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PTCB EXAM 4/28/23

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient has been prescribed KCI as a potassium supplement; which unit of measurement is associated with this medication?

a)

international units

b)

milliequivalents

c)

milligrams

d)

milliliters

2.

Pseudoephedrine is contraindicated in patients diagnosed with diabetes; which type of drug interaction is this?

a)

drug-dietary supplement interaction

b)

drug-disease interaction

c)

drug-drug interaction

d)

over-the-counter drug-drug interaction

3.

Which food may increase the effects or side effects of alprazolam?

a)

Cranberry juice

b)

Fatty foods

c)

Grapefruit juice

d)

Romain lettuce

4.

Which drug classification does nexium belong to?

a)

antiinflammatory agent

b)

h2 antagonist

c)

mucosal protectant

d)

proton pump inhibitor

5.

Which of the following is the brand name for insulin glulisine?

a)

apidra

b)

humalog

c)

novolog

d)

toujeo

6.

Which drug classification does Norvasc belong to?

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Angiotensin II receptor blocker

c)

Beta-blocker

d)

Calcium channel blocker

7.

Which of the following dosage forms may be crushed?

a)

Extended-release dosage forms

b)

Medications with a teratogenic effect

c)

Oral tablets

d)

Sublingual tablets

8.

A patient recieves the following prescription. How many tablets should be dispensed?

Methylprednisolone 4 mg

Day 1: 2 tabs before breakfast, 1 tab after lunch and dinner, 2 tabs hs

Day 2: 1 tab before breakfast, 1 tab after lunch and dinner, 2 tabs hs

Day 3: 1 tab before breakfast, 1 tab after lunch and dinner, 1 tab hs

Day 4: 1 tab before breakfast, 1 tab after lunch and hs

Day 5: 1 tab before breakfast and hs

Day 6: 1 tab before breakfast

a)

19 tablets

b)

20 tablets

c)

21 tablets

d)

22 tablets

9.

CeleXA and ZyPREXA are examples of what?

a)

Drugs using tall man lettering

b)

high-alert medications

c)

medications appearing on the "Do not use" list

d)

medications that should not be crushed

10.

A pharmacy technician has been hired to work in a hospital. How often must they be tested for TB?

a)

Once a year

b)

Twice a year

c)

Three times a year

d)

Whenever the patient is diagnosed with TB

11.

Which of the following medications is indicated for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

a)

Advair Diskus

b)

ProAir HFA

c)

Singulair

d)

Xopenex HFA

12.

If an IV is running at 70mL/ 2 hr, what is the rate in drops per minute using a 10 drop set?

a)

5 gtt/min

b)

10gtt/min

c)

13gtt/min

d)

18gtt/min

13.

Nicoderm, Zyban, and Chantix are used in the therapy for ________

a)

EPOC

b)

Smoking cessation

c)

Asthma

d)

Pain

14.

How many 250mg doses would be contained in 10g of amoxicillin?

a)

20 doses

b)

32 doses

c)

40 doses

d)

48 doses

15.

Adderal and Ritalin are __________________drugs.

a)

CI

b)

CII

c)

CIII

d)

CIV

16.

A 1% solution could be written as 1:100, and the units would be___________.

a)

mcg: mL

b)

mg: mL

c)

g: mL

d)

g: L

17.

A patient receives 2500 mL of IV fluid over 12 hrs. What is the flow rate in milliliters per minute?

a)

1.83mL/min

b)

3.47mL/min

c)

6.6mL/min

d)

20.5mL/min

18.

Bradycardia is a relatively slow heart rate of less than ____beats per minute.

a)

40

b)

50

c)

60

d)

70

19.

Which of the following OTC ingredients is indicated flatulence?

a)

docusate

b)

polyethylene glycol/ electrolytes

c)

psyllium

d)

simethicone

20.

According to the Controlled Substances Act, what is the greatest number of refills that could be included on a prescription for carisoprodol (Soma)?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

5

d)

11

21.

Which of the following look-alike/sound-alike drug pairs contains a drug indicated in the treatment of depression?

a)

cetirizine/sertraline

b)

glipizide/glyburide

c)

hydroxyzine/hydralazine

d)

olanzapine/quetiapine

22.

Which of the following medications should be counted on a separate counting tray reserved for allergies?

a)

levofloxacin

b)

cephalexin

c)

metronidazole

d)

azithromycin

23.

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), which of the following abbreviations should NOT be used when writing prescriptions?

a)

OU

b)

PO

c)

AC

d)

PRN

24.

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) mandates which of the following to be readily accessible in the pharmacy for hazardous chemicals?

a)

SDS

b)

medication guide

c)

patient package insert

d)

REMS

Show Answer

Previous

25.

Which of the following is a medication error caused by a knowledge deficit?

a)

The employee has had a lack of sleep.

b)

The employee has personal problems or an illness.

c)

The employee is distracted.

d)

The employee has not been properly trained to complete the job.

26.

A DEA number consists of two letters and seven digits. The second letter corresponds to the prescriber’s ____________.

a)

last name

b)

specialty

c)

registration type

d)

state of practice

27.

Topical anti-infectives include antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, and antiprotozoal agents. Which of the following drugs is used as an antifungal agent?

a)

bacitracin

b)

clotrimazole

c)

cephalexin

d)

valacyclovir

28.

Ibuprofen is given to a child at a dose of 5 mg/kg. What is the dose for a 22 lb child?

a)

10 mg

b)

25 mg

c)

40 mg

d)

50 mg

29.

What is hyperglycemia?

a)

low blood sugar

b)

high blood sugar

c)

high blood pressure

d)

low blood pressure

30.

Which of the following enteral formulations will have the longest disintegration time?

a)

solution

b)

tablet

c)

suspension

d)

powder

31.

What is the correct interpretation of the following prescription?

Rx: 1 tab PO QID × 10D

a)

Take 1 tablet by mouth daily for 10 days.

b)

Take 1 tablet by mouth four times a day for 10 days.

c)

Take 1 tablet by mouth twice a day for 10 days.

d)

Take 1 tablet by mouth three times a day for 10 days.

See Explanation

Previous

32.

You receive a prescription for magic mouthwash 120 mL, comprised of lidocaine/diphenhydramine/Maalox at a ratio of 1:2:1. How much of each ingredient do you need to fill this prescription?

a)

30 mL lidocaine, 60 mL diphenhydramine, 30 mL Maalox

b)

20 mL lidocaine, 60 mL diphenhydramine, 40 mL Maalox

c)

40 mL lidocaine, 40 mL diphenhydramine, 40 mL Maalox

d)

45 mL lidocaine, 30 mL diphenhydramine, 45 mL Maalox

33.

What is the process of mixing and preparing drug components to meet a patient’s specific needs called?

a)

extemporaneous compounding

b)

aseptic technique

c)

levigation

d)

geometric dilution

34.

What size oral syringe should be given to a patient who is taking 3.6 mL of amoxicillin BID?

a)

3 mL

b)

5 mL

c)

10 mL

d)

12 mL

35.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors?

a)

blood in urine

b)

hypokalemia

c)

migraines

d)

persistent, dry cough

36.

A prescription is written for Synthroid 0.1 mg tablets. How many micrograms is this?

a)

0.1 mcg

b)

1 mcg

c)

100 mcg

d)

1,000 mcg

37.

Prescription auxiliary labels provide additional information about a prescription. Which of the following prescription auxiliary labels should be used on the following prescription?

Rx: doxycycline 100 mg 1 tab PO q12h × 10D

a)

“For the ear”

b)

“Refrigerate”

c)

“Shake before use”

d)

“Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight”

38.

Which of the following medications has a narrow therapeutic index?

a)

phenytoin

b)

lisinopril

c)

glyburide

d)

hydroxyzine

39.

A patient is taking glyburide for her type II diabetes, and she presents a prescription for glimepiride to the pharmacy technician. What should the pharmacy technician do?

a)

Fill the prescription as written.

b)

Alert the pharmacist about the duplication in therapy.

c)

Alert the pharmacist about the drug-food interaction.

d)

Give the prescription back to the patient and refuse to fill it.

See Explanation

Previous

40.

Federal law mandates that DEA 222 forms be kept for a period of _______ year(s).

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

7

41.

Which of the following programs is provided by the FDA and allows health professionals to report adverse drug reactions?

a)

WatchRx

b)

RxReport

c)

MedWatch

d)

ReportU

42.

Ondansetron is classified as an __________.

a)

anti-inflammatory

b)

antiemetic

c)

analgesic

d)

antihistamine

43.

Which of the following types of formulations contains alcohol?

a)

gel

b)

suppository

c)

elixir

d)

ointment

44.

Calculate the number of tablets needed to fill this prescription.

Rx:2 tabs PO QID × 3D,

2 tabs PO TID × 3D,

2 tabs PO BID × 2D,

1 tab PO BID × 2D

,1 tab PO QD × 2D,

Then stop.

a)

50 tablets

b)

52 tablets

c)

54 tablets

d)

56 tablets

45.

All of the following vaccines can be stored in a refrigerator prior to reconstitution EXCEPT for the __________ vaccine.

a)

influenza

b)

MMR

c)

DTaP

d)

VARIVAX

46.

According to the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), how much pseudoephedrine can a consumer legally purchase in a 30-day period?

a)

3.6 g

b)

7 g

c)

9 g

d)

10.5 g

47.

20°C is equal to what temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?

a)

60°F

b)

65°F

c)

68°F

d)

71°F

48.

A patient presents a prescription for Lovenox 40 mg BID × 3 weeks. How many doses should be dispensed to the patient?

a)

21 doses

b)

28 doses

c)

35 doses

d)

42 doses

49.

According to the Controlled Substances Act, which of the following is a Schedule IV drug?

a)

Vicodin

b)

oxycodone

c)

anabolic steroids

d)

Ativan

50.

If the label on a multi-dose vial reads 50 mg/mL, what volume will deliver a dose of 5 mg?

a)

0.8 mL

b)

0.5 mL

c)

0.3 mL

d)

0.1 mL

51.

The selling price of a medication is calculated by adding the average wholesale price (AWP) less 15% plus a dispensing fee of $2.50. Calculate the selling price for a prescription with an AWP of $20.00.

a)

$18.00

b)

$18.50

c)

$19.00

d)

$19.50

52.

What is the name of the process of grinding a tablet into a fine powder in a porcelain mortar?

a)

levigation

b)

geometric dilution

c)

trituration

d)

spatulation

53.

What is the maximum number of days that a water-based, compounded oral solution is considered to be stable?

a)

5 DAYS

b)

10 DAYS

c)

14 DAYS

d)

30 DAYS

54.

Which of the following drugs does not need to be packaged in a child-resistant container as mandated under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)?

a)

Ortho Tri-Cyclen

b)

Zyloprim

c)

Augmentin

d)

Lanoxin

55.

Otic preparations are products that are applied to what body structure?

a)

nails

b)

eyes

c)

ears

d)

hair

56.

What is the name of the 10‐ or 11-digit product identification number that is assigned to a drug from the drug manufacturer?

a)

National Drug Code (NDC)

b)

Federal Drug Code (FDC)

c)

Regulated Medication Code (RMC)

d)

Specific Drug Code (SDC)

57.

A patient has been prescribed KCI as a potassium supplement; which unit of measurement is associated with this medication?

a)

international units

b)

milliequivalents

c)

milligrams

d)

milliliters

58.

A prescription costs the pharmacy $15.85 and is sold for $42.00. What is the gross profit?

a)

$26.49

b)

6.22%

c)

62.26%

d)

$26.15

59.

A 500 mL IV bag is to begin infusing at a rate of 40 mL/hr. If the infusion ended at 12:30 p.m., when did it start?

a)

Midnight

b)

3:00 a.m.

c)

6:00 a.m.

d)

10:00 p.m. (the previous day)

60.

500 mL is to be infused over 4 hours. The rate would be:

a)

10 mL/hr.

b)

30 mL/hr.

c)

75 mL/hr.

d)

125 mL/hr.

61.

100 mL is to be administered over 30 minutes using a 60 drop factor. The drip rate is:

a)

60 gtts/min.

b)

100 gtts/min.

c)

200 gtts/min.

d)

225 gtts/min.

62.

Which of the following is the generic name for vitamin K?

a)

Ergocalciferol

b)

Phytonadione

c)

Retinol

d)

Tocopherol

63.

A deficiency of which vitamin results in pernicious anemia?

a)

B1

b)

B7

c)

B12

d)

C

64.

How many milliliters of a 1:50 (w /v) stock solution can be prepared from 1 pint of a 5% stock solution?

a)

96 ml

b)

192 mL

c)

720 mL

d)

1200 mL

65.

A patient complains of having difficulty focusing their attention in a quiet inattentive manner and displays hyperactivity at times. Which medication would be:

appropriate for physician to prescribe?

a)

amitriptyline

b)

atomoxetine

c)

eletriptan

d)

olanzapine

66.

Which drug classification does a medication with a

-sartan suffix belong?

a)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

b)

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist

c)

Calcium channel blocker

d)

Loop diuretic

67.

How many teaspoon doses are in a pint of elixir?

a)

24

b)

48

c)

72

d)

96

68.

A pharmacy technician uses D10W solution to compound a sterile compound instead of normal saline solution. Which type of medication error has occurred?

a)

Improper dose error

b)

Wrong dosage-form error

c)

Wrong drug preparation error

d)

Wrong administration-technique error

69.

If taken with alcohol, which of the following antibiotics may result in a disulfiram-like reaction?

a)

amoxicillin/clavulanate

b)

cephalexin

c)

clarithromycin

d)

Metronidazole

70.

The failure of the pharmacy to observe that a patient is taking too much of their medication is considered which type of medication error?

a)

Compliance error

b)

Monitoring error

c)

Omission error

d)

Unmtthorized drug error

71.

Which of the following is the generic name for Paxil?

a)

lansoprazole

b)

paroxetine

c)

pravastatin

d)

sertraline

72.

What does HEPA stand for?

a)

High Efficient Particle Association

b)

High Efficiency Particulate Air

c)

High Effervescent Pastille Airborne

d)

High Effervescent Particulate Air

73.

Once broken, it becomes an open system and always requires a filter needle to withdraw the liquid medication. Which of the following term fits this description of a single-dose glass container?

a)

Cork

b)

Vial

c)

Ampule

d)

Syringe

74.

All antiseptic manipulations in the laminar flow hood (LFH) should be performed at least __ inches with in the hood.

a)

3

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

75.

The laminar flow hood should be left running continuously; if it is turned off, it should not be used until it has been running for at least __minutes.

a)

15

b)

30

c)

45

d)

60

76.

Which of the following is the correct procedure for cleaning the vertical laminar fow hood?

a)

Clean the hood from side to side;start from the back of the hood then toward the front of the hood

b)

Clean the hood from side to side, from the front, then toward the back of the hood.

c)

Clean the HEPA filter with isopropyl alcohol

d)

Clean the plexiglass with purified water then isopropyl alcohol

77.

Which guage of needle would have the smallest size opening?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

25

d)

30

78.

What kind of needle is used to withdraw a medication from a plastic or glass vial?

a)

Regular needle

b)

Vented needle

c)

Filtered needle

d)

Luer-Lok needle

79.

Which is the largest gelatin capsule size?

a)

0

b)

00

c)

5

d)

10

80.

What is the term when pieces of rubber closure may be carved out and placed into the needle's lumen due to improper insertion into the vial?

a)

Vial insertion

b)

Particulate matter

c)

Coring

d)

Compounding admixture

81.

What is another term for TPN?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypomagnesemia

c)

Hyperalimetation

d)

Sustaination

82.

Which of the following DEA numbers is listed accurately?

a)

BP5694327

b)

BP5694322

c)

BP5694321

d)

BP5694329

83.

The pharmacy technician wishes to become familiar hazardous drug information. To which USP chapter should they refer?

a)

797

b)

795

c)

800

d)

1790

84.

A compounding pharmacy does NOT have a proper eyewash station on site. Which regulatory agency would cite the pharmacy with a violation?

a)

DEA

b)

EPA

c)

FDA

d)

OSHA

85.

According to the Comprehensive Drug Abuse, Prevention, and Control Act of 1970, if the pharmacy does not have the full quantity of a Schedule II controlled substance on hand, a partial fill can be given if the remaining quantity of medication is made available within ________ hours.

a)

24

b)

48

c)

72

d)

96

86.

A DEA number beginning with the letter G indicates the prescriber is which of the following?

a)

DOCTOR

b)

MMIDLEVEL PRACTITIONER

c)

PROVIDER IN A DRUG ADDICTION FACILITY

d)

CONTRACTOR WITH THE DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE

87.

Which of the following medications requires a woman to use birth control for 1 month before treatment begins, during treatment, and for 1 month after treatment has ceased?

a)

erythromycin

b)

isotretinoin

c)

minocycline

d)

tetracycline

88.

Which of the following would be the correct DEA number used by a resident working at Mercy Hospital who has prescribed 20 tablets of hydrocodone with acetaminophen to a patient?

a)

AM1234563

b)

AM1234563-1234

c)

MH1234563

d)

MH1234563-1234

89.

If a pharmacy technician spills a hazardous substance in their eye, how long should they flood the affected eye with water or an isotonic eye wash?

a)

5 minutes

b)

15 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

20 minutes

90.

Which of the following DAW codes is not properly matched to its definition?

a)

1 = Substitution not allowed by provider

b)

2 = Substitution allowed – pharmacist selected product dispensed

c)

2 = Substitution allowed – patient requested product dispensed

d)

0 = No product selection indicated

91.

All the following must appear on a prescription label EXCEPT ________.

a)

drug, strength, and dosage form

b)

expiration date

c)

name, address, and telephone number of the prescriber

d)

refill information

92.

How many days would 40 capsules of a medication last if the directions were "i cap qid"?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

93.

A diabetic patient may be prescribed all of the following dosage forms EXCEPT which one?

a)

Emulsion

b)

Solution

c)

Suspension

d)

Syrup

94.

Mixing liquids and semisoft dosage forms is the best done using which of the following types of mortar and pestle

a)

wedgewood

b)

porcelain

c)

glass

d)

ceramic

95.

Which of the following is a pharmacy technician likely componding if the end product is a solution with the label that says "For Rectal Use Only"?

a)

Troche

b)

Enema

c)

Suppository

d)

Gel

96.

Which of the following medications would be appropriate to dispense to a 64-year-old women diagnosed with osteoporosis?

a)

alendronate with vitamin D

b)

estradiol

c)

naproxen

d)

sertraline

97.

Which of the following medications should not be crushed?La

a)

Lasix

b)

Naprosyn

c)

Tenormin

d)

Toprol XL

98.

A 27-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder. Her physician wishes to prescribe an SSRI; which medications would be an appropriate choice?

a)

amitriptyline

b)

bupropion

c)

imipramine

d)

sertraline

99.

A patient has been diagnosed with breast cancer, and their physician wishes to prescribe a selective estrogen receptor modulator. Which of the following should be prescribed?

a)

anastrozole

b)

megestrol

c)

paclitaxel

d)

tamoxifen

100.

Which of the following electrolytes is necessary for the heart to function properly?

a)

Calcium

b)

Iodine

c)

Potassium

d)

Zinc

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