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WorksheetsFire & Explosion Study Game
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is NOT an objective of a fire investigation? [Chapter 1, pg. 5]
a)
Determine the cause of the fire.
b)
Determine what factors may have contributed to the fire.
c)
Determine financial impact of the fire on the insurance company.
d)
Determine who is responsible for the fire.
2.
A fire investigator should use the scientific method: [Chapter 1, pg. 5]
a)
on fires involving a fatality.
b)
only on fires that cause more than $50,000 damage.
c)
on all fires.
d)
only for fires that cause injury or death.
3.
The use and acceptance of the NFPA 921 document is determined by the: [Chapter 1, pg. 5]
a)
state/provincial supreme court.
b)
local authority.
c)
fire marshal for each state/province.
d)
local courts and prosecuting attorneys.
4.
Which NFPA document is used by fire investigators to conduct fire investigations? [Chapter 1, pg. 4]
a)
NFPA 1031
b)
NFPA 921
c)
NFPA 912
d)
NFPA 1500
5.
NFPA 921 is designed to produce a/an framework to ensure an effective fire investigation and cause analysis. [Chapter 1, pg. 5]
a)
systematic
b)
purposeful
c)
hypothetical
d)
encompassing
6.
The first edition of NFPA 921 was issued in: [Chapter 1, pg. 5]
a)
1972.
b)
1988.
c)
1992.
d)
1977.
7.
According to NFPA 1033, the minimum education requirements for an investigator is: [Chapter 1, pg. 5]
a)
an associate degree.
b)
a high school diploma or equivalent.
c)
a bachelor’s degree.
d)
There is no minimum requirement for education.
8.
The investigator standard makes a requirement that no other professional qualification standard requires, and that is: [Chapter 1, pg. 7]
a)
an investigator must have successfully completed a background investigation.
b)
an investigator must complete all JPRs to become certified.
c)
a person must be 18 years old or older to be certified.
d)
a person should complete appropriate training to learn all skills.
9.
If a person or entity is unhappy with a final document as voted on during the annual meeting, that person or entity can appeal the membership vote to the: [Chapter 1, pg. 8]
a)
technical correlating committee over the standard that was approved.
b)
Standards Council.
c)
Board of Directors.
d)
Appeals Board of the NFPA.
10.
If a fire investigator seeks clarification on the intent or meaning of an NFPA standard, the technical committee can vote and issue a/an in response to the inquirer. [Chapter 1, pg. 9]
a)
errata
b)
Temporary Interim Amendment (TIA)
c)
Formal Interpretation (FI)
d)
stop gap
11.
Theory supported by the empirical data that the investigator has collected through observation and then developed into an explanation for the fire is considered: [Chapter 2, pg. 22]
a)
inductive reasoning.
b)
the scientific method.
c)
deductive reasoning.
d)
a hypothesis.
12.
Fire investigations should be carried out using: [Chapter 2, pg. 16]
a)
the scientific method.
b)
as many resources as possible.
c)
quick and effective methods as the investigation will allow.
d)
the NFPA 921 standard.
13.
During an investigation it is essential that the investigation be carried out in a manner to ensure that all aspects of the fire scene are addressed. [Chapter 2, pg. 16]
a)
haphazard
b)
consistent
c)
quick
d)
ongoing
14.
The first step in the scientific method used by a fire investigator is to: [Chapter 2, pg. 17]
a)
collect data.
b)
develop a hypothesis.
c)
recognize the need to use the scientific method.
d)
evaluate the scene for evidence.
15.
Collecting data such as debris samples, collecting witness statements, and documenting the fire scene are accomplished during the step of the investigation process. [Chapter 2, pg. 17]
a)
first
b)
fourth
c)
second
d)
third
16.
Data that are collected at a fire scene that can be verified or validated as true are considered: [Chapter 2, pg. 17]
a)
conditional evidence.
b)
empirical data.
c)
factual data.
d)
raw evidence.
17.
Testing the hypothesis can be accomplished by using all of the following EXCEPT: [Chapter 2, pg. 19]
a)
the parenthesis process.
b)
deductive reasoning.
c)
cognitive testing.
d)
lab analysis.
18.
When approaching an investigation the investigator should have a/an mind without presumptions. [Chapter 2, pg. 20]
a)
focused
b)
open
c)
analytical
d)
conscious
19.
uses a person’s thinking skills and judgment to evaluate the empirical data and challenge the conclusions of the final hypothesis. [Chapter 2, pg. 22]
a)
Cognitive testing
b)
Deductive reasoning
c)
Rationalization
d)
Inductive reasoning
20.
Preconceived determination or premature conclusions as to the cause or origin of the fire are considered: [Chapter 2, pg. 22]
a)
proactive.
b)
preemptive.
c)
expectation bias.
d)
experience bias.
21.
How many natural elements are there? [Chapter 3, pg. 26]
a)
78
b)
92
c)
101
22.
The most important compounds to a fire investigator are: [Chapter 3, pg. 26]
a)
iron based.
b)
pyroganic.
c)
carbon-based.
d)
inorganic.
23.
The process of heating a solid so as to cause the material to decay and produce fire gases is known as: [Chapter 3, pg. 26]
a)
pyrolysis.
b)
oxidation.
c)
vaporization.
d)
combustion.
24.
The rate at which heat is released is known as the heat release rate (HRR) and is measured in: [Chapter 3, pg. 28]
a)
calories per second.
b)
calories per minute.
c)
joules per minute.
d)
joules per second.
25.
The stoichiometric ratio is the concentration that exists: [Chapter 3, pg. 28]
a)
above the LEL and below the UEL.
b)
below the LEL and above the UEL.
c)
above the LEL and above the UEL.
d)
below the LEL and below the UEL.
26.
As a plume entrains air into itself the diameter of the plume will: [Chapter 3, pg. 29]
a)
decrease.
b)
increase.
c)
not change.
d)
flatten out.
27.
The “peaked” temperature is measured during which phase of fire development? [Chapter, pg. 31]
a)
Decay
b)
Incipient
c)
Growth
d)
Steady state
28.
When discussing flame heights to regions of the fire, the continuously flaming region refers to the: [Chapter 3, pg. 32]
a)
lower visible flame.
b)
upper visible flame.
c)
area above the visible flame.
d)
stoichiometric area of the flame.
29.
Which of the following is NOT a factor in the ignition of a fuel? [Chapter 3, pgs. 32-33]
a)
Form of the fuel
b)
The quality of oxygen present
c)
Proximity of the fuel to the heat source
d)
Duration of exposure
30.
Which of the following materials will not spontaneously ignite when exposed to air? [Chapter 3, pg. 35]
a)
Charcoal
b)
Sodium
c)
White phosphorus
d)
Potassium
31.
The visible or measurable physical changes or identifiable shapes formed by a fire are known as: [Chapter 4, pg. 44]
a)
fire patterns.
b)
fire effects.
c)
flame effects.
d)
demarcation exposures.
32.
The observable or measurable changes in or on a material as a result of exposure to fire are known as: [Chapter 4, pg. 44]
a)
fire patterns.
b)
fire effects.
c)
flame patterns.
d)
exposure effects.
33.
The amount of mass loss of a material during a fire is influenced by all of the following factors EXCEPT which one? [Chapter 4, pg. 45]
a)
Heat flux
b)
Fire growth rate
c)
Oxidation rate
d)
The object’s heat release rate
34.
Which of the following statements about charring is most CORRECT? [Chapter 4, pg. 45]
a)
Depth of char is the single most accurate method to determine fire duration in a room.
b)
The standard rate of char is 1 inch every 45 minutes.
c)
Shiny char blisters are a positive indicator of the use of an ignitable liquid.
d)
Rate of charring is influenced by ventilation effects and orientation of the wood grain.
35.
The chipping or pitting of concrete or masonry surfaces that also might include areas of different coloration is known as: [Chapter 4, pg. 46]
a)
charring.
b)
spalling.
c)
oxidation.
d)
calcinations.
36.
Steel structures such as columns and beams begin to buckle and bend at and melt or start to liquefy at . [Chapter 4, pgs. 45-46]
a)
1000°F (538°C); 1800°F (982°C)
b)
1200°F (649°C); 2000 (1093°C)
c)
1000°F (538°C); 2660°F (1460°C)
d)
1400°F (760°C); 2320°F (1271°C)
37.
As gypsum board is exposed to fire the organics and other materials will change in color, often becoming in appearance. [Chapter 4, pg. 48]
a)
browner
b)
whiter
c)
yellow
d)
darker
38.
What are the primary pieces of information used by the investigator to identify fire patterns? [Chapter 4, pg. 50]
a)
Physical effects
b)
Rainbow effects
c)
Shadowing effects
d)
Fire effects
39.
A distinguishing border between affected and less affected areas of the object or surface is known as: [Chapter 4, pg. 52]
a)
a line of demarcation.
b)
a burn pattern.
c)
the calcification line.
d)
a suppression-generated pattern.
40.
is an indicator of fire direction on a wood wall stud. [Chapter 4, pg. 54]
a)
Spalling
b)
Beveling
c)
Calcification
d)
Charring
41.
Fuel hat escapes from a fuel delivery system through containers or piping is referred to as: [Chapter 7, pg. 111]
a)
expendable fuel.
b)
lost gas.
c)
disposable fuel.
d)
fugitive gas.
42.
A fuel gas system to either a building or an appliance can do all of the following EXCEPT: [Chapter 7, pg. 110]
a)
act as the initial fuel source.
b)
be the initial ignition source.
c)
act as the oxidizer for the incipient source.
d)
be the fuel and ignition source.
43.
Which of the following is NOT an important standard or source that an investigator should understand when dealing with fuel gas systems that are found in residences or commercial occupancies? [Chapter 7, pg. 110]
a)
NFPA 54, National Fuel Gas Code
b)
29 CFR Part 311, EPA Standard for Natural Gas and Residential and Commercial Use
c)
49 CFR Part 192, “Transportation of Natural and Other Gases by Pipeline: Minimum Safety Standards”
d)
NFPA 58, Liquefied Petroleum Gas Code
44.
According to NFPA 58, the odorant that is added to LPG and natural gas must be detectable when the fuel gas is at a concentration of not less than of its lower explosive limit. [Chapter 7, pg. 112]
a)
one tenth
b)
10 percent
c)
half
d)
one fifth
45.
The pressure relief valve on an LPG tank or cylinder is designed to open at: [Chapter 7, pg. 13]
a)
300 psi (2068 kPa)
b)
250 psi (1724 kPa)
c)
150 psi (1034 kPa)
d)
200 psi (1379 kPa)
46.
All of the following are container appurtenances that are or could be found on an LPG tank EXCEPT: [Chapter 7, pg. 13, 15]
a)
fusible plug.
b)
pressure gauge.
c)
temperature gauge.
d)
fixed level gauge.
47.
Which of the following is NOT a component of a water heater? [Chapter 7, pg. 119]
a)
Drum
b)
Combustion chamber
c)
Dip tube
d)
Flue baffle
48.
What percentage of gas leaks are caused by corrosion of pipes or appliance fittings? [Chapter7, pg. 121]
a)
20 percent
b)
30 percent
c)
15 percent
d)
25 percent
49.
According to NFPA 54, gas meters must be installed at least from sources of ignition and they should be protected from damage. [Chapter 7, pg. 122]
a)
2 feet (0.6 meters)
b)
3 feet (0.9 meters)
c)
4 feet (1.2 meters)
d)
5 feet (1.5 meters)
50.
The process of the odorant being removed from the gas either by soil or being absorbed by the piping is known as: [Chapter 7, pg. 122]
a)
deodorizing.
b)
parting.
c)
scrubbing.
d)
filtering.
51.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic seen in human behavior related to a fire? [Chapter 8, pg. 128-129]
a)
Characteristics of the group or population
b)
Characteristics of the individual
c)
Characteristics of the fire fighters
d)
Characteristics of the fire
52.
Which age group is affected the most during an emergency? [Chapter 8, pg. 128]
a)
Middle-age adults
b)
Teenagers
c)
Very young and very old
d)
All age groups are affected during an emergency.
53.
Which of following is NOT part of the characteristics of the group or population as it relates to behavior during an emergency? [Chapter 8, pg. 129]
a)
Group size
b)
Roles and norms
c)
Group structure
d)
Intrinsic value
54.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fire that affects an individual’s or group’s behavior when exposed to a threat? [Chapter 8, pg. 130]
a)
Presence of flames
b)
Effect of fire suppression system
c)
Presence of smoke
d)
Effects of toxic gases and oxygen depletion
55.
Depletion of oxygen below results in impairment of motor and mental skills and can be fatal to occupants. [Chapter 8, pg. 130]
a)
21 percent
b)
19 percent
c)
17 percent
d)
15 percent
56.
Proper warning labels on a container consist of components. [Chapter 8, pg. 132]
a)
three
b)
four
c)
six
d)
five
57.
The age group for child firesetters is years of age. [Chapter 8, pg. 133]
a)
7 to 13
b)
2 to 6
c)
14 to 16
d)
5 to 10
58.
Fires set near or around homes or at educational institutions are typical of which category of youth firesetters? [Chapter 8, pg. 133]
a)
Child
b)
Adolescent
c)
Preadolescent
d)
Juvenile
59.
Which group typically suffers from psychological or emotional problems and sets fires as a reaction to stress, anxiety, or anger? [Chapter 8, pg. 133]
a)
Adolescent firesetters
b)
Child firesetters
c)
Juvenile firesetters
d)
Preadolescent firesetters
60.
The occupant’s actions in an emergency are based on which four factors? [Chapter 8, pg. 133]
a)
Sound, feel, temperature, and exits
b)
Seeing, hearing, notification, and smoke conditions
c)
Smell, alertness level, physical conditions, and occupancy
d)
Sight, sound, feel, and smell
61.
Which amendment of the U.S. Constitution protects property owners from unwarranted or unlawful searches of their property? [Chapter 9, pg. 140]
a)
Fifth
b)
Fourth
c)
First
d)
Tenth
62.
Based on NFPA 1033, how many main responsibilities is a fire investigator responsible to know? [Chapter 9, pg. 138]
a)
Five
b)
Six
c)
Seven
d)
Eight
63.
Public sector fire investigators’ authority to conduct investigations is conferred by all of the following methods EXCEPT: [Chapter 9, pg. 138-139]
a)
contract.
b)
statute.
c)
ordinance.
d)
case law.
64.
What is the purpose of an immunity reporting act for insurance companies? [Chapter 9, pg. 139]
a)
Allows insurance companies the ability to investigate fires in a jurisdiction without interference from local authorities
b)
Requires insurance companies to report only criminal activities found during a fire investigation
c)
Allows insurance companies to report fires to local authorities and be immune to civil/criminal liability
d)
Provides immunity to private fire investigators hired by insurance companies
65.
All of the following are circumstances that justify a search and seizure to conduct a fire scene investigation EXCEPT: [Chapter 9, pg. 140]
a)
exigent circumstances.
b)
criminal search warrant.
c)
consent of the owner.
d)
authority under the First Amendment.
66.
Which of the following is NOT part of the Miranda Rule? [Chapter 9, pg. 141]
a)
Right to remain silent
b)
Right to have an attorney present during questioning
c)
Warning that any statement made by the defendant can be used against him or her as evidence
d)
Right to know the evidence against the defendant
67.
When evidence is found at a fire scene you should do all of the following EXCEPT [Chapter 9, pg. 143]
a)
protect the evidence at the scene.
b)
contact the occupant for permission to remove the evidence.
c)
document the evidence as found, with pictures and drawings.
d)
clearly mark the evidence and keep unauthorized individuals away from it.
68.
A section of flooring that contains burn patterns that is presented in a court room is considered: [Chapter 9, pg. 145]
a)
real evidence.
b)
documentary evidence.
c)
testimonial evidence.
d)
significant evidence.
69.
The rule or standard that is used by a judge to determine the qualifications of an expert witness is referred to as the: [Chapter 9, pg. 148]
a)
Fire Investigator qualifications standard developed by the NFPA.
b)
IAAI certification standard.
c)
Daubert standard.
d)
Mirada standard.
70.
Once a fire has been classified as incendiary, the next step is to: [Chapter 9, pg. 150]
a)
identify the fire setter and motive.
b)
collect evidence at the scene.
c)
notify the city/county attorney.
d)
contact the police to make an arrest.
71.
What is one of the primary concerns that fire investigators should have at every fire scene? [Chapter 10, pg. 158]
a)
Safety for themselves and others working with them
b)
Following the scientific method during the investigation
c)
Contacting the incident commander before entering the scene
d)
Documenting any safety problems noticed during the investigation
72.
To help identify the area under investigation the fire investigator should use to establish a clear barrier limiting access to the scene. [Chapter 10, pg. 159]
a)
a hose line
b)
barrier tape
c)
a cold zone
d)
fire apparatus
73.
Once an investigator has obtained permission from the IC to enter a fire scene, the next thing the investigator should do is: [Chapter 10, pg. 160]
a)
don protective equipment and SCBA.
b)
notify the fire chief of any findings.
c)
assess the scene for any hazards or risks.
d)
set up a barrier around the scene.
74.
All of the following are hazards that an investigator should identify once on scene EXCEPT: [Chapter 10, pg. 160]
a)
structural hazards.
b)
chemical hazards.
c)
biological hazards.
d)
legal hazards.
75.
Which of the following chemicals is present at every fire scene and is a known carcinogen? [Chapter 10, pg. 163]
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Benzene
d)
Phosgene
76.
What is the most limiting factor in the use of an air-purifying respirator during a fire investigation? [Chapter 10, pg. 162]
a)
The weight of the unit on the wearer
b)
The use with different types of toxins
c)
That it cannot be used under fire conditions
d)
That it cannot be used in oxygen-deficient atmospheres
77.
Carbon monoxide attaches to hemoglobin times more readily than oxygen does. [Chapter 10, pg. 164]
a)
300
b)
250
c)
200
d)
150
78.
A wall collapsing onto a floor in a building that has been damaged by fire is considered a/an load. [Chapter 10, pg. 166]
a)
live
b)
dead
c)
collapse
d)
impact
79.
Which NFPA standard is referenced in the OSHA regulation 29 CFR 1910.120? [Chapter 10, pg. 170]
a)
NFPA 1033
b)
NFPA 1001
c)
NFPA 472
d)
NFPA 921
80.
A Permit-Required Confined Space, as defined by OSHA, includes all of the following criteria EXCEPT: [Chapter 10, pg. 170]
a)
signage designating the space as a Confined Space.
b)
limited or restricted means of entrance or exit.
c)
the space is not designed for continuous employee occupancy.
d)
a space where an employee can bodily enter and perform assigned work.
81.
The most common methods to document an interview include all of the following EXCEPT: [Chapter 11, pg. 178]
a)
written notes.
b)
digital recording.
c)
video recording.
d)
tape recording.
82.
What new technology has helped the fire investigator be able to locate and collect information more quickly and efficiently? [Chapter 11, pg. 176]
a)
Computers
b)
The Internet
c)
Local and state databases
d)
More effective investigation techniques
83.
Which of the following is an example of “privileged communication”? [Chapter 11, pg. 176]
a)
Fire chief to fire fighter
b)
Witness to fire investigator
c)
Attorney to client
d)
Teacher to student
84.
A recording of a police officer’s initial report on arrival at a fire is considered which type of information? [Chapter 11, pg. 176]
a)
Verbal
b)
Written
c)
Visual
d)
Recorded
85.
Which of the following is the most CORRECT? [Chapter 11, pg. 177]
a)
When gathering information the investigator should collect everything possible.
b)
All information gathered is important regardless of its source.
c)
An investigator can only use information that is gathered at the scene of the fire.
d)
It is important that the investigator evaluate the accuracy of the source of the information.
86.
Which type of information gathered by an investigator may prove to be the most valuable information obtained during a fire investigation? [Chapter 11, pg. 177]
a)
Scene diagrams
b)
Photographic evidence
c)
Interviews
d)
Samples taken from the fire scene
87.
When a court has approved a bankruptcy it is recorded in the county’s: [Chapter 11, pg. 179]
a)
recorder’s office.
b)
clerk’s office.
c)
assessor’s office.
d)
treasurer’s office.
88.
Which state agency would be a source of information concerning a waste disposal permit and would work with the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)? [Chapter 11, pg. 181]
a)
Department of Health
b)
Department of Natural Resources
c)
Department of State
d)
Department of Transportation
89.
Which agency provides professional credentials for fire investigators? [Chapter 11, pg. 182]
a)
Insurance Association of American
b)
U.S. Fire Administration
c)
National Fire Protection Association
d)
International Association of Arson Investigators
90.
Which of the following would be considered confidential communication? [Chapter 11, pg. 176]
a)
Conversation between a fire chief and a fire fighter
b)
Conversation between a husband and wife
c)
Conversation between a doctor and a patient
d)
Conversation between a priest and member of the parish
91.
If possible, the best way to investigate a fire scene is: [Chapter 12, pg. 188]
a)
while fire suppression operations are still going on.
b)
start to finish with only on investigator.
c)
as part of a team of investigators working together.
d)
alone and undistracted by outside influences.
92.
Which of the following is an area that a fire investigator can preplan before any investigation?
a)
The number of investigators needed for an investigation
b)
The source of technical experts that could assist during an investigation
c)
The budget and cost of an investigation
d)
The amount of equipment needed for an investigation
93.
If operating in an ICS format, the lead investigator for a fire investigation would be the: [Chapter 12, pg. 189]
a)
incident commander.
b)
operations chief.
c)
liaison officer.
d)
planning chief.
94.
During the initial assignment and response to an incident the fire investigator needs to collect all of the following basic information EXCEPT: [Chapter 12, pg. 189]
a)
location of the incident.
b)
size and complexity of the incident.
c)
reporting party and discovering party.
d)
dollar loss.
95.
Six basic functions are commonly performed during each investigation. Which of the following is NOT one of these basic functions? [Chapter 12, pg. 190]
a)
Leadership and coordination
b)
Scene salvage and overhaul
c)
Searching the scene
d)
Gathering witness statements
96.
An effective investigator will recognize his or her own and how it could affect an investigation. [Chapter 12, pg. 192]
a)
power
b)
influence
c)
expertise
d)
limitations
97.
The final report produced from an investigation must meet the: [Chapter 12, pg. 193]
a)
NFPA 921 standard to be acceptable in court.
b)
requirements of the court that will hear the case.
c)
NFPA 1033 guidelines, Appendix B.
d)
requirements of the jurisdiction of the investigator.
98.
Who could assist an investigator in conducting a strength-of-material test for an investigation? [Chapter 12, pg. 193]
a)
Fire protection engineer
b)
Mechanical engineer
c)
Chemical engineer
d)
Engineering technician
99.
Which type of expert might an investigator use when determining how a material might change under heat and fire conditions? [Chapter 12, pg. 193]
a)
Materials engineer
b)
Mechanical engineer
c)
Forensic assessor
d)
Fire chemist
100.
Proper case management will accomplish all of the following EXCEPT: [Chapter 12, pg. 193]
a)
ensure the collection of all empirical data to meet the scope of the investigation.
b)
meet the objectives of the investigation.
c)
develop a final report that could be used in court.
d)
determine the cause of the fire in all cases.
101.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning photographing a fire scene? [Chapter 13, pg. 198]
a)
Black-and-white photographs are most effective for a fire scene.
b)
The person who took the photographs is usually not the same person who presents them in court.
c)
The best lighting to use on a fire scene is natural light.
d)
Recording a scene should happen early and often during the investigation.
102.
The primary method of recording a fire scene is through: [Chapter 13, pg. 198]
a)
visual media.
b)
verbal sources.
c)
written documentation.
d)
case files.
103.
The investigator’s goal is to record the fire scene through a that will allow the investigator to recall his or her observations at a later date. [Chapter 13, pg. 198]
a)
process
b)
medium
c)
forum
d)
written format
104.
The predominant color encountered in a fire or explosion that a investigator must deal with when photographing a scene is: [Chapter 13, pg. 198]
a)
red.
b)
white.
c)
black.
d)
gray.
105.
Batteries used in weather will drain faster and therefore should be protected. [Chapter 13, pg. 199]
a)
warm
b)
hot
c)
humid
d)
cold
106.
Generally, a fire scene should be photographed from the: [Chapter 13, pgs. 202-203]
a)
inside of the structure to the outside.
b)
point of origin to the outside.
c)
exterior to the point of origin.
d)
top floor down to the exterior.
107.
A is a formal drawing of a fire scene that is completed after the investigation at the scene. [Chapter 13, pg. 204]
a)
sketch
b)
diagram
c)
photo diagram
d)
comprehensive sketch
108.
A drawing of the fire scene that includes the location of fire apparatus, streets, hydrant location, and the structure is a: [Chapter 13, pg. 205]
a)
floor plan.
b)
elevation drawing.
c)
top view.
d)
site/area sketch.
109.
A photographic process of taking pictures first from a distance to show the position of an object and then moving in toward the object for additional pictures is known as: [Chapter 13, pg. 200]
a)
sequential photos.
b)
mosaic photos.
c)
a photo diagram.
d)
photo painting.
110.
The process of photographing a fire scene and documenting where each picture was taken and the direction of the photograph is known as: [Chapter 13, 200]
a)
a sketch drawing.
b)
a photo log.
c)
an overview drawing.
d)
a photo diagram.
111.
The best method for protecting a critical piece of evidence at a fire scene is to: [Chapter 14, pg. 214]
a)
tape off the area and notify the investigator.
b)
contact the IC and document the area.
c)
post a fire fighter with the evidence and restrict access.
d)
notify a police officer and have the officer guard the scene.
112.
The first stage of evidence preservation begins with the: [Chapter 14, pg. 212]
a)
investigator.
b)
material first ignited.
c)
fire suppression crews.
d)
attitude of the investigator.
113.
Which of the following is NOT an artifact piece or type of evidence? [Chapter 14, pg. 212]
a)
Pictures removed from the room of origin
b)
Fire pattern on a wall
c)
The competent source of ignition
d)
The remains of the first fuel ignited
114.
All of the following are examples of demonstrative evidence EXCEPT: [Chapter 14, pg. 214]
a)
photographs.
b)
drawings.
c)
lab test results.
d)
testimony of a witness.
115.
At which point of fire-ground operations is physical evidence most likely to be destroyed? [Chapter 14, pg. 215]
a)
During fire suppression operations
b)
During ventilation operations
c)
During overhaul operations
d)
During rehab operations
116.
There are four major potential sources of cross-contamination of evidence at a fire scene. Which of the following is NOT one of them? [Chapter 14, pg. 216]
a)
Tools used to collect evidence
b)
Techniques used by the investigator
c)
Protective equipment such as rubber gloves
d)
Emergency equipment
117.
Which of the following is a technique for taking a sample of a possible ignitable liquid residue off the surface of water? [Chapter 14, pg. 219]
a)
Use a sterile cotton ball and wipe the surface of the water.
b)
Use a clean paper towel and soak up the water.
c)
Use a bulb syringe and draw up a sample.
d)
Use a drafting straw to pull off a sample.
118.
The strongest chain of custody has one link, which is: [Chapter 14, pg. 221]
a)
the investigator who collected the evidence.
b)
the collection process.
c)
the sample.
d)
proper documentation.
119.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the disposal of evidence collected from a fire scene? [Chapter 14, pg. 223]
a)
Evidence is disposed once the case is over and the person convicted is sentenced.
b)
Evidence from a civil case does not need to be maintained because it is in civil court.
c)
Evidence is disposed of only upon written authority from a judge or court.
d)
Evidence is never disposed of but is returned to the owner at the end of court proceedings.
120.
Before examining electrical equipment the first priority for the investigator is to: [Chapter 14, pg. 220]
a)
contact the owner/occupant to obtain permission.
b)
contact an electrical engineer to assist with the investigation.
c)
remove the appliance or wiring from the structure for safety purposes.
d)
make certain that there is no electrical current to the equipment or system.
121.
The _____ is the exact physical location where the fire started. [Chapter 15, pg. 228]
a)
room of origin
b)
ignition point
c)
point of origin
d)
starting point
122.
Early in an investigation multiple hypotheses of the cause of a fire are developed and are referred to as hypotheses. [Chapter 15, pg. 229]
a)
fragment
b)
working
c)
temporary
d)
phase
123.
The first step in determination of the origin of a fire begins with: [Chapter 15, pg. 230]
a)
identifying the area of origin.
b)
evaluating the exterior of the fire scene.
c)
looking at the overall structure and surrounding area.
d)
interior evaluation of the building.
124.
Which building system can enhance the development and spread of a fire within a structure? [Chapter 15, pg. 231]
a)
The electrical system
b)
Fuel gas service
c)
Fire suppression system
d)
HVAC system
125.
During a detailed interior examination of a fire scene, an investigator can determine all of the following EXCEPT: [Chapter 15, pg. 231]
a)
prefire conditions of the structure.
b)
general housekeeping of the structure.
c)
position of windows, doors, and heat movement.
d)
financial status of the owner/occupant of the structure.
126.
What is the purpose of debris removal and fire scene reconstruction? [Chapter 15, pg. 232]
a)
To lead the investigator to the correct analysis of the origin of the fire
b)
To identify any hazards or dangers to the investigative team
c)
To identify prefire conditions and to determine if items are missing from the scene
d)
To allow the investigator an overview of what the room looked like before the fire started
127.
During the reconstruction process, it is important to identify the contents of a room and the: [Chapter 15, pg. 233]
a)
location of the room in relation to the point of origin.
b)
orientation of the contents in the room.
c)
material the contents are made from.
d)
fire spread patterns on the walls.
128.
Which of the following can have a dramatic effect on fire behavior and heat release rate? [Chapter 15, pg. 235]
a)
Fuel package
b)
Ventilation, natural or suppression related
c)
Geometry of the fuel
d)
Heat release rate of the fuel
129.
The process of diagramming a fire scene by examining how the fire affected the electrical outlets is known as: [Chapter 15, pg. 236]
a)
vector analysis.
b)
char mapping.
c)
circuit analysis.
d)
arc mapping.
130.
A properly developed fire investigation and case file will: [Chapter 15, pg. 238]
a)
hold up in a federal court case.
b)
allow another investigator to review the file and reach the same conclusions.
c)
all be transferred to an electronic medium.
d)
show all possible hypotheses established by the investigator.
131.
To identify the fire cause correctly the investigator must: [Chapter 16, pg. 245]
a)
determine the ignition source.
b)
identify the motive for the fire.
c)
identify what started on fire first.
d)
determine the point of origin.
132.
An important part of any fire investigation is not only to identify the ignition source and the first fuel ignited but also: [Chapter 16, pg. 244]
a)
why the person started the fire.
b)
all parties involved in the fire.
c)
the circumstances and conditions that brought them together.
d)
what the oxidizing agent was that started the fire.
133.
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the testing of possible hypotheses during an investigation? [Chapter 16, pg. 244]
a)
All hypotheses must be tested during an investigation.
b)
By using the scientific method, the investigator tests and eliminates incorrect hypotheses.
c)
Many hypotheses eliminate themselves during the investigative process.
d)
Failure of an investigator to test all hypotheses could lead to criminal charges against the investigator.
134.
Which of the following fuels will ignite first based on a high surface-to-mass ratio? [Chapter 16, pg. 245]
a)
4 × 4 × 8 piece of pine
b)
2 × 4 × 4 piece of redwood
c)
1 × 1 × 4 piece of oak
d)
Dust shavings on the floor of a sawmill
135.
In most fires the oxidizing agent is found: [Chapter 16, pg. 246]
a)
in the air at the point of origin.
b)
in the fuel as heat releases energy from the fuel source.
c)
from the heat source.
d)
from moisture as it breaks down into hydrogen and oxygen.
136.
An important part of the investigative process is to determine how the fuel and ignition source came together. This is known as the: [Chapter 16, pg. 248]
a)
fire analysis.
b)
ignition sequence.
c)
fire process.
d)
ignition hypothesis.
137.
Investigators must use caution in drawing conclusions about the ignition source via application of the process of , because it is not sufficient to conclude that a fire was intentionally set. [Chapter 16, pg. 245]
a)
elimination
b)
investigation
c)
evaluation
d)
deduction
138.
Which of the following is it most difficult to identify the ignition source for? [Chapter 16, pg. 246]
a)
Wood chips
b)
Grain dust
c)
Moving liquids
d)
Vapors
139.
Once the origin of a fire has been accurately identified, the need to determine is recognized. [Chapter 16, pg. 246]
a)
context
b)
cause
c)
motive
d)
opportunity
140.
Essential data to be collected to determine cause include all of the following EXCEPT? [Chapter 16, pg. 246]
a)
First fuels ignited
b)
Potential ignition sources
c)
Unusual oxidants in the area of origin
d)
Debris
141.
A fire caused by arcing power lines during a windstorm is classified as: [Chapter 17, pg. 255]
a)
natural.
b)
incediary.
c)
accidental.
d)
arson.
142.
There are four general accepted categories into which the cause of a fire or explosion can be classified. Which one of the following is NOT one of those categories? [Chapter 17, pg. 255]
a)
Natural
b)
Incendiary
c)
Accidental
d)
Arson
143.
Which classification of fire cause is used when a child sets fire to a field? [Chapter 17, pg. 255]
a)
Natural
b)
Incendiary
c)
Accidental
d)
Arson
144.
Factors that contribute to the spread of fire and smoke include all of the following EXCEPT: [Chapter 17, pg. 257]
a)
fire suppression operations.
b)
ventilation effects, both natural and by fire fighters.
c)
fire department response time.
d)
housekeeping of the occupancy.
145.
When looking at an incident from a failure analysis point of view, it is important to understand that it is often a/an that contributes to the cause of the fire. [Chapter 17, pg. 257]
a)
malfunction of equipment
b)
act of negligence
c)
chain of events
d)
lapse in judgment
146.
Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of responsibility an investigator may be held accountable for during an investigation? [Chapter 17, pg. 254]
a)
Motive for the act or causation of the chain of events
b)
Cause determination for damage to property
c)
Cause determination for injury or loss of life
d)
Degree of human involvement in the incident
147.
Factors such as heat source and conditions that result in a fire fit into which “cause” classification? [Chapter 17, pg. 254]
a)
Cause of the fire or explosion
b)
Cause of bodily injury or loss of life
c)
Degree of human involvement
d)
Cause of damage to property
148.
A key element in the use of the classification of “incendiary” fire is the: [Chapter 17, pg. 255]
a)
mindset or mental state of the fire setter.
b)
method used to set the fire.
c)
location and occupancy of the fire.
d)
age and ability of the fire setter.
149.
An intentionally set fire such as campfire that spreads to an outbuilding that catches fire would be classified in which category? [Chapter 17, pg. 255]
a)
Natural
b)
Incendiary
c)
Accidental
d)
Arson
150.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the classification of undetermined? [Chapter 17, pg. 255]
a)
Once a fire has been classified as undetermined, it cannot be changed or reclassified.
b)
If an investigator receives new or additional data, the classification of undetermined can be changed to one of the other three categories.
c)
A fire listed as undetermined is most often an incendiary fire but lacks the evidence to use that classification.
d)
Only a court can change the classification of undetermined to arson.
151.
When investigating a fire suspected of being caused by a natural gas leak in a basement the investigator could use which of the following models? [Chapter 18, pg. 269]
a)
Heat transfer analysis
b)
Hydraulic analysis
c)
Combustible gas analysis
d)
Flammable gas analysis
152.
Which of the following is a key element of a failure analysis? [Chapter 18, pg. 264]
a)
Ignition source
b)
Timeline
c)
Fuel first ignited
d)
Event to bring source and fuel together
153.
When developing a timeline incidents that can be related to known time such as obtained from the dispatch center are known as: [Chapter 18, pg. 264]
a)
hard times.
b)
soft times.
c)
approximate times.
d)
established times.
154.
Events that are particularly valuable as a foundation for the timeline or that may have significant relation to the cause or discovery of the fire are referred to as: [Chapter 18, pg. 265]
a)
estimated times events.
b)
soft times events.
c)
distinguishing events.
d)
benchmark events.
155.
An illustrated series of events and decisions placed on paper by the investigator to formulate a logical sequence that led to the fire event is known as a: [Chapter 18, pg. 266]
a)
timeline.
b)
responsibility matrix.
c)
fault tree.
d)
event tree.
156.
Which system analysis tool “identifies the conditions and chain of events of a fire or explosion”? [Chapter 18, pg. 268]
a)
Failure analysis
b)
Decision tree
c)
Effects analysis
d)
Timeline
157.
The Consolidated Model of Fire and Smoke Transport (CFAST) is used to determine analysis. [Chapter 18, pg. 270]
a)
structural
b)
egress
c)
thermodynamics
d)
hydraulic
158.
Computer models are used to: [Chapter 18, pg. 270]
a)
determine cause and origin of the fire.
b)
identify the room of origin.
c)
test the hypothesis of the investigator.
d)
test evidence found at the fire scene.
159.
Which type of modeling is used when there is a need for detail in the analysis? [Chapter 18, pg. 270]
a)
Zone models
b)
CFD models
c)
Input models
d)
CFAST models
160.
All of the following information is required to conduct a computer analysis EXCEPT: [Chapter 18, pg. 271]
a)
wall thickness.
b)
construction materials of the building.
c)
temperature of room during flashover.
d)
dimensions of the room.
161.
After a scene is secure and determined to be safe the investigator needs to determine: [Chapter 19, pg. 288]
a)
if it was a low- or high-order-damage incident.
b)
the point of origin.
c)
if the event was seated or nonseated.
d)
whether the incident was an explosion or a fire.
162.
A sudden conversion of potential energy, either chemical or mechanical, into kinetic energy is a/an: [Chapter 19, pg. 278]
a)
detonation.
b)
conflagration.
c)
explosion.
d)
thermal reaction.
163.
Which of the following characteristics is unique to an explosion? [Chapter 19, pg. 278]
a)
Blast pressure front
b)
Flaming debris
c)
Damage to contents of a room
d)
Loud noise
164.
There are major types of explosions that investigators could investigate. [Chapter 19, pg. 278]
a)
two
b)
three
c)
four
d)
five
165.
A BELEVE is an example of a _____ explosion. [Chapter 19; pg. 278]
a)
chemical
b)
vapor
c)
rapid
d)
mechanical
166.
The most common combustible explosions are those caused by the burning of fuels. [Chapter 19; pg. 279]
a)
dust/particle
b)
hydrocarbon
c)
oxidizing
d)
carbon
167.
Which of the following is NOT a subcategory of combustible explosions? [Chapter 19; pg. 279]
a)
Flammable gases
b)
Vapors of ignitable liquids
c)
Backdrafts
d)
Dust mixtures
168.
The effects of an explosion can be observed in four major groups. Which of the following is not one of these groups? [Chapter 19; pg. 280]
a)
Projected fragments effect
b)
Thermal effect
c)
Noise/boom effect
d)
Seismic effect
169.
In addition to time, which other element affects the amount of damage from an explosion? [Chapter 19; pg. 283]
a)
Ignition temperature of the material
b)
The effects of ventilation on the compartment
c)
The oxidizing agent
d)
The container shape and strength
170.
Which type of explosion has lower temperatures but may last for an extended period of time? [Chapter 19; pg. 283]
a)
Chemical explosion
b)
Detonation
c)
Combustion explosion
d)
Deflagration
171.
One of the most important aspects of classifying an offense and determining the motive is: [Chapter 20, pg. 305]
a)
criminology.
b)
intent.
c)
pathology.
d)
victimology.
172.
A fire that has been deliberately ignited under circumstances in which the person knows the fire should not be ignited is a/an fire. [Chapter 20; pg. 298]
a)
accidental
b)
arson
c)
incendiary
d)
incidental
173.
A method used by individuals to spread fire from one ignition point to another is known as: [Chapter 20; pg. 299]
a)
ignitable liquids.
b)
extensions.
c)
paper.
d)
trailers.
174.
A common tactic arsonists use to set fires that allows them time to leave the scene is by the use of: [Chapter 20; pg. 300]
a)
candles.
b)
flammable liquids.
c)
delay devices.
d)
appliances such as a heater.
175.
Most often a K-9 unit is used to look for possible signs of: [Chapter 20; pg. 301]
a)
an explosive device.
b)
trailers.
c)
flammable liquids.
d)
a delay device.
176.
All of the following might lead an investigator to develop an ignition hypothesis of arson EXCEPT: [Chapter 20; pg. 302]
a)
remote or obstructed view of the point of origin.
b)
fire near a heating unit.
c)
removal of contents prior to the fire.
d)
blocked entry points.
177.
Efforts to intentionally damage or destroy a fire protection or detection system are known as: [Chapter 20; pg.302]
a)
sabotage.
b)
arson.
c)
obstructionism.
d)
felony hindrance.
178.
If an investigator finds a fire door blocked open during an investigation of a fire at a business, the investigator should: [Chapter 20; pg. 303]
a)
assume the fire was intentionally set.
b)
speak with the owner to see why the door was blocked open.
c)
look for other doors blocked opened and for other signs of arson.
d)
determine if the door is defective and was blocked open by the employees.
179.
is defined as an inner drive or impulse that is the cause, reason, or incentive that induces or prompts a specific behavior. [Chapter 20; pg. 305]
a)
Attitude
b)
Character
c)
Motive
d)
Intent
180.
Which classification do fire fighters who set fires to gain recognition or to be the hero fall into? [Chapter 20; pg. 305-306]
a)
Extremism
b)
Profit
c)
Revenge
d)
Excitement
181.
When a fire involves a fatality, which piece of evidence is the most important in determining the cause of death? [Chapter 21, pg. 312]
a)
The fuel first ignited
b)
The source of ignition
c)
The location of the body
d)
The body of the victim
182.
When would it be appropriate to remove a body early from a fire scene? [Chapter 21; pg. 312]
a)
If further fire suppression operations might damage or bury the body under debris
b)
To preserve the body’s core temperature
c)
To protect family members or neighbors from seeing the body at the scene
d)
It is never appropriate to remove a body early from a fire scene regardless of conditions.
183.
If the body of a victim is extremely damaged from a fire, the investigator might need the assistance of a forensic to assist in the investigation. [Chapter 21; pg. 313]
a)
homicide detective
b)
medical examiner
c)
lab technician
d)
anthropologist
184.
Which test helps the investigator determine possible series of events? [Chapter 21; pg. 314]
a)
Blood test for carbon monoxide
b)
X-ray of the body
c)
Blood alcohol test
d)
Lividity test
185.
Lividity is a condition found in a body after death and becomes fixed in the body after death. [Chapter 21; pg. 314]
a)
2 to 3 hours
b)
4 to 5 hours
c)
6 to 9 hours
d)
8 to 12 hours
186.
As a body is exposed to fire and heat the muscles contract and the upper body will form the posture of a boxer. This is known as: [Chapter 21; pg. 315]
a)
defensive stance.
b)
lividity.
c)
pugilistic attitude.
d)
rigor mortis.
187.
Which types of burns can happen to a body after death to a limited degree? [Chapter 21; pg. 315]
a)
First-degree burn
b)
Second-degree burn
c)
Third-degree burn
d)
Fourth-degree burn
188.
One of the critical elements of an investigation related to the body is to determine: [Chapter 21; pg. 315]
a)
cause of death.
b)
location of victim at the fire scene.
c)
any prefire injuries or trauma.
d)
the identity of the victim.
189.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the results of an autopsy? [Chapter 21; pg. 316]
a)
The manner of death is regarded as the actual event or injury that brings cessation of life.
b)
The cause of death is best regarded as the course of events that led up to the death.
c)
The cause of death is best determined in relationship to the point of origin.
d)
The manner of death is best regarded as the course of events that led up to the death.
190.
What percentage of the body is burned if both arms and back of an adult male were burned during a fire? [Chapter 21; pg. 320]
a)
18 percent
b)
27 percent
c)
36 percent
d)
45 percent
191.
Which of the following factors is the PRIMARY influence on the direction of the fire's advance? [Chapter 24, pg. 371]
a)
Wind
b)
Topography (lay of the land: mountains, hills, valleys, ditches, roads, etc.)
c)
Fuel types
d)
Fuel moisture
192.
Wildland fuels are broken down into categories. [Chapter 24; pg. 370]
a)
two
b)
three
c)
four
d)
five
193.
Which type of wildland fuel is critical in determining the point of origin on a wildland fire? [Chapter 24; pg. 370]
a)
Ground fuels
b)
Surface fuels
c)
Aerial fuels
d)
Midrange fuels
194.
In a surface wildland fire, which type of heat transfer method is the most dominant form? [Chapter 24; pg. 371]
a)
Convection
b)
Conduction
c)
Radiant heat
d)
Direct flame impingement
195.
winds are the effect of the air being heated by the sun during the day and then cooled during the night. [Chapter 24; pg. 371]
a)
Fire
b)
Foehn
c)
Meteorological
d)
Diurnal
196.
Which type of fire suppression activity involves removing fuel by burning out remaining fuel between a fire break and the fire? [Chapter 24; pg. 373]
a)
Fire breaks
b)
Fire storm
c)
Firing out
d)
Fire drops
197.
Which type of foam is used on wildland fires that helps to protect exposures and cool surface fuels? [Chapter 24; pg. 373]
a)
Class A foam
b)
Class B foam
c)
AFFF foam
d)
High-expansion foam
198.
Which type of fuel can an investigator use as a significant indicator of fire direction? [Chapter 24; pg. 374]
a)
Root systems
b)
Grass stems
c)
Ground brush
d)
Trees
199.
Where would an investigator find spalling on a wildland fire? [Chapter 24; pg. 375]
a)
Surface of trees
b)
Surface of bushes
c)
Surface of rocks
d)
Surface of mineral soil
200.
When flagging an area which color is used to designate evidence and the point of origin? [Chapter 24; pg. 378]
a)
Red
b)
Yellow
c)
Blue
d)
White
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