they are born white.
d)
Farmer chooses seeds from largest apples to plant next year.  This results in larger apples from year to year.
75.

Hunting reduced the population size of the northern elephant seal to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Their population has since rebounded to over 30,000, but much have less genetic variation than a population of southern elephant seals that were not intensely hunted. How is the lack of genetic variation related to the hunting episodes of the 1800's?

a)

Genetic Drift Occurred/Genetic Bottleneck: the few individuals left behind were the seals that passed on the specific gene pool.

b)

Genetic Drift Occurred/Founder Effect: the few individuals left behind were the seals that passed on the specific gene pool.

c)

Natural Selection Occurred/Survival of the Fittest: only the strongest northern elephant seals survived in the 1800's and that restricted gene pool exists today.

d)

Adaptation Occurred: Some seals were able to adapt to the hunting environment and they survived to pass on their genes.

76.

This occurs when a large population is drastically reduced by an event such as a natural disaster; the population's new gene pool only contains alleles from the survivors

a)

Founder effect

b)

Bottleneck effect

c)

Meteor effect

d)

Natural selection

77.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
78.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
79.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
80.
What does Darwin's theory of evolution suggest?
a)
species change over time
b)
extinct species are not related to living species
c)
different species can interbreed
d)
animals that look alike are most closely related
81.
What type of structures are these?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial 
c)
analogous
d)
fossil
82.
Which of these best represents a time period in which an organism could evolve?
a)
5 days
b)
100 years
c)
10,000 years
d)
2 decades
83.

Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis (hip) bone. Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)

a)

vestigial structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

homologous structure

84.
Where humans have bred organisms together based on traits we like.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction 
d)
Artificial Selection
85.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
86.
An error in DNA copying that results in a new trait
a)
Homeostasis
b)
Mutation
c)
Natural Selection
d)
Selective Breeding
87.

What is an individual?

a)

One individual member of a species

b)

a group of individuals of a species

c)

all the different populations of a species that live in an area together

d)

a community of organisms and their physical environment

88.

What is a community?

a)

One individual of a species

b)

a group of individuals living together in an area

c)

all the different populations living together in an area

d)

different communities and their physical environment

89.

What is an example of a population?

a)

One lion

b)

A group of lions living in the same area

c)

Lions, gazelles, and elephants

d)

A savannah

90.
Nonliving factor that affects an ecosystem...
a)
biotic factor
b)
abiotic factor
c)
food chain 
d)
biome
91.

Living factors or organisms that affect an ecosystem...

a)

abiotic factors

b)

species

c)

trophic level

d)

biotic factors

92.
A collection of organisms that make up a community as well as all of the nonliving aspects of the environment.
a)
Population
b)
Community
c)
Habitat
d)
Ecosystem
93.

What type of growth is shown on this graph?

a)

Logistic

b)

Exponential

c)

Carrying Capacity

94.

Does the graph represent an exponential growth or logistic growth?

a)

Exponential Growth

b)

Logistic Grwoth

95.

What process makes glucose in plant cells?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Osmosis

d)

Transpiration

96.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
97.

Temperatures that are too high can slow photosynthesis because

a)

stomata stay open

b)

enzymes are ruined

c)

there is not enough CO2

d)

there is too much water

98.
What are the raw materials of photosynthesis?
a)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
water and glucose
99.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
water and glucose
100.
What is the chemical formula for glucose?
a)
C6H12O6
b)
C6H6O12
c)
C12H6O12
d)
C6O2H6
101.
Which choice correctly shows the gases that enter and exit plants during photosynthesis?
a)
Enter: Oxygen
Exit: Carbon dioxide
b)
Enter: Water vapor
Exit: Glucose
c)
Enter: Carbon dioxide
Exit: Oxygen
d)
Enter: Light
Exit: Water vapor
102.
After photosynthesis, plants store their energy as _________ .
a)
chlorophyll
b)
pigment
c)
glucose (sugar)
d)
Oxygen
103.
If carbon dioxide is completely removed from a plant’s environment, what would you expect to happen to the plant’s production of high-energy sugars (rate of photosynthesis)?
a)
Sugar production will likely increase.
b)
Sugars will not be produced.
c)
The rate of sugar production will decrease .
d)
Fewer sugars will be produced at first, but then the plant will recover.
104.

Most of the oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere was produced by —

a)

a big explosion

b)

photosynthesis

c)

digestion

d)

metabolism

105.

Why does the rate of photosynthesis decrease at high temperatures?

a)

Enzymes are denatured

b)

Enzymes do not have enough kinetic energy

106.

Energy is produced during cellular respiration and stored in the form of ______.

a)

APT

b)

ATP

c)

TPA

d)

PTA

107.

Which of the following represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose + water + oxygen --> carbon dioxide + energy

b)

Carbon dioxide + water + energy --> glucose + oxygen

c)

Glucose + oxygen --> carbon dioxide + water + energy

d)

Glucose + water + carbon dioxide --> oxygen + energy

108.

Which of the following is produced during the process of cellular respiration?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Energy (ATP)

c)

Water

d)

All of the above

109.

Which of the following is TRUE?

a)

Only animals undergo cellular respiration.

b)

Only plants undergo cellular respiration.

c)

Both plants and animals undergo cellular respiration.

d)

Neither plants nor animals undergo cellular respiration.

110.

Why is cellular respiration important to animals?

a)

It produces glucose.

b)

It forms carbon dioxide.

c)

It uses oxygen.

d)

It stores energy in ATP.

111.

How is the carbon cycle similar to the water cycle?

a)

Both involve liquid substances falling to the Earth from the atmosphere?

b)

Neither process works at low temperature.

c)

Both involve the transfer of substances between animals, plants, and the Earth.

d)

Both involve the transfer of substances between the earth and outer space.

112.
Respiration is the process by which animals take in _____ and release _____. 
a)
photosynthesis, air
b)
carbon, oxygen
c)
oxygen
d)
oxygen, carbon dioxide
113.

Which gas do animals release, that plants depend on for survival?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Sunlight

d)

Water

114.

Which of the following processes does NOT move carbon to the atmosphere?

a)

Animal respiration (Breathing)

b)

Volcanic eruption

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Burning fossil fuels

115.

Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what part of the lithosphere?

a)

water

b)

nutrients

c)

air

d)

fossil fuels

116.
Which one of these does not add CO2 to the atmosphere?
a)
cooking with gas
b)
planting trees
c)
burning wood
d)
riding in a bus
117.

How do plants affect the air that animals and people breathe?

a)

Plants use oxygen from the air to make their own food

b)

Plants release pollution into the air

c)

Plants take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen

d)

Plants take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide

118.

Why is burning fossil fuels harmful?

a)

they cause cancer

b)

They can get extremely hot

c)

it increases the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

d)

this would destroy fossils

119.

What is the source of energy for the Water Cycle?

a)

Ocean

b)

Wind

c)

Moon

d)

Sun

120.

Match the following

a)

occurs when the sun heats water up and it becomes vapor in the air.

1.

Evaporation

b)

the opposite of evaporation; it occurs when air cools and the vapor collects into liquid form.

2.

Condensation

c)

condensation falling onto land in the form of rain, sleet, hail, snow, and mist. Only 10% of water evaporated falls as precipitation.

3.

Precipitation

d)

the downward movement of water from the land surface into the soil or porous rock. Ground water begins as precipitation. Once water infiltrates the soil it can move vertically and horizontally through the soil.

4.

Infiltration

e)

is the water that exists for long periods below the Earth’s surface.

5.

Groundwater storage

121.

The process of  water that is added to the atmosphere from plants is called

a)

Condensation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Precipitation

d)

Transpiration

122.

Which nitrogen cycle process is occurring when bacteria convert ammonium to nitrite and then into nitrate?

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

ammonification

e)

assimilation

123.
Organisms that need nitrogen to survive
a)
only plants
b)
only animals
c)
only bacteria
d)
all living organisms
124.
Plants and animals cannot use nitrogen directly from the air.
a)
True
b)
False
125.
Nitrification happens in the ______
a)
Air 
b)
Soil 
c)
Ground Water 
d)
Plants 
126.

Why is denitrification is important?

a)

Removes harmful nitrates from environment

b)

Uses up excess oxygen

c)

Nitrogen is better in the soil than the atmosphere

d)

Nitrates are better for the atmosphere

127.

From where do plants absorb nitrogen?

a)

Water

b)

Air

c)

Soil

d)

Animals

128.

How can Nitrogen gas (N2) be fixed into a usable form for plants?

a)

Through the action of bacteria only

b)

Through lightning only

c)

Through the action of bacteria and lightning

129.

A correct path that Nitrogen could take would be...

a)

Air--> Animals--> Plants--> Bacteria

b)

Air--> Bacteria--> Plants--> Animals

130.

Which ones are usable forms of Nitrogen? Check more than one correct answer

a)

Ammonia (NH3)

b)

Atmospheric Nitrogen (N2)

c)

Nitrates (NO3)

d)

Oxygen (O2)

131.

What are the important biological factors in the Phosphorus Cycle?

a)

Animals

b)

Decomposers

c)

Plants

d)

Water

e)

Rocks

132.

This is NOT a part of the phosphorus cycle.

a)

Phosphate is incorporated into sedimentary rocks

b)

Phosphate bound to soil

c)

Atmospheric phosphate

d)

Phosphate is absorbed from the soil by plants

133.
_____ brings phosphorous into our waterways. .
a)
precipitation
b)
runoff
c)
transpiration
d)
condensation
134.
This is released by the weathering of rocks.
a)
Carbon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Phosphorus
d)
Nitrogen
135.
Which of the following statements is true of the phosphorus cycle?
a)

Phosphorus enters the atmosphere as phosphates.

b)

The phosphorus cycle utilizes the processes of erosion, and weathering.

c)

Phosphates are used in carbohydrate and glucose storage.

d)

Phosphoru

136.

Match the following

a)

Erosion

1.

the movement of sediment by wind or water

b)

Weathering

2.

the breaking down of rocks

c)

Runoff

3.

rocks, minerals, or other molecules carried by water to bodies of water

137.

The warming of the Earth's atmosphere is called...

a)

The Ozone Layer

b)

The Greenhouse Effect

c)

The Carbon Cycle

d)

The El Niño Effect

138.

Primary succession occurs in an area that has:

a)

Has Soil

b)

Has No Soil

c)

Has Some Soil

d)

none of these

139.

___ are the first organisms to colonize an area and begin the process of ecological succession.

a)

foundational organisms

b)

introductory organisms

c)

primary organisms

d)

pioneer species

140.

What is the main difference between primary and secondary ecological succession?

a)

Primary begins WITHOUT soil; Secondary begins WITH soil

b)

Primary is the first state and secondary is the second stage

c)

Primary builds plant community; secondary builds animal community.

d)

Primary begins WITH soil; Secondary begins WITHOUT soil

141.

Which of the following is the correct order of ecological succession?

a)

grass - shrubs - lichens - trees

b)

lichens - shrubs - grasses - trees

c)

lichens - grasses - shrubs - trees

d)

grasses - lichens - shrubs - trees

142.

What is an increase of biodiversity over time, after a natural or man made disturbance?

a)

ecological recession

b)

climax recession

c)

ecological succession

d)

climax succession

143.

What is the term that describes a steady and stable community?

a)

peak community

b)

turf community

c)

climax community

d)

disturbed community

144.

What type of disturbance can be beneficial to ecosystems and communities?

a)

Volcanic Eruption

b)

Fire

c)

Invasive Species

d)

Flood

145.

Which is faster: Primary or Secondary Succession?

a)

Primary Succession

b)

Secondary Succession

c)

Both Take The Same Amount of Time

146.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate

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