WorksheetsCrack Managing hygiene NBoard
Total questions: 68
Worksheet time: 34mins
Instruments such as mirrors and amalgam condensers that do not penetrate soft tissues or bone but contact oral tissues are classified as semi-critical and these devices should be sterilized after each use. Surgical and other instruments used to penetrate soft tissue or bone are classified as critical and should be sterilized after each use.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
Quaternary ammonium compounds are an adequate disinfectant for Class II semi-critical surfaces Phenols are an adequate disinfectant for Class III non-critical surfaces.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
What is the ADA recommendation for colony forming units per milliliter (cfu/ml) of aerobic mesophilic heterotrophic bacteria at any point in time in the unfiltered output of the dental unit for patients during non-surgical dental procedures?
A) No more than 100 colony forming units per milliliter (cfu/ml) of aerobic mesophilic heterotrophic bacteria at any point in time in the unfiltered output of the dental unit.
B) No more than 500 colony forming units per milliliter (cfu/ml) of aerobic mesophilic heterotrophic bacteria at any point in time in the unfiltered output of the dental unit.
C) No more than 200 colony forming units per milliliter (cfu/ml) of aerobic mesophilic heterotrophic bacteria at any point in time in the unfiltered output of the dental unit.
D) No more than 2000 colony forming units per milliliter (cfu/ml) of aerobic mesophilic heterotrophic bacteria at any point in time in the unfiltered output of the dental unit.
Which class of disinfectants are the most widely used on non-critical surfaces?
A) Glutaraldehyde based
B) Phenol based
C) Alcohol (ethyl or isopropyl) based
D) Quaternary ammonium compounds
E) Chlorine based
Antimicrobial prophylaxis is recommended for the following patient (assume Type II diabetics are using only oral medications):
A) Well controlled diabetic, periodontal exam and probing.
B) Uncontrolled Type I diabetic, scaling and root planing
C) Well controlled Type II diabetic, routine prophylaxis
D) Poorly controlled Type I diabetic, free gingival graft procedure
E) Well controlled Type II diabetic, apically positioned flap procedure
For which of the following cardiac conditions is SBE antibiotic prophylaxis recommended?
A) Prosthetic cardiac valve
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Bicuspid valve disease
D) Cardiomyopathy
E) Calcified aortic stenosis
SBE antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for intraligamentary local anesthetic injections. It is not recommended for periodontal suture removal
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second statement is false
D) First statement is false, the second statement is true
Approximately 1,000,000 total joint replacements are being placed annually in the United States, which of the following bugs accounts for almost 60% of all cases of Late Prosthetic Joint Infection?
A) Streptococcus viridans
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus mutans
D) Coagulase negative staphylococci
E) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
A patient with a debilitating systemic condition that is a constant threat to life would be classified as an American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) risk status IV. A patient with an ASA IV risk status can be treated in the dental clinic with minor office modifications.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
Factors that may place a patient at higher risk for developing periodontal disease during orthodontic treatment include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Previous periodontal disease
B) Thin, friable gingival tissue
C) Bleeding on probing
D) Tooth mobility
E) Von Recklinghausen’s Disease
All of the following bacteria are currently considered to be periodontal pathogens EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B) Bacteroides forsythus
C) Provetella intermedia
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis
E) Enterococcus faecalis
Inactive (arrested) lesions show little discoloration and are primarily detected by the presence of softness and cavitation. Active progressing root caries, although dark, is firm to the touch of an explorer and cleanable, and are usually seen in patients (usually older) whose oral hygiene and diet in recent years has been good.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
All of the following are clinical characteristics of active, progressing root surface caries EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Dark discoloration
B) Little or no discoloration
C) Soft and leathery
D) Cavitation
E) Stickiness to explorer
The procedure in which only the gross caries is removed from the lesion and the cavity is sealed for a time with a biocompatible material is called:
A) Direct pulp cap
B) Indirect pulp cap
C) Pulpotomy
D) Pulpectomy
E) Atraumatic Restorative Technique (ART)
All of the following statements are true regarding the medical model of caries EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Controlling the bacterial infection and associated acid production
B) Arresting demineralization
C) Failure is the patient’s fault.
D) Initiating remineralization
E) Performing restorative treatment, if necessary
While performing a routine prophylaxis on a new patient you notice a lack of interproximal contact between a new restoration on #28 and #29. You see that an amalgam restoration was recently placed on the distal-occlusal (DO) of #28. Which of the following is the most common issue that may arise from this lack of proximal contact?
A) Gingival inflammation
B) Cold sensitivity
C) Mobility
D) Fremitis
E) Poor marginal adaptation
All of the following are contraindications to the use of lidocaine EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Documented allergy to amide-type local anesthetics
B) Significant liver dysfunction (ASA Class III-IV)
C) Significant renal dysfunction (ASA Class III-IV)
D) Congenital methemoglobinemia
E) Myasthenia Gravis
Epinephrine is an ideal vasoconstrictor because it is manufactured naturally by the body. The preservatives necessary to stabilize the vasoconstrictor are paraben derivatives, and these can cause allergic reactions.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
All of the following are properties of an ideal anesthetic EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Its action must be reversible
B) It must be non-irritating to the tissues and should not produce any secondary local reaction.
C) It should have slow onset and be of sufficient duration to be advantageous
D) It should have sufficient potency to provide complete anesthesia
E) It should be relatively free from producing allergic reactions
Local anesthetics, such as Lidocaine, block nerve transmission to pain centers in the central nervous system by binding to and inhibiting the function of an ion channel in the cell membrane of nerve cells known as the sodium channel. This action obstructs the movement of nerve impulses near the site of injection, but there are no changes in awareness and sense perception in other areas.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
How many milligrams (mg) of lidocaine solution are present in one cartridge (1.8 mL) of 2% lidocaine?
A) 1.7 mg
B) 3.6 mg
C) 17 mg
D) 20 mg
E) 36 mg
How many milligrams (mg) of epinephrine are present in a 1.7 ml carpule/cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine?
A) 0.0017 mg
B) 0.0036 mg
C) 0.017 mg
D) 0.17 mg
E) 17 mg
Those at high risk for a latex allergy are all of the following except:
A) Health care workers
B) Spina bifida patients
C) Atopic patients
D) Workers in frequent contact with natural latex
E) Patients with specific food allergies
What is the AHA recommendation for infective endocarditis prophylaxis for a child who is not allergic to penicillin?
A) Penicillin 50 mg/kg orally 30-60 minutes pre-op
B) Clindamycin 20 mg/kg orally 30-60 minutes pre-op
C) Erythromycin 50 mg/kg orally 30-60 minutes pre-op
D) Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg orally 30-60 minutes pre-op
E) Amoxicillin 2 g orally 30-60 minutes pre-op
Which drug does the AHA recommend for SBE prophylaxis for an adult who is allergic to penicillin?
A) Augmentin
B) Erythromycin
C) Clindamycin
D) Vancomycin
E) Ciprofloxacin
A patient presents requiring an extraction. The patient is taking coumadin following placement of a prosthetic heart valve. The test indicated to evaluate the coagulation status of this patient is:
A) Bleeding time (BT)
B) Prothrombin time (PT)/International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
D) Thrombin time (TT)
E) Partial prothrombin time (PPT)
All of the following are clinical signs or symptoms of Hypoglycemia EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Polydipsia
B) Anxiety
C) Headache
D) Sweating
E) Shakiness
All of the following are drugs that are known to cause gingival hyperplasia EXCEPT one. Which is this EXCEPTION?
A) Phenytoin
B) Verapamil
C) Nifedipine
D) Cyclobenzaprine
E) Cyclosporine
All of the following oral changes may be seen in smokers EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Discoloration of tooth structure
B) Delay in post-surgical healing
C) Enhanced vascular reaction in plaque-induced gingivitis
D) Leukoplakia of the gingiva
E) Nicotine stomatitis
All of the following are indications where orthodontic treatment can benefit periodontal therapy EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) To facilitate occlusal and restorative treatment
B) To correct gingival and osseous defects
C) For forced tooth eruption for crown lengthening
D) To correct root proximity problems
E) To correct food impaction by closing open contacts that fail to close following reduction of inflammation and/or occlusal adjustment
It appears that use of ultrasonic scalers for periodontal debridement will result in improvements in clinical and microbial parameters at a level equal to or superior to hand scalers. Ultrasonic and sonic scalers appear to attain similar results as hand instruments for removing plaque, calculus and endotoxin.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
When presenting treatment options to your patient it is always best to ask open ended questions. Why is it important?
A) So you can elicit specific information from your patient
B) To help you better gather personal information from your patient
C) To get the best freedom of response from your patient
D) To determine if your patient is lying
E) To aid you in determining if your patient has periodontal disease
Today, no effective vaccines are available for the following infections except which one?
A. Hep A
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. Hep C & D
E. HIV
Which of the following drugs used in dentistry often contains sulfite preservatives that could cause sensitivity in people with asthma?
A. Epinephrine
B. Xylocaine
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Chlorhexidine
E. Duralfor
All of the following are part of the Chain of Disease transmission EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Susceptible host
B) Reservoir
C) Infectious Agent
D) Mode of transmission
E) Susceptible victim
All of the following away be symptoms of influenza, including H1N1, EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Cough
B) Sore throat
C) Painful urination
D) Headache
E) Fatigue
All of the following vaccines are recommended for health care workers by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Varicella (Chickenpox)
B) HIV
C) Tdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria and Pertussis)
D) MMR (Measles, Mumps & Rubella)
E) Hepatitis B
Which of the following sterilization types is a method for sterilizing unwrapped instruments for immediate use?
A) Heat sterilization
B) Cold sterilization
C) Steam sterilization
D) Flash sterilization
E) None of the above
All of the following are true of steam autoclave sterilization EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Cycle is 320 °F for 1-2 hours
B) Uses steam under pressure to sterilize
C) Good penetration of heat into packages
D) Requires drying time
E) Good penetration of heat into packages
A patient with a moderate systemic condition, such as asthma, that is medically stable represents with which American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) risk status?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
A 59 year old male COPD patient presents today for scaling and root planing in the right mandibular quadrant and while reviewing his health history he starts wheezing, coughing and complains of chest tightness. All of the following are procedures you should do EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Position patient upright with arms forward
B) Administer oxygen
C) Administer two-three puffs from inhaler; repeat in five minutes if necessary
D) Assess and record vital signs; relay to emergency personnel
E) Call 911 if no improvement in 5 minutes
During a routine hygiene appointment your patient, who has a history of angina pectoris, starts to experience chest pain. Being the astute clinician you are, you halt the dental procedure and administer a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet and oxygen. If the symptoms do not subside how long should you wait before administering a second nitroglycerin tablet?
A) 2 minutes
B) 5 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 15 minutes
E) If symptoms don’t subside after the first tablet call 911
In all of the following, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Cardiac pacemakers
B) Prosthetic heart valves
C) Previous history of bacterial endocarditis
D) Complex cyanotic congenital heart disease
E) Surgically constructed systemic pulmonary shunts
During a routine hygiene appointment your patient, who has a history of angina pectoris, starts to experience chest pain. Being the astute clinician you are, you halt the dental procedure and administer a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet and O2. If the symptoms do not subside how long should you wait before administering a second nitroglycerin tablet?
A) 1 minute
B) 2 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 5 minutes
E) 10 minutes
High soft drink consumption is not related to poor oral health and an unhealthy lifestyle. Dental erosion and DMFT/DMFS (18- to 19-year-old groups) are significantly higher in the high soft drink consumption groups.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
You are treating a new patient in your office who has moderate periodontal disease. Your patient has never been told she has periodontal disease and isn’t sure why she needs the expensive scaling and root planing procedures rather than the normal cleaning she is used to. All of the following are determinants of periodontal disease instead of gingivitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Bleeding on probing
B) Pain, redness or swelling
C) Longer looking teeth
D) Pus
E) Loose teeth
All of the following are risk factors for periodontal disease EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Smoking
B) Diabetes
C) Tourettes
D) AIDS
E) Genetic susceptibility
The prevention of dental caries can be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Brushing twice a day
B) Flossing once a day
C) Use drinks that lower the pH of the oral cavity
D) Reduce frequent consumption of sugars
E) Use of fluoride rinses
All of the following are true concerning the demineralization/remineralization process EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Healthy saliva has a pH of 7.5 to 8.5
B) Enamel demineralization takes place at pH below 5.5
C) Remineralization takes place at a higher pH of 7.5 to 8.5
D) Saliva contains calcium, phosphate, and bicarbonate.
E) Enamel demineralization takes place when calcium and phosphate ions are dissolved out of the tooth
The caries prevention benefits of Xylitol have well documented. Which one of the following is not a method by which your patient can use Xylitol?
A) Toothpaste
B) Flavored dental floss
C) Mints
D) Gum
E) Lozenges
You are educating your 7 year old patients mother on ways she can help her child be caries free at his next visit. Which one of the following would not be in your instructions to the mother?
A) Limit between-meal snacks
B) Save candy, cookies, soda, and other sugary drinks for special occasions
C) Have your child brush four times per day
D) Make sure your child doesn't eat or drink anything with sugar in it after bedtime tooth brushing
E) Limit fruit juice
Vasoconstrictors are highly important additions to a local anesthetic solution for the following reasons EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Require larger doses of anesthetic
B) By constricting blood vessels, vasoconstrictors decrease blood flow to the site of infection
C) Increase depth of anesthesia
D) Decrease systemic toxicity of anesthetic
E) Vasoconstrictors reduce peak plasma levels
Catecholamines are important neurotransmitters and hormones in the human body. Which of the following is a catecholamine?
A) Epinephrine
B) Isoproterenol
C) Dopamine
D) Norepinephrine
E) All of the above
Which of the following is not used to treat anxiety for a dental phobic prior to a dental appointment?
A) Valium
B) Clonidine
C) Ativan
D) Halcion
E) Versed
All of the following is an Esther group anesthetic?
A) Procaine HCL (Novocain®)
B) Bupivacaine (Marcaine®)
C) Lidocaine (Xylocaine®)
D) Mepivacaine (Carbocaine®/Polocaine®)
E) Prilocaine (Citanest®)
All of the following are signs of severe allergic reactions to local anesthetics EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Bronchospasm
B) Berylliosis
C) Urticaria
D) Irregular heartbeat
E) Generalized body rash
Many medical emergencies that occur in dental offices are brought on by apprehension to, or reaction from, the administration of local anesthesia. Most emergencies are not due to reactions to the local anesthetic itself, but to the anxiety associated with the injection.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
Dental treatment is best performed on a hemodialysis patient?
A) Immediately before hemodialysis
B) Immediately after hemodialysis
C) The day after hemodialysis
D) 1 day before hemodialysis
E) 2 or 3 days after hemodialysis
Which of the following types of hepatitis is considered the most serious type?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
E) Hepatitis E (non A-non B)
A patient with Type II diabetes presents for routine hygiene treatment. His HbA1c was 10%. What does this reveal concerning this patient’s diabetes control?
A) It reveals excellent control of diabetes
B) It reveals good control of diabetes
C) It reveals fair control of diabetes
D) It reveals poor control of diabetes
E) This is the normal range in adults
Coagulation factor III (3) is also known as?
A) Tissue thromboplastin
B) Thromboxane
C) Thrombin
D) Prothrombin
E) Fibrinogen
Your patient suffered a transient ischemic attack (TIA) better known as a “mini-stroke” 4 months ago but feels fine and wants his teeth cleaned. Which of the following is not indicated for this patient?
A) Consider limiting epinephrine to 0.04 mg
B) Avoid 1:50,000 concentrations of epinephrine
C) Manage postoperative pain with acetaminophen
D) Schedule short, stress-free mid-morning appointments
E) Avoid elective care for 3 months following TIA
All of the following are oral manifestations you might encounter in an HIV/AIDS patient EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Leukoplakia
B) Aphthous ulcers
C) Lipomas
D) Candidiasis
E) Dental caries
All of the following are indicative of a potential implant fixture failure EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Mobility of fixture
B) Implant is lost
C) Peri-implant bone loss of >1mm in first year
D) Fractured porcelain from the implant crown
E) Peri-implant bone loss of >2mm after 3 years
Which of the following is not a risk associated with smokeless tobacco?
A) Stained teeth and bad breath
B) Oral cancer
C) Gum recession
D) Heightened sense of taste and smel
E) Slowed healing after extractions
Power driven instrumentation is as effective as traditional hand instrumentation in removing supra- and subgingival calculus. Recent scientific evidence provides credible evidence for using power driven instrumentation (PDI) as part of a non-surgical therapeutic regimen.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) First statement is true, the second is false
D) First statement is false, the second is true
Oral bisphosphonates are used in the treatment of osteoporosis to maintain or increase bone density and strength. Which of the following is not an oral bisphosphonate?
A) Reclast
B) Bonita
C) Actonel
D) Fosamax
E) Atelvia
According to Lisa Wadsworth RDH, a dental hygiene lecturer, all of the following are keys to gaining treatment acceptance from your patient EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Learn to listen to what will drive your patients to say yes
B) Build a solid co-therapist relationship with your dentist
C) Study patient triggers and concerns
D) Practice active speaking
E) Rehearse open-ended questions
