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WorksheetsMI EOC Review
Total questions: 53
Worksheet time: 3hrs 39mins
5.) In what order should you add the reagents to perform an ELISA test?
a.) Primary antibody, antigen sample, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, substrate
b.) Antigen sample, primary antibody, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, substrate
c.) Substrate, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, antigen samples
d.) Primary antibody, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, antigen samples, substrate
7.) An outbreak of a disease has been spreading through a small community. Using samples taken from infected patients, which of the following tests BEST enable doctors at the CDC to identify an unknown pathogen from the outbreak?
a.) Determine the sequence of the pathogen's DNA with an automated sequencer and then amplify key genes using PCR.
b.) Determine the sequence of the pathogen's DNA using recombinant DNA methods and then amplify the sequence using PCR.
c.) Use an automated sequencer to determine the nucleotide sequence of the samples, then compare these sequences with known organisms using BLAST.
d.) Use PCR to amplify the genome of the infected patients, then BLAST the genome results.
9.) What career combines molecular biology and computer analysis?
a.) diagnostic imaging
b.) gene therapist
c.) bioinformatics
d.) microbiology
11.) Which structure contains accessory genes such as antibiotic resistance and can be used for recombinant DNA?
a.) pili
b.) plasmid
c.) flagella
d.) capsule
14.) Structure 9 in the diagram is the
a.) vestibule
b.) semicircular canals
c.) cochlea
d.) cochlear nerve
15.) Which of the following shows the correct order of how sound travels through the ear?
a.) pinna, tympanic membrane, stapes, cochlea, cochlear nerve
b.) auditory canal, stapes, incus, cochlea, vestibular nerve
c.) pinna, tympanic membrane, vestibule, Eustachian tube
d.) tympanic membrane, incus, malleus, semicircular canal
18.) During a Rinne test, what does it mean when a patient can hear the tuning fork longer through bone conduction than through air conduction?
a.) conductive hearing loss
b.) sensorineural hearing loss
c.) complete hearing loss
d.) a problem with the brain's ability to process sound
19.) Which of the following is true about cochlear implant technology?
a.) The entire deaf community supports cochlear implants as a treatment for hearing loss.
b.) Cochlear implants are effective for everyone and have predictable results.
c.) A cochlear implant is an option for treating profound hearing loss.
d.) A cochlear implant is necessary for someone with hearing loss to function in mainstream society.
In the picture of the bacteria, letter A is the
Nucleoid
Flagella
Pili
Capsule
In the picture of the bacteria, letter F is the
Capsule
Cytoplasm
Plasmid
Cell Wall
In the picture of the bacteria, letter E is the
Nucleotid
Cytoplasm
Plasmid
Ribosome
In the picture of the bacteria, letter D is the
Flagella
Pili
Plasmid
Ribosome
Which type of bacteria has extra lipopolysaccharide layer?
Gram Positive
Gram Negative
Transformation occurs when bacteria
change from one type of bacteria to a different form of bacteria.
change from being gram positive to gram negative
take up DNA from a different bacterial cell when the donor releases it.
DNA is transferred directly into the bacterial cell through a connecting tube.
The best description of a "superbug" is a bacteria that
is present in large amounts.
has resistance to multiple antibiotics
is a combination of multiple bacteria.
is the last bacteria to survive after a round of antibiotics.
Which class of antibiotics interupts ribosome function (protein synthesis)?
Flouroquinolones
Beta-lactams
Tetracylines
Sulfonamides
Which class of antibiotics disrupts folic acid synthesis (cell growth)?
Flouroquinolones
Beta-lactams
Tetracylines
Sulfonamides
Which class of antibiotics interferes with the undwinding of supercoiled DNA (DNA replication)?
Flouroquinolones
Beta-lactams
Tetracylines
Sulfonamides
The auditory nerve is shown at
D
H
I
J
Programmed cell death
Apoptosis
Metastasis
Oncogene
Nuclear blebbing
Gene having potential to cause a normal cell to become cancerous
Tumor suppressor gene
Oncogene
Proto-oncogene
Risk factor
Bone cancer
Osteosarcoma
Osteosis
Osteoectomy
Osteostasis
Gene that inhibits cell division
Tumor suppressor gene
Proto-oncogene
Oncogene
Risk factor
If 1 mL sample is put into tube #1 that has 24 ml diluent, what is the tube dilution and final dilution? Select 2 answers.
Tube 1/25
Final 1/50
Tube 1/50
Final 1/25
How many Bp (base pairs) is the band is sample A?
1200bp
1000bp
500bp
2--bp
Human Leukocyte Antigens (HLA) are responsible for
stimulating the immune response to recognize tissue as self nor non-self
measuring the patients sensitivity to donor antigens
the state of mutual tolerance between tissues that allows them to be grafted effectively
the genes that encode a large set of cell surface proteins
Gene alleles (a copy from mom or dad) are written with ______ when Dominant (shows the trait such as Brown hair):
Upper case letters
Lower case letters
numbers
alpha-numeric code
Gene alleles (a copy from mom or dad) are written with ______ when Recessive:
Upper case letters
Lower case letters
numbers
alpha-numeric code
The correct steps, in order, to perform PCR is
denaturation, annealing, extension
annealing, extension, denaturing
extension, denaturation, annealing
annealing, prometaphase, polymerase
Why does PCR require a specific type of polymerase?
Taq polymerase can withstand the range of temperatures in PCR without denaturing.
Taq polymerase is the most common type of polymerase.
Taq polymerase is the most inexpensive type of polymerase.
A specific type of polymerase is unnecessary.
The physical insertion of "good" copies of a gene into the cells of a person with a genetic disorder in an attempt to correct the disorder
Karyotype
Gene therapy
Selective breeding
Cloning
Which of the following base pairs is matched correctly?
Guanine and Thymine
Cytosine and Adenine
Adenine and Thymine
Thymine and Cytosine
What is the purpose of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) in the process of sequencing DNA?
To separate DNA fragments by size
To synthesize copies of template DNA
To change the structure of template DNA
To terminate the elongation of a DNA strand
During which PCR step do primers form complementary base pairs with single-stranded template DNA?
Denaturation
Annealing
Extension
Synthesis
DNA has a ___________ charge and will migrate through a gel towards the ___________ electrode.
positive, negative
positive, positive
negative, positive
negative, negative
Larger DNA fragments move through a gel _____________ smaller DNA fragments.
faster than
at the same rate as
slower than
not at all, compared to
Insulin moves blood glucose primarily into _____________ cells to be used as energy.
islet (of Langerhans)
fat
muscle
liver
Insulin signals _________ cells to store glucose as glycogen.
islet (of Langerhans)
fat
muscle
liver
An enzyme that cut DNA molecules at a specific “recognition site” is called
Restriction enzyme
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
Taq polymerase
Which substance is used to separate proteins by size?
sodium docecyl sulfate
calcium chloride
2-mercaptoethanol
polyacrylamide
wash buffer
Electrophoresis separates molecules based on their relative
size
sequence
shape
function
What are erythrocythes?
red blood cells
white blood cells
plasma
platelets
What are thrombocythes?
heart vessels
platelets
white blood cells
pulmonary vein
What are leukocytes?
red blood vessels
plasma
white blood cells
platelest
What type of antigens can be found on the surface of RBC's when someone has blood type O?
A
B
A and B
none
What type of antigens can be found on the surface of RBC's when someone has blood type AB?
A
B
A and B
none
What cells produce antibodies?
red blood cells
white blood cells
Plasma cells
Platelets
Which class of antibiotics interferes with the bacterial cell wall?
Flouroquinolones
Beta-lactams
Tetracylines
Sulfonamides
How many of these restriction enzymes produce blunt ends?
2
4
5
3
