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AP Bio Final Review #2

Total questions: 248

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Based on the diagram, what would be the most likely effect of a mutation in the YUC gene?

a)

The Trp-T enzyme would not function

b)

I3PA would not be produced

c)

IAA would not be produced

d)

The Trp-T gene would be mutated

2.

Which of the strains shown in the graph have significantly less percent survival than the control strain?

a)

IV only

b)

II, III, IV and V

c)

II, III and IV only

d)

II, III and V only

3.

Based on the control group, approximately how long does it take for 70% of the seeds to germinate?

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

36 hours

d)

48 hours

4.

Based on the graph which of the following is TRUE?

a)

KAR alone increases % seed germination

b)

KAR + TMB increases % seed germination

c)

TMB alone increases % seed germination

d)

KAR alone decreases % seed germination

5.

Based on the graph, what metabolic process is causing the change in oxygen between time I and II?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

fermentation

c)

anaerobic respiration

d)

photosynthesis

6.

Calculate the growth rate of the bacterial population between hours 2 and 4.

a)

0.0002

b)

4,995

c)

500

d)

0.0004

7.

The primary transcript is 15 kb long but the mature RNA is only 7 kb long. What explains the difference?

a)

Mutations in the DNA

b)

Removal of introns

c)

Post-translational modifications

d)

Removal of exons

8.

The diagram shows electrons being stripped from NADH in order to created a proton (H+) gradient. How was the NADH produced?

a)

Light-dependent reactions

b)

Calvin Cycle

c)

Fermentation

d)

Krebs Cycle

9.

Based on the graph, what is the most likely mode of thermoregulation?

a)

ectotherm

b)

endotherm

10.

Between 0-6 months there is less genetic variation in the population. What supports this claim?

a)

The SEM gets bigger

b)

The SEM gets smaller

c)

There is no change in the SEM

11.

What is the correct order of the steps shown in the diagram?

a)

transduction, reception, response

b)

reception, transduction, response

c)

response, reception, transduction

d)

reception, response, transduction

12.

Based on this graph, what is the independent variable?

a)

Time

b)

% seed germination

c)

KAR & TMB chemicals

d)

Lactuca plants

13.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
14.
The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is 
a)
complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
b)
complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
c)
the part of tRNA that bonds with a specific amino acid.
d)
catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
15.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
16.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
17.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
18.
RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?
a)
5' to 3' 
b)
3' to 5' along the template strand
c)
3' to 5' along nontemplate(coding) strand
d)
5' to 3' along the template strand
19.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
20.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
21.
Translation occurs:
a)
Outside of the Nucleus
b)
Inside of the Nucleus
22.
Translation is performed by:
a)
Ribosomes 
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum 
23.
Which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
24.
The anticodon is located on 
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
25.

What is the correct description of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

many linear pieces of DNA in the cytoplasm

b)

many linear pieces of DNA in the nucleus

c)

one circular piece of DNA in the cytoplasm

d)

many circular pieces of DNA in the nucleus

26.
What is the term for making an RNA copy of DNA?
a)
Transription
b)
Translation
c)
Folding
d)
Coding
27.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
28.
Which of the follwoing best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?
a)
it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor
b)
it sets the reading frame of the mRNA
c)
it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding
d)
it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene
29.
Which of the following events in translation is the first to occur in eukaryotes?
a)
elongation of the polypeptide
b)
base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
c)
binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
d)
the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5'cap
30.
What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?
a)
it must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER
b)
its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi
c)
Its signal sequence must be cleaved off
d)
Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane
31.
Translation is crucial to the process of making proteins. Which statement best describes what takes place during translation? 
a)
A copy of chromosomal DNA is created 
b)
Information in mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids in a protein 
c)
A RNA copy of a DNA strand is made.
d)
Instructions from DNA in the nucleus are brought to the cytoplasm 
32.
Smaller segments of RNA nucleotides that transport amino acids to the ribosomes.
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
33.

Organisms get their energy to do work from ___________ energy.

a)

solar energy

b)

chemical energy

c)

thermal energy

d)

nuclear energy

34.

A --> B + C

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

35.

A + B --> C

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

36.

Net release of energy

a)

endergonic

b)

exergonic

37.

Net intake of energy

a)

endergonic

b)

exergonic

38.

A + B --> AB + Energy

This is what type of reaction?

a)

exergonic

b)

endergonic

39.
Which of the following is true for anabolic pathways?
a)
they do not depend on enzymes
b)
they are usually spontaneous chemical reactions
c)
they consume energy to build polymers from monomers
d)
They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers
40.

A degradative process such as cellular respiration can also be known as...

a)

catabolic pathway

b)

kinetic pathway

c)

endergonic pathway

d)

anabolic pathway

41.
DNA replication involves unwinding two strands of parent DNA, copying each strand to synthesize complementary strands, and releasing the parent and daughter DNA so now there are two copies of the original strand. Which of the following accurately describes this process?
a)
This is an anabolic process
b)
This is a catabolic process
c)
This is both anabolic and catabolic
d)
This is a metabolic process but is neither anabolic nor catabolic
42.

To do work, living systems will pair an catabolic reaction with a(n)________________

a)

exergonic reaction

b)

oxidative reaction

c)

ATP synthesis

d)

anabolic reaction

43.

Which statement is true according to the image?

a)

A: endergonic; B: exergonic

b)

A: exothermic; B: endothermic

c)

A: exergonic; B: endergonic

d)

A: endothermic; B: exothermic

44.

The reaction shown is:

a)

endergonic because energy is released

b)

exergonic because energy is released

c)

endergonic because energy is captured

d)

exergonic because energy is captured

45.

Which type of reaction does the graph represent?

a)

anabolic

b)

catabolic

c)

endergonic

d)

ATP phosphorylation

46.
The mechanism by which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is called ___________
a)
metabolic inhibition
b)
feedback inhibition
c)
irreversible inhibition
d)
allosteric regulation
47.
Main cellular energy molecule
a)
ATP
b)
ADP
c)
cAMP
48.
ATP is called a cell’s “energy currency” because
a)
ATP catalyzes all metabolic reactions.
b)
most of the energy that drives metabolism is supplied by ATP.
c)
glucose is made of ATP.
d)
ATP allows one organelle to be exchanged for another between cells.
49.
Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?
a)
Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.
b)
It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.
c)
Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that when hydrolyzed releases free energy.
d)
Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the other two.
50.
Energy is released from ATP when
a)
a phosphate group is added
b)
adenine bonds to ribose
c)
ATP is exposed to sunlight
d)
a phosphate group is removed
51.

Which molecule has the highest potential energy?

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

AMP

52.

Where is energy stored in ATP?

a)

in the bonds between phosphate

b)

in oxygen

c)

in sugar

d)

in nitrogenous base

53.

Cyanide is a toxin that stops the mitochondria from producing ATP. If cyanide were introduced into your cells, it is probably acting as a(n)

a)

activator

b)

coenzyme

c)

inhibitor

d)

substrate

54.

Cyanide is a toxin that stops the mitochondria from producing ATP. If cyanide got into your cells, the absence of ATP would cause

a)

an increased chemical reactions because ATP will no longer be in the way

b)

divergence of metabolic pathways due to lack of ATP

c)

a decrease in chemical reactions because ATP is needed, but the cell can use carbohydrates, proteins or lipids instead

d)

a slow down and eventual cessation of chemical reactions because ATP is absolutely needed for chemical reactions to occur

55.

Phase involving microtubules to separate sister chromatids to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

56.

Which checkpoint involves ensuring all microtubules are attached to kinetochores?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

57.

Which of the following describes the order of processes in the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Interphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Cytokinesis, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Interphase, Cytokinesis

58.

Phase involving pairing of sister chromatids and condensation of chromatin into chromosomes

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

59.

Which of the following describes the result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical, haploid cells

b)

4 non-identical haploid cells

c)

2 identical, diploid cells

d)

4 non-identical, diploid cells

60.

Which checkpoint involves determining whether the cell should divide?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

61.

Phase involving formation of nuclear envelope around separated chromosomes

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

62.

Phase involving sister chromatids aligning on plate in middle of cell.

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

63.

Which checkpoint involves ensuring all DNA has been replicated and "no" errors exist?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

64.

Which of the following occurs BEFORE the process of mitosis?

a)

Sister chromatids pair up

b)

DNA replicates

c)

Chromatin is condensed to chromosomes

d)

Cytoplasm is divided between two cells

65.
In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman have a son who is affected with hemophilia, which of the following is definitely true?
a)
The mother carries an allele for hemophilia
b)
The father carries an allele for hemophilia
c)
The father is afflicted with hemophilia
d)
both parents carry an allele for hemophilia
66.

Which blood-type is co-dominant, where both alleles are expressed in the phenotype

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

67.
In guinea pigs, the alleles for black hair(B) is dominant to the allele for brown hair(b). Two black-haired guinea pigs are crossed. One of the pigs is homozygous for black hair and one is heterozygous. What percentage of their offspring are expected to have black hair?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
68.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
69.
A breed of chicken shows codominance for feather color. One allele codes for black feathers, another codes for white feathers. The feathers of heterozygous chickens of this breed will be:
a)
all black
b)
all white
c)
all gray
d)
speckled black and white
70.
A child born with blood type O could have parents with all of the following blood types except...?
a)
iAiO and iBiO
b)
iBiO and iOiO
c)
iAiO and iAiO
d)
iAiB and iOiO
71.

States that each pair of alleles segregates independently of each other pair of alleles during gamete formation.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Loci

d)

Law of Independent Assortment

72.

Genes located near each other on the same chromosome tend to be _____________.

a)

Inherited together.

b)

not inherited together.

c)

mixed together.

d)

separated.

73.

If the χ2 critical value = 5.99 and the

χ2 calculated value = 7.35, what is the conclusion

a)

Reject null hypothesis

b)

Accept null hypothesis

c)

there is not enough info to decide

d)

The conclusion can only be made if we also know the p-value

74.

What are the degrees of freedom for the following χ² test?

a)

6

b)

2

c)

5

d)

12

75.
Gene A, B, and C are on the same chromosome.  Gene A separates from gene B 15% of the time and gene B separates from gene C 2% of the time. How far apart are genes A and C in gene map?
a)
2 map units
b)
15 map units
c)
17 map units
d)
30 map units
76.
Give the genotype for person II-1, for this autosomal trait.
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
we cannot be 100% sure of the genotype
77.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
78.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
79.
Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive disorder. If the daughter of a couple is colorblind, what are the two possible genotypes of her mother?
a)
XAXA and XAXa
b)
XAXA and XaXa
c)
XAXa and XaXa
d)
Cannot be determined
80.
The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
characteristics
d)
intelligence
81.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
82.

Skin color is polygenic where dominant gene is responsible for making dark melanin and the recessive gene is responsible for making light melanin. Which of the following skin tones would be the lightest? Check all that apply.

a)

AABBCC

b)

AaBbCc

c)

AaBbcc

d)

aaBbCc

83.

In which phase does crossing-over happen?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

84.

What phase is this?

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Telophase I

c)

Telophase II

d)

Anaphase I

85.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
86.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).


Cross a red flower with a blue flower.

a)

1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue

b)

2 red, 2 blue

c)

4 speckled

d)

1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue

87.

What is the genotype that should be in the blank square?

a)

yyRr

b)

YYRR

c)

yyrr

d)

YrYr

88.
What is the genotype for a pea plant heterozygous for round seeds (R), and homozygous recessive for green seeds (y)?
a)
Ry
b)
RRyy
c)
RrYy
d)
Rryy
89.

What is the genotype for a pea plant homozygous for round seeds (R), and heterozygous for yellow seeds?

a)

RrYy

b)

RRyy

c)

RRYy

d)

rryy

90.
Using the dihybrid cross and key provided, what is the probability of the offspring being tall and white?
a)
9
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
91.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

92.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, green seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

93.

What is the genotype for a pea plant homozygous for round seeds (R), and heterozygous for yellow seeds?

a)

RrYy

b)

RRyy

c)

RRYy

d)

rryy

94.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
95.
An organism’s genetic makeup or allele combination.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Beanotype
d)
Notype
96.

In rabbits, grey hair (G) is dominant to white hair (g). Also, black eyes (B) are dominant to red eyes (b).


Determine the genotype of a rabbit with the phenotype: purebred for grey fur with black eyes (select all possible genotypes)

a)

GgBb

b)

GGBb

c)

GGBB

d)

GgBB

97.

What is the name of the signaling molecule in cell communication?

a)

ligand

b)

receptor

c)

operon

d)

inhibitor

98.

Choose the correct order of communication.

a)

reception, response, transduction

b)

transduction, reception, response

c)

response, transduction, reception

d)

reception, transduction, response

99.

Long distance signals involving hormones are ________ signals.

a)

paracrine

b)

synaptic

c)

endocrine

100.

Phosphorylation cascades are often used for

a)

reception

b)

responses

c)

amplification

d)

termination

101.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
102.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
103.
When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. The pancreas releases insulin, which opens channels in cell membranes to allow glucose to enter the cell, lowering blood sugar levels. 
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
104.
The process of childbirth is an example of:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
105.

What type of feedback loop is shown?

a)

negative

b)

neutral

c)

positive

106.

Consider this pathway: epinephrine--> G protein-coupled receptor --> G protein --> adenylyl cyclase --> cAMP. Identify the second messenger.

a)

cAMP

b)

G protein

c)

GTP

d)

adenylyl cyclase

e)

G protein-coupled receptor

107.

Enzymes and energy are required for the synthesis of DNA and RNA. Which enzyme is correctly linked with its function?

a)

Telomerase ensures that the transcription machinery starts with the codon AUG.

b)

DNA ligase joins together Okazaki fragments from the lagging strand.

c)

DNA polymerase oversees the binding of mRNA to the ribosome.

d)

Helicase alters the new DNA strands so it will coil into a double helix.

108.

In analyzing the number of different based in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules?

a)

A=G

b)

A+G=C+T

c)

A+T=G+T

d)

A=C

109.

A mutation is any change in a DNA sequence. Of the following mutation events, which one would have the most significant effect on the resulting polypeptide?

a)

A nucleotide & its complementary base are replaced, resulting in a new amino acid in translation.

b)

A nucleotide pair is added into a gene near its terminal end, altering the reading frame of the genetic message.

c)

A nucleotide pair substitution occurs, which results in the introduction of a "stop" codon.

d)

A nucleotide is altered that results in no change in the amino acid sequence due to redundancy.

110.

What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?

a)

The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end.

b)

Helicases and DNA polymerase work at the 5' end.

c)

DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand.

d)

DNA ligase works only in the 3' --> 5' direction.

111.

Griffith investigated R and S strains with mice. What did he conclude about the S strain and the R strain in the trial with heat-killed S strain and living R strain?

a)

The mouse lived as the R strain provided protection from the nonliving S strain.

b)

The mouse died as the R strain did not provide protection from the nonliving S strain.

c)

The mouse lived as the R strain was not affected by a transforming agent released from the nonliving S strain.

d)

The mouse died as the R strain was affected by a transforming agent released from the nonliving S strain

112.

What feature did Hershey and Chase use to differentiate between the protein and nucleic acid in their experiment?

a)

Proteins have phosphorus and Nucleic acids have sulfur

b)

Proteins have sulfur and Nucleic acids have phosphorus

c)

Proteins are single stranded and Nucleic acids are double stranded

d)

Proteins are double stranded and Nucleic acids are single stranded

113.

What information did Chargaff provide to Watson and Crick to aid in their understanding of base pairing?

a)

adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine.

b)

adenine pairs with guanine and thymine pairs with cytosine.

c)

adenine pairs with cytosine and guanine pairs with thymine.

d)

adenine pairs with adenine and thymine pairs with thymine.

114.

Which scientist(s) conclusively proved that DNA was the genetic material for organisms?

a)

Chargaff

b)

Watson & Crick (+ Rosalind Franklin)

c)

Griffith

d)

Hershey & Chase

e)

Meselson & Stahl

115.

Which feedback mechanism involves homeostasis of a particular condition by regulating physiological processes?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

116.

Which feedback mechanism involves amplifying responses and processes in biological organisms?

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

117.

What is the difference between leading and lagging strands?

a)

DNA is synthesized in a 5' to 3' direction on the lagging strand and a 3' to 5' direction on the leading strand

b)

DNA is synthesized in a 3' to 5' direction on the lagging strand and a 5' to 3' direction on the leading strand

c)

DNA is synthesized continuously on the leading strand and discontinuously on the lagging strand

d)

DNA is synthesized discontinuously on the leading strand and continuously on the lagging strand

118.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for joining the Okazaki fragments?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA ligase

119.

Which of the following explains the base pairing rules?

a)

G pairs with T with 3 hydrogen bonds and A pairs with C with 2 hydrogen bonds

b)

G pairs with T with 2 hydrogen bonds and A pairs with C with 3 hydrogen bonds

c)

A pairs with T with 2 hydrogen bonds and G pairs with C with 3 hydrogen bonds

d)

A pairs with T with 3 hydrogen bonds and G pairs with C with 2 hydrogen bonds

120.

Which of the following describes how DNA replication differs between a prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes have circular DNA requiring one origin of replication while eukaryotes have multiple origins on linear DNA

b)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA requiring one origin of replication while eukaryotes have multiple origins on circular DNA

c)

Prokaryotes have circular DNA requiring multiple origins of replication while eukaryotes have one origin on linear DNA

d)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA requiring multiple origins of replication while eukaryotes have one origin on circular DNA

121.

Which of the following strands would be more stable at a higher temperature?

a)

AATTAATTAATT

b)

CCGGCCGGCCGG

c)

ATCGATCGATCGAT

d)

CGATCGATCGATCG

122.

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have plasmids. What are plasmids?

a)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

b)

large extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

c)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, circular DNA molecules

d)

small extra-chromosomal, double-stranded, linear DNA molecules

123.

Which of the following genetic engineering techniques is incorrectly described?

a)

Electrophoresis separates molecules based on size & charge

b)

Bacterial transformation introduces DNA to bacterial cells

c)

PCR allows for DNA fragments to be stabilized for engineering processes

d)

DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule

124.

Which of the following describes an operon that is inactive and becomes activated by a molecule binding to the repressor?

a)

inducible operon

b)

repressible operon

125.

Which of the following describes an operon that is active and becomes inactivated by a molecule binding to the repressor?

a)

inducible operon

b)

repressible operon

126.

Which of the following describes how a plasmid and gene of interest are combined to create a vector?

a)

A restriction enzyme binds to the same restriction site on both DNA strands then DNA ligase seals phosphodiester linkage

b)

A primer binds to the gene of interest to facilitate the process of inserting the gene into the plasmid

c)

A helicase unwinds the DNA to allow for the gene of interest to be inserted then DNA ligase seals phosphodiester linkages

d)

A DNA polymerase uses the gene of interest as a template to insert the gene into the plasmid

127.

Which of the following describes the orientation of the DNA found in a run gel electrophoresis?

a)

Small fragments are found near the well since it is negatively charged

b)

Large fragments are found near the well while small fragments are found at the other end.

c)

Small fragments are found near the well while small fragments are found at the other end.

d)

Large fragments are found near the well since it is positively charged

128.

Identify two populations with statistically significant differences in the mean stem trichome densities. Justify.

a)

I & II, error bars overlap

b)

I & II, error bars do not overlap

c)

I & III, error bars do not overlap

d)

I & III, error bars overlap

129.

A plasmid was cut using restriction enzymes. Determine the number of restriction sites for HaeIII. Justify.

a)

3, there are 2 fragments resulting from a linear DNA strand being cut

b)

3, there are 4 fragments resulting from a linear DNA strand being cut

c)

2, there are 2 fragments resulting from a circular DNA strand being cut

d)

4, there are 4 fragments resulting from a circular DNA strand being cut

130.

A goat can produce milk containing the same polymers present in the silk produced by spiders when a particular genes from a spider are inserted into the goat's genome. Which of the following reasons describes why this is possible?

a)

Goats and spiders share a common ancestor and thus produce similar protein excretions.

b)

Goats retain all the genes that were found in ancestral species and will express these proteins when activated by a gene insertion

c)

The proteins in goats' milk and spiders' silk have the same amino acid sequence.

d)

The universal nature of the genetic code allows for production of identical proteins from different organisms as long as the DNA sequence is identical.

131.

Human immune cells present antigen from foreign invaders to T cells. What type of signaling is this?

a)

Direct

b)

Long distance

c)

Local

d)

Transduction

132.

What do GPCRs do to a signal?

a)

Amplify the signal through enzyme activation

b)

Generate GDP from GTP to amplify the signal

c)

Once ligand binds, the G protein will inactivate associated enzymes

d)

Ligand binding deactivates the G protein allowing GDP to be coverted to GTP

133.

A molecule is released to NEARBY blood vessels. What type of signaling is being used?

a)

Paracrine

b)

Direct contact

c)

Endocrine

d)

Long distance

134.

Non-protein molecules and ions that amplify signals

a)

Second messengers

b)

Phosphatases

c)

Kinases

d)

Ligands

135.

A plant is exposed to ethylene gas. The plant will

a)

Die immediately

b)

Ripen faster

c)

Ripen slower

d)

Nothing will happen

136.

A signal transduction pathway will

a)

alter membrane permeability

b)

change metabolism

c)

alter gene expression

d)

change DNA structure

137.

Phosphodiesterase turns cAMP into other second messengers. If that enzyme was inhibited, what would you expect?

a)

Increase in transcription factors

b)

Increase in cAMP levels

c)

Low levels of phosphodiesterase

d)

High levels of phosphatase to shut down the signal pathway

138.

This molecule is responsible for phosphorylation

a)

kinase

b)

phospatase

c)

ligand

d)

phosphodiesterase

139.

Plasmodesmata are unique to

a)

Plant cells

b)

Animal cells

c)

Bacterial cells

d)

Amoeba/Protozoa

140.

Negative feedback

a)

Reduces the strength of a signal

b)

Moves organism away from homeostasis

c)

Increase signal strength

141.

What would happen to blood glucose after eating carbohydrates?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain constant

142.

Blood glucose regulation is

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

143.

The pancreas releases insulin when blood glucose is high. The pancreas releases glucagon when blood glucose is low. At what point would glucagon be releases?

a)

After a meal

b)

After fasting

144.

VEGF pathway helps to grow blood vessels. Which is true about the action of AKT?

a)

AKT converts several enzymes in the pathway

b)

Directly inhibits PIP3

c)

Inactivates conversion of PLCy to IP3

d)

Inhibits casp9 and bad resulting in apoptosis instead of survival

145.

If PLCy were mutated losing some functionality, how would the signal cascade be affected?

a)

There would a slower conversion of PLCy to DAG and IP3

b)

It would completely prevent PKC from generating eNOS

c)

VEGFR2 could not generate Sck

d)

PLCy inhibits VEGFR2. If PLCy lost some functionality, VEGFR2 would become active.

146.

Only examples of positive feedback in the human body?

a)

blood clotting

b)

labor

c)

body temperature

d)

blood glucose

147.

40 chromatids. How many centromeres?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

80

d)

10

148.

A somatic cell undergoes 4 rounds of cell division. How many cells are produced?

a)

16

b)

8

c)

32

d)

4

149.

Order the cell cycle

a)

G1-->S-->G2-->M-->Cytokinesis

b)

G1-->G2-->S-->M-->Cytokinesis

c)

M-->G1-->S-->G2-->Cytokinesis

150.

Two sets of chromosomes, divide through mitosis, 46 chromosomes in human

a)

diploid cells

b)

haploid cells

c)

gametes

151.

Chromosome pairs of the same size, shape, and coding regions

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

Sister chromatids

c)

Daughter cells

152.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
153.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
154.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
155.

What does a phosphatase do to a cell signaling pathway?

a)

Activates through phosphorylation

b)

Activates through dephosphorylation

c)

Deactivates through phosphorylation

d)

Deactivates through dephosphorylation

156.

Mice maintain a constant internal temperature despite being outdoors in varying temperatures. Lizard body temperature varies greatly depending on external temperatures. Why is that?

a)

Mice use a negative feedback look to maintain homeostatic temperature

b)

Lizards use a negative feedback look to maintain homeostatic temperature

c)

Mice use a positve feedback look to maintain homeostatic temperature

d)

Lizards use a positive feedback look to maintain homeostatic temperature

157.
a)

1: centromere

2: kinetochore

3: sister chromatids

b)

1: kinetochore

2: centromere

3: sister chromatids

c)

1: centromere

2: sister chromatids

3: kinetochore

d)

1: sister chromatids

2: kinetochore

3: centromere

158.

There are three external cell regulators: growth factors, contact inhibition, and anchorage dependence. The following description matches which regulator.

Stimulate cell growth.

a)

growth factors

b)

contact inhibition

c)

anchorage dependence

159.

There are three external cell regulators: growth factors, contact inhibition, and anchorage dependence. The following description matches which regulator.

Cells have receptors that recognize the nearness of neighboring cells.

a)

growth factors

b)

contact inhibition

c)

anchorage dependence

160.

There are three external cell regulators: growth factors, contact inhibition, and anchorage dependence. The following description matches which regulator.

Cells need to be securely attached to the extracellular matrix before dividing.

a)

growth factors

b)

contact inhibition

c)

anchorage dependence

161.

Throughout the cycle there are internal regulators to ensure that the cycle progresses appropriately. Specifically, proteins known as cyclins and enzymes known as cyclin dependent kinases (CDKs) regulate key events throughout the cell cycle.  CDKs are activated when they bind to their corresponding cyclin and can then phosphorylate molecules in the cell signaling pathway and activate parts of the cell cycle. Cyclin levels fluctuate throughout the cell cycle, while CDK levels remain constant. The diagram below illustrates CDK1 which activates with Cyclin A in G2 and Cyclin B in Mitosis and CDK4 and CDK6, which activate with Cyclin D in G1. In normal cells, the activated CDKs are tightly regulated. As mentioned, cyclin levels fluctuate, and this fluctuation is due to molecules that can break down cyclins at the appropriate stage of the cell cycle, thereby de-activating the CDKs. Cancer cells have mutated cell cycle genes that can lead to uncontrollable growth and cell division, meaning that many components of the CDK pathways are unregulated. Cancer researchers are looking into the efficacy of using CKIs (CDK inhibitors) to treat many types of cancer. As can be seen in the diagram below, p16 inhibits active CDK4/6, p27 inhibits active CDK1 in G2, and p21 inhibits active CDK1 in Mitosis.  Using this information and the diagram below identify how each inhibitor shown can be an effective way of treating cancer by regulating the cell cycle at that specific stage/checkpoint.

a)

I understand that this is the FRQ on the exam.

b)

I will refuse to answer this question.

162.

In a monohybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

163.

In a monohybrid cross of incomplete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

164.

In a dihybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

165.

In a population of 100 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous dominant in a cross between a homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive parent?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

166.

In a population of 200 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous recessive in a cross between a heterozygous and a homozygous recessive parent?

a)

0

b)

50

c)

100

d)

150

e)

200

167.

In an incomplete dominance cross between a white flower and a red flower, what is the probability of a pink offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

168.

In a cross between two roan cows (codominant), what is the probability of a white cow?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

2/4

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

169.

This process involves homologous chromatids exchanging genetic material to increase genetic diversity.

a)

crossing over

b)

random fertilization

c)

independent assortment

d)

gene flow

170.

Which of the following does NOT support the concept of common ancestry for all organisms?

a)

DNA/RNA (genetic code) are shared by all living systems

b)

Ribosomes are found in all forms of life

c)

Glycolysis takes place in all organisms

d)

All organisms undergo sexual reproduction

171.

Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of the shown pedigree?

a)

Autosomal Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Dominant

c)

Autosomal Recessive

d)

Sex-Linked Recessive

172.

In animals, traits determine by the mitochondrial DNA are inherited from the _______________.

a)

mother

b)

brother

c)

father

d)

sister

173.

Describe why a male is more likely to be affected by a sex-linked trait?

a)

Males have only 1 Y chromosome

b)

Females have only 1 Y chromosome

c)

Males have only 1 X chromosome

d)

Females have only 1 X chromosomes

174.

The diagram above illustrates which of the following processes?

a)

Crossing-over

b)

Base pair subsitution

c)

Duplication

d)

Deletion

175.

Imagine you are performing a cross involving garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds with yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.

a)

100 percent yellow-green seeds

b)

100 percent yellow seeds

c)

50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds

d)

25 percent green, 75 percent yellow

176.

Can a human male be a carrier of red-green color blindness?

a)

Yes, males can be carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is autosomal dominant

b)

No, males cannot be the carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is X-linked

c)

No, males cannot be the carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is Y-linked

d)

Yes, males can be carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is autosomal recessive

177.

What is an example of a codominant trait in the human body?

a)

Hair color

b)

Skin Color

c)

Blood Type

d)

Color Blindess

178.

Susy has blonde hair (hh). Her mother has blonde hair, and her father has brown hair (dominant trait). What are the genotypes of Molly's parents?

a)

Mom: hh; Dad: HH

b)

Mom: hh, Dad: Hh

c)

Mom: hh, Dad; hh

d)

Mom: HH, Dad: HH

179.

In snapdragons come in three colors yellow (YY), blue (BB), and green (YB). What would be the chances of having green flowers if you crossed a blue snapdragon with a green snapdragon?

a)

25 %

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

0%

180.

The failure of a chromosome pair to separate properly can be a(n) _______________.

a)

monosomy

b)

trisomy

c)

nondisjunction

d)

all of the above

181.

According to Mendel's Law of Segregation,

a)

there is a 50% probability that a gamete will get a dominant allele

b)

allele pairs segregate of independent other pairs of alleles in gamete form

c)

allele pairs separate in gamete formation.

d)

there is a 3:1 ratio in the f2f^2 generation

182.

What is the difference between the multiplication rule and the addition rule?

a)

Multiply = independent Addition = mutually exclusive

b)

Multiply = mutually exclusive Addition = independent

c)

Multiply = dependent Addition = mutually exlusive

d)

Multiply = mutually exclusive Addition = dependent

183.

Epistasis is when

a)

1 gene alters phenotypic expression of another gene

b)

When a trait is inherited by incomplete and codominance

c)

There is codominance and 2 alleles affect the phenotype

d)

An astronaut is put into a medically induced sleep

184.

Hemizygous means...

a)

you have two of the same allele (version of the gene).

b)

you have two different alleles (versions of the gene).

c)

A homozygote and heterozygote have a baby

d)

you have only one gene instead of two.

185.

Which of the following form(s) a Barr body

a)

one of the Y chromosomes in a male cell

b)

one of the X chromosomes in a male cell

c)

one of the X chromosomes in a female cell

d)

both of the X chromosomes in a female cell

186.

A linkage map shows the relative location of ________ on chromosomes

a)

genes

b)

mutations

c)

mistakes

d)

pathogens

187.

This karyotype is that of a...

a)

Male

b)

Female

188.

Name this phase of Meiosis

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

189.

The phase in Meiosis where crossing over occurs:

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Profés

190.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Telophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase II

d)

Anaphase II

191.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

192.
When does crossing over occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase 1
c)
Prophase 2
d)
Metaphase 1
193.

If a stem cell (body cell) has 24 chromosomes, how many will it have at the end of meiosis?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

6

d)

the number varies per species

194.

Meiosis results in ______.

a)

4 genetically unique haploid gametes

b)

4 genetically unique diploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical cells

d)

4 genetically identical cells

195.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
196.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
gamete
197.

Two processes that increase genetic variation during meiosis are crossing over and _____

a)

Synapsis

b)

Tetrad

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Gameiosis

198.

What causes genetic variation? Choose ALL that apply.

a)

fertilization

b)

crossing over of chromosomes

c)

random assortment of chromosomes during metaphase

d)

asexual reproduction

199.
One of the main reasons genes assort independent of one another  is that 
a)
they produce unrelated traits
b)
they produce related traits
c)
they are on the same chromosome
d)
they are on different chromosomes.
200.
In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman have a son who is affected with hemophilia, which of the following is definitely true?
a)
The mother carries an allele for hemophilia
b)
The father carries an allele for hemophilia
c)
The father is afflicted with hemophilia
d)
both parents carry an allele for hemophilia
201.
In peas, the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t).  The trait for yellow seeds is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seeds is recessive (y).
A cross between two plants results in 292 tall, yellow plants and 103 short, green plants.  What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?
a)
TtYY x Ttyy
b)
TTYy x TTYy
c)
TTyy x TTYy
d)
TtYy x TtYy
202.

If 2n = 48 for a particular cell, then the chromosome number in each cell after meiosis would be

a)

96

b)

48

c)

24

d)

12

203.

The pedigree of a family with a history of a particular genetic disease is shown below. Squares represent males and circles represent females. Shaded symbols represent those who have the disease


If Individual 6 marries a woman with the disease, what is the probability that their first child will have the disease?

a)

0

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

204.

When does the process of independent assortment take place?

a)

prophase I

b)

metaphase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

telophase I

205.

What phase of meiosis describes the law of segregation?

a)

telophase I

b)

anaphase I

c)

telophase II

d)

anaphase II

206.

Describe why a male is more likely to be affected by a sex-linked trait?

a)

Males have only 1 Y chromosome

b)

Females have only 1 Y chromosome

c)

Males have only 1 X chromosome

d)

Females have only 1 X chromosomes

207.

In chickens, feather color shows codominance. A black and white spotted chicken is considered to be "erminette."


(Goes with All erminette chicken questions)


What would be the resulting phenotype ratio of the offspring produced in a cross between two erminette chickens?

a)

1:0

b)

4:0

c)

1:2:1

d)

1:1

208.

Some traits are determined by more than two alleles. What are the possible gametes produced by an individual that is AaBb?

a)

AB, Ab, aB, ab

b)

BAa, Bb, AB, ab

c)

AB, ab

d)

AA, aa, BB, bb

209.

Which best describes epistasis?

a)

An allele that changes the genotype of another allele

b)

A gene that changes the genotype of another gene

c)

An allele that controls or masks the expression of another allele

d)

A gene that controls or masks the expression of another gene

210.

Labrador retriever's fur color is an example of epistasis. In this case the E gene controls the expression of the B gene. It a puppy was born with the genotype eeBB its fur color would be ________ and if it was born with the genotype EEbb it would be __________

a)

yellow, yellow

b)

yellow, black

c)

chocolate, black

d)

yellow, chocolate

211.
If a woman is a carrier for a sex linked recessive trait of hemophilia and her husband has hemophilia, which of the following is true? Make a punnett square!
a)
All sons will have hemophilia
b)
all daughters will have hemophilia
c)
50% of daughters and 50% of sons have hemophilia
d)
100% of sons have hemophilia and 100% of daughters are carriers
212.
According to _______, genes that are closer together on a chromosome, have a higher chance of being inherited together.  
a)
Gene Linkage
b)
Polygenic
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Epistasis
213.

In cows, red cows and white cows are homozygous. The heterozygous genotype is expressed as roan.

A roan cow is crossed with a roan bull. What is the probability of producing a red calf?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

214.

Variation in human skin color is an example of

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Polygenetic traits

d)

Multiple alleles

215.

A pattern in which multiple genes determine the phenotype of an organism

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

heredity

c)

genetics

d)

pedigree

216.

In a complete dominance cross between a white, terminal (recessive) and red, axial (dominant) flower, what is the probability of a red, axial offspring?

a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

9/16

d)

16/16

217.

In a cross between an individual with type A blood (heterozygous) and an individual with type B blood (heterozygous), what is the probability of an offspring with type O blood?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

218.

Identify which of the following descriptions about dominance are correct

a)

Incomplete dominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same

b)

Incomplete dominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits

c)

Codominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits

d)

Codominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same

219.

The D gene controls pea plant height. DD plants are tall and dd plants are dwarf. What is the relationship between D and d?

a)

They are two different plant chromosomes.

b)

They are alleles of the same gene.

c)

They are two possible homozygous genotypes.

d)

They are two possible heterozygous genotypes.

220.

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a recessive allele. A child has CF, even though neither of his parents has CF. What can you conclude about the parents?

a)

One is homozygous and one is heterozygous.

b)

Both are homozygous.

c)

Both are heterozygous.

d)

The child must have been adopted.

221.
This is an example of ___________.
a)
 Incomplete Dominance
b)
 Codominance
222.

Which of the following statement is correct regarding Codominance?

a)

Both alleles are expressed equally

b)

Neither allele is expressed

c)

Expression of a trait depends upon the environment

223.
Which of the following statements is true regarding blood types?
a)
A and O are codominant, B is recessive.
b)
B and O are codominant, A is recessive.
c)
A and B are codominant, O is recessive.
d)
A , B and O are all codominant with each other.
224.
Give the genotype for person III-3
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
225.
Give the genotype for person II-1
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
226.

Which of the following are examples of multiple alleles?

a)

Blood types

b)

Rabbit coat color

c)

Snapdragon flowers

d)

Spotted animals (e.g. dog)

227.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
228.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
229.

Which of the following are true of meiosis? Select all that apply!

a)

It results in four cells

b)

It results in two cells

c)

The daughter cells are genetically identical

d)

The daughter cells are genetically unique

e)

The daughter cells are haploid

230.

Describe this karyotype.

a)

Male with no obvious disorder

b)

Female with no obvious disorder

c)

Female with disorder

d)

Male with disorder

231.
T13 - Nondisjunction is related to a number of serious human disorders. How does nondisjunction cause these disorders? 
a)
alters the number of zygotes
b)
alters the chromosome structure
c)
alters the number of gametes
d)
alters the number of chromosomes
232.

Which best describes epistasis?

a)

An allele that changes the genotype of another allele

b)

A gene that changes the genotype of another gene

c)

An allele that controls or masks the expression of another allele

d)

A gene that controls or masks the expression of another gene

233.
This pattern of inheritance is when one gene or mutation can have multiple phenotypic effects
a)
Multiple alleles
b)
Polygenic inheritance
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Codominance
234.

Which genes in this picture are linked?

a)

A and C

b)

B and C

c)

A and B

d)

none of them

235.

Which genes will have the greatest chance of being separated during crossing over?

a)

B and C

b)

A and B

c)

C and D

d)

D and A

236.

Two genes on a given chromosome that are most likely to be inherited together are

a)

6.8 map units apart.

b)

10 map units apart.

c)

2 map units apart.

d)

18.5 map units apart

237.

Suppose the cross-over percentages for three gene pairs are: A to B = 9.5%, B to C = 14.5%, and A to C = 5%. Which of the following sequences could represent the order of these genes on a chromosome?

a)

CAB

b)

ABC

c)

CBA

d)

ACB

238.

What are the possible alleles a parent with the GgBb genotype could donate to their gametes? (Hint: F.O.I.L.)

a)

GB, Gb, gB, gb

b)

GB, GB, gb, gb

c)

Gb, Gb, Gb, GB

d)

GG, BB, gg, bb

239.
Biodiversity refers to
a)
extinct species
b)
the variety of species on Earth
c)
nonrenewable resources
d)
the rate of species decline
240.
Kudzu has overgrown many parts of southern Missouri and native ground plants have disappeared from the area. This is an example of:
a)
Parasitism between kudzu and the native plants
b)
A predator prey relationship between ground plants and kudzu
c)
Competition occurring between the native and invasive species
d)
Commesalism occurring between the kudzo and native plants
241.

A species that plays a critical role in the health, maintenance, growth, or definition of an ecosystem.

a)

keystone

b)

invasive

c)

engineer

d)

predator

242.

Which of the following would be the most likely effect, if there were a sudden increase in the cricket population?

a)

There would be a decrease in the small bird population.

b)

There would be a decrease in the grass/flowers population.

c)

There would be a decrease in the mice population.

d)

There would be an increase in the grass/flowers population.

243.
In this food chain, what will happen if the frogs become extinct?
a)
The snakes will increase.
b)
The grasshoppers will decrease.
c)
The eagles will remain the same.
d)
The grasshoppers will increase.
244.
A food chain shows the transfer of ___ from one organism to another. 
a)
matter
b)
consumers
c)
energy
d)
habitat
245.
What is the source of energy for food chains/food webs?
a)
the sun (even if not pictured)
b)
Producers
c)
Fertilizer
d)
JOHN CENA!
246.
What organisms are at the bottom of an energy pyramid?
a)
Producer
b)
Consumer
c)
Decomposer
d)
Scavenger
247.
How much energy is passed on to each trophic level in an energy pyramid?
a)
10%
b)
90%
c)
50%
d)
80%
248.

this consumer eats only producers

a)

producer

b)

carnivore

c)

omnivore

d)

herbivore