WorksheetsProgression 2
Total questions: 169
Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
With symmetric encryption, the sender and receiver of data:
a)
Use the same public key
b)
Don't use a key
c)
Use the same private key
d)
Use different private keys
2.
What is one effect of data compression?
a)
A file will transfer more quickly
b)
A file will contain fewer errors
c)
A file will increase in quality
d)
A file will transfer more slowly
3.
What can be described as, ' the sender and the recipient of a message have the same secret key. All early cryptographic systems required one of those people to somehow receive a copy of that secret key over a physically secure channel.'
a)
Hashing
b)
Asymmetric encryption
c)
Lossless compression
d)
Symmetric encryption
4.
Hashing has many uses in computer science beyond encryption. What else might hashing be used for?
a)
Searching algorithms
b)
Floating point arithmetic
c)
Binary shifting
d)
Calculating storage capacity
5.
What is compression?
a)
Reducing the size of a file
b)
Converting readable data to an encoded version that can only be decoded with a key
c)
Reorganising files on a hard disk
d)
Making copies of files to protect against data loss
6.
Which of these is a feature of a hashing algorithm?
a)
The same data input does not always result in the same hash value output
b)
It is possible to generate the original data from the hash value
c)
A small change to the data should change the hash value significantly
d)
It is slow to compute the hash value for any given data
7.
Dictionary encoding is:
a)
Partially lossless
b)
Lossless
c)
Lossy
d)
Partially lossy
8.
Which of these is a feature of a hashing algorithm?
a)
It is slow to compute the hash value for any given data
b)
A small change to the data only results in a small change to the hash value
c)
The same data input does not always result in the same hash value output
d)
It is not possible to generate the original data from the hash value
9.
Which of these is a feature of a hashing algorithm?
a)
A small change to the data only results in a small change to the hash value
b)
It is slow to compute the hash value for any given data
c)
It is possible to generate the original data from the hash value
d)
The same data input always results in the same hash value output
10.
Hashing has many uses in computer science beyond encryption. What else might hashing be used for?
a)
Compression
b)
Sorting algorithms
c)
Fingerprinting
d)
Interrupt handling
11.
Encoding data in a way that only authorised parties can view it is known as what?
a)
Encryption
b)
Network forensics
c)
Phishing
d)
Security
12.
Alice encrypts a message to Bob using key 3734. Bob knows this key, and decrypts the message using his key 2456. Which type of encryption have Alice and Bob used?
a)
Symmetric encryption
b)
Asymmetric encryption
c)
Lossless compression
d)
Hashing
13.
The data sequence WWWWWBBBWWWWBBBBB is stored as 5W3B4W5B. Which compression technique has been used?
a)
Dictionary encoding
b)
Run length encoding
c)
Hash encoding
d)
Asymmetric encoding
14.
What is encryption?
a)
Reducing the size of a file
b)
Reorganising files on a hard disk
c)
Making copies of files to protect against data loss
d)
Converting readable data to an encoded version that can only be decoded with a key
15.
Sina uploads his programming source code into a repository to share with colleagues. Which type of compression should be used by the upload and storage algorithm?
a)
Salt
b)
Lossy
c)
Private
d)
Lossless
16.
Which compression technique is most likely to be used when compressing an image from a book downloaded from a cloud library to be stored on a monochrome personal e-book reader?
a)
Asymmetric encoding
b)
Run length encoding
c)
Hash encoding
d)
Dictionary encoding
17.
James is creating an online video library in the cloud. Users will be able to upload and download videos to the platform. Maximising the data storage capacity and download speeds is more important than ensuring a 4K output. Which type of compression best suits James' needs?
a)
Lossy
b)
Lossless
c)
Hashing
d)
Salt
18.
Hashing has many uses in computer science beyond encryption. What else might hashing be used for?
a)
Firewalls
b)
Digital signatures
c)
Buffering
d)
Shortest path algorithms
19.
Which compression technique is most likely to be used when compressing text from a book downloaded from a cloud library to be stored on a monochrome personal e-book reader?
a)
Run length encoding
b)
Hash encoding
c)
Asymmetric encoding
d)
Dictionary encoding
20.
Which type of file is lossy compression best suited to?
a)
Configuration files
b)
Executable programs
c)
Sound
d)
Email
21.
What is the purpose of encryption?
a)
To prevent hackers accessing data
b)
To store a second copy to protect against data loss
c)
To make data unreadable
d)
To prevent data being stolen
22.
Which type of file is lossy compression best suited to?
a)
Spreadsheets
b)
Executable programs
c)
Word processed documents
d)
Images
23.
Which of these is a feature of a hashing algorithm?
a)
It is possible to generate the original data from the hash value
b)
The same data input does not always result in the same hash value output
c)
A small change to the data only results in a small change to the hash value
d)
It is fast to compute
24.
What is 'salt' when describing hashing for cryptographic algorithms?
a)
Additional input data for a one-way function
b)
The output hash value from the one-way function
c)
The plain text data to be encrypted using a one-way function
d)
The ciphertext generated from the one-way function
25.
What can be described as, 'cryptography that uses pairs of keys: public keys which may be disseminated widely, and private keys which are known only to the owner.'
a)
Hashing
b)
Lossless compression
c)
Symmetric encryption
d)
Asymmetric encryption
26.
Alice encrypts a message to Bob using the key 3734. Bob decrypts the message from Alice using the key 3734. Which type of encryption have Alice and Bob used?
a)
Symmetric encryption
b)
Asymmetric encryption
c)
Hashing
d)
Lossless compression
27.
What is one characteristic of lossy compression?
a)
Data is not lost
b)
File cannot be turned back into its original format
c)
Can be used on text files
d)
Can be used on executable program files
28.
With asymmetric encryption, the sender and receiver of data:
a)
Use the same private key
b)
Don't use a key
c)
Don't use the same public key
d)
Use different private keys
29.
What is one characteristic of lossless compression?
a)
File can be turned back into its original format
b)
Some data is lost
c)
Cannot be used on executable program files
d)
Offers the best compression rate of all the algorithms
30.
What can be described as, 'lossless data compression in which sequences of the same data value are stored as a single data value and count'?
a)
Lossy encoding
b)
Run length encoding
c)
Lossless encoding
d)
Dictionary encoding
31.
Run length encoding is:
a)
Partially lossless
b)
Lossy
c)
Lossless
d)
Partially lossy
32.
Asymmetric encryption makes use of:
a)
One-way algorithms
b)
Four-way algorithms
c)
Two-way algorithms
d)
Three-way algorithms
33.
What is one characteristic of lossy compression?
a)
Some data is lost
b)
File can be turned back into its original format
c)
Can be used on text files
d)
Can be used on executable program files
34.
Which cryptographic technique is generally considered to be more secure?
a)
Asymmetric encryption
b)
Symmetric encryption
c)
Hashing
d)
Lossless compression
35.
Alice has the password, 'Frg!23578'. Bob has the same password. When they are stored in a database, they have different passwords. How has this been achieved with a hashing function?
a)
By using a public key
b)
By using salt
c)
By using dictionary encoding
d)
By using compression
36.
What is one characteristic of lossless compression?
a)
Offers the best compression rate of all the algorithms
b)
Cannot be used on executable program files
c)
Some data is lost
d)
None of the data is lost
37.
Which of these is a way to protect data?
a)
Encryption
b)
Validation
c)
Verification
d)
Malware
38.
What can be described as, 'lossless data compression where a search for a match between the text to be compressed and a set of strings contained in a data structure is performed'?
a)
Run length encoding
b)
Lossy encoding
c)
Dictionary encoding
d)
Lossless encoding
39.
What does compression do?
a)
Increase the number of bits in a file
b)
Always increases the speed at which data can be processed from a file
c)
Reduce the number of errors that may occur in a file
d)
Reduce the number of bits in a file
40.
What is one effect of data compression?
a)
A file will increase in quality
b)
A file will contain fewer errors
c)
A file will require less storage capacity
d)
A file will transfer more slowly
41.
Which of these is a feature of Assembly language?
a)
Data is stored in local or global variables
b)
Commands have a one-to-many relationship with machine code
c)
Features inheritance
d)
Commands have a one-to-one relationship with machine code
42.
A line of assembly code reads 'LDA 005', what does this mean if we are using immediate addressing?
a)
Load the value 005 into the accumulator
b)
Go to memory address 005, follow the address found here and load its contents into the accumulator
c)
Modify address 005 by adding it to the contents of the index register, follow and load contents into the accumulator
d)
Go to memory address 005 and load its contents into the accumulator
43.
In object orientated programming what is a 'base class'?
a)
The highest class and does not inherit from any other class
b)
A type definition of an object
c)
An instance of a class
d)
A class that only has encapsulated attributes
44.
A device driver is created for a robotic arm using a low level language. Which language is likely to be used?
a)
Assembler
b)
Translator
c)
C++
d)
Assembly
45.
Which of these is a feature of object orientated programming languages?
a)
Data is concealed from other parts of the program, known as encapsulation
b)
Commands have a one-to-one relationship with machine code
c)
Data is accessible by addressing specific memory locations
d)
Uses symbolic address as labels to reference locations of data in memory
46.
In object orientated programming what is a 'super class'?
a)
A type definition of an object
b)
A class from which another class is derived
c)
A class that only has encapsulated attributes
d)
An instance of an object
47.
Which of these is a feature of procedural programming languages?
a)
Code is written for specific processors
b)
Logic of the program is based on models and behaviours
c)
Commands have a one-to-one relationship with machine code
d)
Logic of the program is expressed in a series of procedure calls
48.
What is the correct definition of the term 'high level language'?
a)
A language where single commands can be mapped to single machine instructions
b)
Set of all possible instructions made available by the hardware design of a particular processor
c)
A programming language with strong abstraction from the instruction set
d)
Method of programming which classifies real world objects into classes
49.
Which of these is a feature of Assembly language?
a)
Uses symbolic address as labels to reference locations of data in memory
b)
Features inheritance
c)
Logic of the program is based on models and behaviours
d)
Data is stored in local or global variables
50.
Which is the correct definition of 'immediate addressing'?
a)
The operand is a value to be used by the instruction
b)
The address is the base address plus the value in the index register
c)
The operand is an address to a memory location containing an address
d)
The operand is the address to use by the instruction
51.
What is the correct definition of the term 'assembly language'?
a)
Any high level language in which program statements can be grouped in self-contained blocks
b)
Set of all possible instructions made available by the hardware design of a particular processor
c)
A language which is related very closely to the computer’s own machine code
d)
Any language which classifies real world objects into classes
52.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to write the contents of the accumulator to a memory location?
a)
INP
b)
STA
c)
OUT
d)
LDA
53.
A subclass called 'Dog' has a super class called 'Animal'. From the subclass we want to access a method in the superclass called 'setName', which line of pseudo-code achieves this?
a)
Animal.setName(parameters)
b)
SUPER.setName(parameters)
c)
Dog.setName(parameters)
d)
SUPERCLASS.setName(parameters)
54.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to declare a variable?
a)
BRP
b)
STA
c)
LDA
d)
DAT
55.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to branch if the accumulator is greater than or equal to zero?
a)
BRP
b)
BRZ
c)
BRA
d)
INP
56.
Which of these is a feature of object orientated programming languages?
a)
Features inheritance
b)
Logic of the program is expressed in a series of procedure calls
c)
Features mnemonics
d)
Code is written for specific processors
57.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to collect data from the keyboard and place it into the accumulator?
a)
ADD
b)
STA
c)
LDA
d)
INP
58.
A line of assembly code reads 'LDA 005', what does this mean if we are using direct addressing?
a)
Go to memory address 005 and load its contents into the accumulator
b)
Modify address 005 by adding it to the contents of the index register, follow and load contents into the accumulator
c)
Load the value 005 into the accumulator
d)
Go to memory address 005, follow the address found here and load its contents into the accumulator
59.
A line of assembly code reads 'LDA 005', what does this mean if we are using index addressing?
a)
Go to memory address 005, follow the address found here and load its contents into the accumulator
b)
Go to memory address 005 and load its contents into the accumulator
c)
Modify address 005 by adding it to the contents of the index register, follow and load contents into the accumulator
d)
Load the value 005 into the accumulator
60.
What does the following assembly language program output? LDA num loop OUT SUB one BRP loop HLT num DAT 5 one DAT 1
a)
5 5 5 5 5 5
b)
5 4 3 2 1 0
c)
5
d)
0 1 2 3 4 5
61.
Which assembly language command will always change the value in the program counter?
a)
BRP
b)
BRZ
c)
STA
d)
BRA
62.
In object orientated programming what is a 'class'?
a)
An instance of a class
b)
A single bit of data within an object
c)
A program routine contained within an object
d)
A type definition of an object
63.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to output data from the accumulator to the display?
a)
SUB
b)
BRP
c)
LDA
d)
OUT
64.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to subtract a variable from the accumulator?
a)
INP
b)
STA
c)
SUB
d)
OUT
65.
What does polymorphism require?
a)
Object instantiation
b)
Constructor methods
c)
Encapsulated attributes
d)
Method overriding
66.
Which of these is a feature of a low level programming language?
a)
Source code is easier to write
b)
Translates to many different machine types
c)
Large number of instructions
d)
Translates to one type of machine
67.
Which assembly language command could change the value in the program counter?
a)
DAT
b)
STA
c)
BRP
d)
ADD
68.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to branch if the accumulator is zero?
a)
BRP
b)
INP
c)
BRZ
d)
BRA
69.
What is the correct definition of the term 'instruction set'?
a)
Set of all possible instructions made available by the hardware design of a particular processor
b)
Any language which is close to machine code
c)
Any high level language in which program statements can be grouped in self-contained blocks
d)
Method of programming which classifies real world objects into classes
70.
What pseudocode keyword should be placed before an attribute or method if we want to indicate it is encapsulated within a class/object?
a)
PRIVATE
b)
LOCAL
c)
GLOBAL
d)
PUBLIC
71.
In object orientated programming what is an 'attribute'?
a)
An instance of a class
b)
A variable or constant of an object
c)
A program routine contained within an object designed to perform a particular task
d)
A type definition of an object
72.
What does the following assembly language program do? INP STA 10 INP ADD 10 STA 12 OUT HLT
a)
Takes in one number, adds it to itself, outputs the result
b)
Takes in two numbers, compares them, outputs the larger
c)
Takes in two numbers, adds them together and outputs the result
d)
Takes in two numbers, multiples them, outputs the result
73.
In object orientated programming what is an 'object'?
a)
An instance of a class
b)
A class from which another class is derived
c)
A single attribute
d)
A type definition of an object
74.
Which of these is a feature of object orientated programming languages?
a)
Programs are structured into classes, methods and instances
b)
Uses symbolic address as labels to reference locations of data in memory
c)
Commands have a one-to-one relationship with machine code
d)
Programs are structured into procedures and/or functions
75.
A line of assembly code reads 'LDA 005', what does this mean if we are using indirect addressing?
a)
Load the value 005 into the accumulator
b)
Go to memory address 005 and load its contents into the accumulator
c)
Go to memory address 005, follow the address found there and load its contents into the accumulator
d)
Modify address 005 by adding it to the contents of the index register, follow and load contents into the accumulator
76.
Which of these is a feature of a low level programming language?
a)
Written in Assembly
b)
Large number of instructions
c)
Translates to many different machine types
d)
Source code is easier to write
77.
What pseudocode keyword do you need to use when creating a new subclass based on a superclass?
a)
Subclass
b)
New
c)
Derived
d)
Inherits
78.
What does this line of object orientated pseudo-code do? myCat = NEW Cat('Fluffy')
a)
Instantiates a new object called 'Fluffy' from the class Cat and assigns it to myCat
b)
Creates a new class called myCat
c)
Instantiates a new object called myCat of class Cat
d)
Inherits a new class called myCat from the superclass Cat
79.
In object orientated programming what is 'encapsulation'?
a)
A type definition of an object
b)
Where object attributes cannot be accessed by methods outside the class
c)
Where overloading allows the creation of very general object structures
d)
Where an inherited method from a superclass is overridden by a method in the subclass
80.
Which is the correct definition of 'indexed addressing'?
a)
The operand is the address to use by the instruction
b)
Modifies the address in the address field by the addition of a number held in the index register
c)
The operand is an address to a memory location containing an address
d)
The operand is a value to be used by the instruction
81.
In object orientated programming what is 'instantiation'?
a)
The process of creating a named instance of class
b)
A single bit of data within an object
c)
A type definition of an object
d)
An instance of a class
82.
Which of these is a feature of object orientated programming languages?
a)
Data is stored in attributes
b)
Data is stored in local or global variables
c)
Uses symbolic address as labels to reference locations of data in memory
d)
Logic of the program is expressed in a series of procedure calls
83.
In object orientated programming what is a 'subclass'?
a)
A class that has been extended by another class
b)
A class that inherits attributes and methods from another class
c)
The highest class and does not inherit from any other class
d)
A type definition of an object
84.
A focus on usability over optimal program efficiency is an example of which type of programming language?
a)
Machine code
b)
Low level language code
c)
High level language code
d)
Assembly language code
85.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to add a variable to the accumulator?
a)
STA
b)
INP
c)
ADD
d)
LDA
86.
In object orientated programming what is the purpose of 'GET' and 'SET' methods?
a)
Allows you fix a private attributes value and make it constant
b)
Allows you to access and change private attributes of an object
c)
Allows you to create private attributes for an instantiated object
d)
Provides a way to make private attributes public
87.
What keyword should be placed before an attribute or method in pseudocode if we want to make sure it can be accessed by other objects?
a)
LOCAL
b)
PUBLIC
c)
PRIVATE
d)
GLOBAL
88.
Which of these is a feature of a low level programming language?
a)
Source code is easier to write
b)
Source code is harder to write
c)
Translates to many different machine types
d)
Large number of instructions
89.
Mnemonics are used with which type of code?
a)
Machine code
b)
High level code
c)
Pseudocode
d)
Low level code
90.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to jump to another line of code and could be thought of as the equivalent of a procedure call in a high level language?
a)
BRP
b)
BRA
c)
BRZ
d)
INP
91.
Which of these is a feature of procedural programming languages?
a)
Data is stored in attributes
b)
Code is written for specific processors
c)
Data is stored in local or global variables
d)
Uses symbolic address as labels to reference locations of data in memory
92.
Which of these is a feature of procedural programming languages?
a)
Commands have a one-to-one relationship with machine code
b)
Programs are structured into functions
c)
Programs are structured into classes, methods and instances
d)
Code is written for specific processors
93.
In object orientated programming what is 'inheritance'?
a)
A class that has been extended by another class
b)
A type definition of an object
c)
The highest class and does not inherit from any other class
d)
A subclass gaining all of the attributes and methods of its superclass
94.
What does this line of object orientated pseudo-code do? CLASS teacher INHERITS Person
a)
Creates a class called Person that overrides the class teacher
b)
Creates a new subclass called Person which inherits from the teacher class
c)
Creates a new subclass called teacher which inherits from the person class
d)
Creates a new baseclass called teacher from the class Person
95.
What is the correct definition of the term 'procedural language'?
a)
Set of all possible instructions made available by the hardware design of a particular processor
b)
Any language which is close to machine code
c)
Any high level language in which program statements can be grouped in self-contained blocks
d)
Any language which classifies real world objects into classes
96.
Which is the correct definition of 'indirect addressing'?
a)
The address is the base address plus the value in the index register
b)
The operand is an address to a memory location containing an address
c)
The operand is a value to be used by the instruction
d)
The operand is the address to use by the instruction
97.
Which assembly language command could change the value in the program counter?
a)
INP
b)
ADD
c)
SUB
d)
BRZ
98.
What is the correct definition of the term 'low level language'?
a)
A language where single commands can be mapped to single machine instructions
b)
Set of all possible instructions made available by the hardware design of a particular processor
c)
A language that allows programmer to write code that is similar to English language
d)
A method of expressing the logical steps of an algorithm
99.
Which of these is a feature of Assembly language?
a)
Data is accessible by addressing specific memory locations
b)
Data is stored in local or global variables
c)
Data is concealed from other parts of the program, known as encapsulation
d)
Data is accessible to other parts of the program using parameter passing
100.
What is meant by the term, 'programming paradigm'?
a)
An approach to programming - examples include procedural and object-oriented
b)
The use of mnemonics
c)
The design of an algorithm to minimise its space complexity
d)
The abstraction of machine code instructions to language commands
101.
What is the correct definition of the term, 'machine code'?
a)
The binary instructions a processor executes
b)
A language that has a strong abstraction from binary instructions
c)
The code a programmer writes in a high level language
d)
A language that has little abstraction from binary instructions
102.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to load the contents of a variable into the accumulator?
a)
ADD
b)
OUT
c)
LDA
d)
INP
103.
Which assembly language mnemonic is used to end a program?
a)
HLT
b)
BRP
c)
OUT
d)
STA
104.
In object orientated programming what is a method?
a)
A single bit of data within an object
b)
A type definition of an object
c)
A program routine contained within an object designed to perform a particular task
d)
An instance of a class
105.
Which is the correct definition of 'direct addressing'?
a)
The operand is a value to be used by the instruction
b)
The operand is an address to a memory location containing an address
c)
The address is the base address plus the value in the index register
d)
The operand is the address to use by the instruction
106.
In object orientated programming what is 'polymorphism'?
a)
A type definition of an object
b)
Where object attributes cannot be accessed by methods outside the class
c)
Where an inherited method from a superclass is overridden by a method in the subclass
d)
Where overloading allows the creation of very general object structures
107.
What is the correct definition of the term 'object oriented programming'?
a)
Method of programming which classifies real world objects into classes
b)
Any language which is close to machine code
c)
Set of all possible instructions made available by the hardware design of a particular processor
d)
Any high level language in which program statements can be grouped in self-contained blocks
108.
Which of the following is the best definition of a multi-user operating system?
a)
Any operating system designed to allow multiple users to connect from different locations or computers at the same time
b)
An operating system intended to serve and process data as it comes in, typically without buffering delays
c)
Any operating system designed to allow multiple processes to be carried out at the same time
d)
The software is spread over a collection of independent and physically separate computers
109.
What happens when a computer runs out of RAM?
a)
Virtual networks can be used
b)
Virtual memory is used
c)
Virtual servers are used
d)
Virtual storage is used
110.
Which of the following devices found in the home is NOT an embedded system?
a)
Personal laptop
b)
Central heating boiler
c)
Washing machine
d)
Electronic coffee maker
111.
What type of operating system would you recommend for an aircraft auto-pilot system?
a)
Real time
b)
Embedded
c)
Distributed
d)
Multi-user
112.
Which of the following is a non pre-emptive scheduling algorithm?
a)
Multi-level feedback queues
b)
Round robin
c)
Shortest remaining time
d)
First come first served
113.
What are virtual servers?
a)
The process of using software to create multiple instances of a server
b)
A server which can only operate in the cloud
c)
A server that handles virtual memory
d)
A server design specifically for virtual reality programs
114.
What is a virtual machine?
a)
A computer in the cloud
b)
An interpreter that translates intermediate code
c)
A computer system which runs software in the cloud
d)
A design for a hypothetical machine
115.
Why is virtual memory used?
a)
To allow access to documents in the cloud, anytime, anywhere
b)
To extend the storage capacity of the computer
c)
To allow more programs to execute than could be possible with the physical RAM available
d)
To store the most frequently used instructions and data in the processor, speeding up the computer
116.
Using part of the hard disk as if it were RAM is known as what?
a)
Virtual server
b)
Virtual reality
c)
Virtual memory
d)
Virtual network
117.
One disadvantage of virtual memory is:
a)
It slows the computer down because of the extra data transfer needed
b)
It uses up a lot more RAM instead of hard disk space
c)
If the remote server is not available you cannot access your files
d)
It requires a lot more configuration than primary memory
118.
What is the best definition of the term 'paging'?
a)
The organisation of memory into different sized units
b)
The splitting of a large program into a number of procedures
c)
The logical division of memory
d)
The organisation of memory into fixed size units
119.
Which part of the computer system is responsible for where files are stored when saved to secondary storage?
a)
Applications
b)
Operating system
c)
Input device
d)
Compiler
120.
What is a disadvantage of virtual memory?
a)
It is difficult to manufacture
b)
It is costly
c)
It slows the computer down
d)
It requires an internet connection
121.
Which of the following best describes the round robin scheduling algorithm?
a)
Uses many queues to prioritise processes for execution
b)
Deals with each process in turn allocating each a time slice of processor time
c)
Deals with each process aiming to complete the process requiring the least amount of processing time first
d)
Deals with each process in the order in which they arrive
122.
Which of the following is the best definition of a distributed operating system?
a)
A program is executed over a collection of independent and physically separate computers with the results being returned to a central server
b)
An operating system intended to serve and process data as it comes in, typically without buffering delays
c)
Any operating system designed to allow multiple users to connect to it from different locations at the same time
d)
Any operating system designed to allow multiple processes to be carried out at the same time
123.
Which of these tasks is the responsibility of the operating system?
a)
The power-on self test
b)
Synchronising the flow of data between registers
c)
The user interface
d)
The initial boot sequence
124.
What is the purpose of a device driver?
a)
Translates commands from the operating system into hardware specific commands
b)
Allows multiple input devices, e.g. keyboard, mouse and controller
c)
Provides a standard connection for compatibility between devices, e.g. USB
d)
To check that components are installed correctly when the computer performs a power-on test
125.
Which of these is an example of systems software?
a)
Word processor
b)
Operating system
c)
Web browser
d)
Spreadsheet
126.
Which of the following is the best definition of a multi-tasking operating system?
a)
Any operating system designed to allow multiple processes to be carried out at the same time
b)
Any operating system designed to allow multiple users to connect to it from different locations / computers at the same time
c)
The software is spread over a collection of independent and physically separate nodes
d)
An operating system intended to serve and process data as it comes in, typically without buffering delays
127.
Which of the following is the best definition of an interrupt service routine?
a)
A software routine to handle interrupts which can only be invoked by software
b)
A software routine which is always invoked by a user interrupt action
c)
A software routine that hardware or software invokes in response to an interrupt
d)
A software routine that prevents your system from crashing if it gets an interrupt
128.
Which of the following statements relates to paging?
a)
Logical divisions of memory
b)
Variable sized memory blocks
c)
Refreshing the current in memory cells
d)
Fixed size memory blocks
129.
What type of operating system can be described by a company creating online examinations where single question papers are sent to different terminals for students to sit the paper independently
a)
Embedded
b)
Multi-tasking
c)
Distributed
d)
Real Time
130.
Which of these tasks is the responsibility of the operating system?
a)
Providing debugging tools for a programmer
b)
File management
c)
Merge sorting
d)
Prevent packets of certain IP addresses entering the network
131.
What is a 'POST'?
a)
Permanent On Service Test
b)
Power On Self Test
c)
Permanent On Self Test
d)
Power On Service Test
132.
Which of the following is a pre-emptive scheduling algorithm?
a)
First come first served
b)
Shortest job first
c)
Round robin
d)
None of these are pre-emptive
133.
Which components of a computer system would you associate a device driver with?
a)
Peripherals
b)
Primary memory: RAM & ROM
c)
CPU component: cache
d)
CPU component: ALU
134.
Which of these tasks is the responsibility of the operating system?
a)
Rendering graphics to the monitor
b)
Peripheral management
c)
Storing frequently used instructions
d)
Arithmetic and logic
135.
Virtual memory can be explained as:
a)
Putting documents onto a removable storage medium for safe keeping just in case the original data becomes corrupted
b)
Putting documents you have created into the cloud so you can work on them anytime, on any computer connected to the internet
c)
Putting instructions into a memory space in the CPU so that it doesn't need to fetch them again from the RAM if they are needed soon afterwards
d)
Putting instructions and data the CPU is not using to secondary storage to load in ones that it currently needs
136.
Where is the BIOS stored?
a)
Virtual memory
b)
RAM
c)
ROM & flash memory
d)
Optical disk
137.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a hardware invoked interrupt
a)
Memory parity error
b)
Arithmetic overflow
c)
Shutdown to start triggered by the user pressing the off button
d)
Internal clock triggers suspending a running process
138.
Which of these tasks is the responsibility of the operating system?
a)
Searching records in a database
b)
Add meta-data to files
c)
User management
d)
Optimise algorithms for execution
139.
Which of these tasks is the responsibility of the operating system?
a)
Protecting against SQL injection
b)
Synchronising the flow of data between registers
c)
The power-on self test
d)
Deciding where to load programs in to the RAM
140.
At which point in the fetch-decode-execute cycle are interrupts checked for and processed?
a)
They are checked independently from the F-D-E cycle
b)
After decode but before execute
c)
At the end of each F-D-E cycle
d)
After fetch but before decode
141.
Which of the following types of memory has the slowest access speed?
a)
Processor registers
b)
RAM
c)
Cache
d)
Virtual memory
142.
Which of the following best describes the 'multi-level feedback queue' scheduling algorithm?
a)
Handles different queues using priorities to promote and demote processes
b)
Handles each process in turn
c)
Handles processes in the order in which they arrive
d)
Handles the processes requiring the least amount of time to complete first
143.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of embedded systems?
a)
Includes a simple or no user interface
b)
Often resource limited
c)
Typically designed for a single purpose
d)
Capable of carrying out a wide variety of tasks
144.
What is meant by the term 'embedded system'?
a)
A virtual system within a system
b)
A system built into a smart building
c)
A type of system designed to control other systems
d)
System with a dedicated function within a larger mechanical/electrical system
145.
What is the best description of disk thrashing?
a)
The read-write head on a disk moving more than it needs to as a result of disk fragmentation
b)
Spending more time transferring instructions than executing them
c)
Backing up data to more than one disk at a time using RAID strategies
d)
Sending more data from the RAM to the disk than the controller can cope with, therefore requiring buffering
146.
What does 'BIOS' stand for?
a)
Basic Interconnected Output System
b)
Basic Interface Output System
c)
Basic Input Output System
d)
Binary Interface Output System
147.
What is the 'Power on self-test' (POST)?
a)
Program that loads the operating system
b)
A routine that checks that the hardware is installed correctly before loading the operating system
c)
Program that passes control of the operating over to the user
d)
Program that handles power failures while a computer system is running
148.
What is the main advantage of a virtual machine?
a)
You can run software on a machine for which it wasn't originally designed
b)
It speeds up the execution and running of programs
c)
It allows you to install and run virtual reality software
d)
It executes source code
149.
What does user management mean in the context of an operating system?
a)
Providing for different users to log in to a computer retaining their settings and security
b)
Providing real-time communication such as video calling
c)
Providing for different users to collaborate on the same document online
d)
Providing anti-virus protection
150.
Which best describes the position of an operating system within a computer system?
a)
Hardware > Operating System < Applications
b)
Applications > Hardware < Operating system
c)
Hardware > Applications < Operating system
d)
Operating system > Hardware < Applications
151.
Which of the following best describes the 'shortest job first' scheduling algorithm?
a)
Processes are executed in the order they arrive in the ready queue
b)
Processes that are estimated to have the shortest execution time are run first until they are complete
c)
Processes that are estimated to have the shortest execution time are run first although they may return to the ready queue before completion if a shorter job arrives
d)
Processes that are estimated to have the shortest execution time are run first but can be returned to the ready queue by time slicing
152.
Which of the following best describes the 'shortest remaining time' scheduling algorithm?
a)
Processes that are estimated to have the shortest execution time are run first until they are complete
b)
Processes that are estimated to have the shortest execution time are run first although they may return to the ready queue before completion if a shorter job arrives
c)
Processes that are estimated to have the shortest execution time are run first but can be returned to the ready queue by time slicing
d)
Processes are executed in the order they arrive in the ready queue
153.
Where are programs executed from?
a)
Primary storage: RAM & ROM
b)
Peripherals
c)
Tertiary storage: External mounted drives
d)
Secondary storage: Hard disk/SSD
154.
What is meant by the term multi-tasking?
a)
Running multiple applications at the same time by having more than one processor.
b)
Running multiple applications at the same time by giving each a small time-slice of processor time.
c)
Having more than one user profile so different people can log into the same computer.
d)
Having more than one operating system installed and choosing which to boot.
155.
What is one purpose of systems software?
a)
To turn source code into machine code
b)
To create documents such as letters and spreadsheets
c)
To provide a platform on which users can run programs
d)
To synchronise the movement of data between the registers in a CPU
156.
What is the best definition of the term, 'memory management'?
a)
An operating system tool to allow the user to divide up their hard drive and main memory
b)
The process of organising the computer memory flexibly
c)
The process of system administrators setting limits on memory usage
d)
The use of hard disk space to store running jobs when main memory runs out of space
157.
Which of the following statements relates to paging?
a)
A way of managing processor time
b)
A way of managing multi-core processors
c)
A way of managing virtual memory
d)
A way of managing access to I/O resources
158.
What is one of the significant problems with virtual memory?
a)
Disk requires buffering
b)
Disk becomes full
c)
Disk thrashing
d)
Disk threading
159.
One advantage of virtual memory is:
a)
The computer can have more programs loaded at the same time than it has the RAM for
b)
The remote server is almost always available so you can access your files anytime, anywhere
c)
It makes the computer much faster by having an additional memory space
d)
It creates a secure network without having to change the physical layout (topology) of the arrangement of the computers
160.
Which of the following statements relates to segmentation?
a)
Parts of files distributed across a disk
b)
Fetching the next instruction as the current one is being decoded
c)
Fixed size memory blocks
d)
Variable size memory blocks
161.
Why is virtual memory needed?
a)
The hard disk may not be large enough to store all the files
b)
A computer cannot multi-task when it runs out of memory
c)
Networks need to kept secure
d)
A user may want to access files stored on remote servers in the cloud
162.
What best describes virtual memory?
a)
The cache memory in the processor
b)
Data is not lost when the computer is switched off
c)
Using the hard disk as if it were memory
d)
Storage in the cloud
163.
What is the best definition of the term 'scheduling'?
a)
Method used by your operating system to manage a users calendar
b)
Term used to describe what jobs get loaded into main memory and when
c)
Maximising the use of the processor time between open processes
d)
The process which handles the start up of a computer system on boot up
164.
Which of the following best describes the 'first come first served' scheduling algorithm?
a)
Uses multiple queues to change the order of process execution based on priorities
b)
Deals with each user or task in the order in which they arrive
c)
Deals with each process based on an calculating a estimated time remaining to complete
d)
Deals with the processes that are estimated to take the smallest number of CPU cycles first with time slicing
165.
Which of these is a function of the operating system?
a)
To check all the components are connected to the motherboard correctly
b)
To provide tools to create graphics for an animation
c)
To load the first instructions to boot the computer
d)
To maintain the computer system
166.
What is the best definition of the term segmentation?
a)
The logical division of a hard disk into partitions
b)
The organisation of fixed sized memory blocks
c)
The physical division of memory blocks
d)
The logical division of memory blocks
167.
What is the first thing that needs to happen when an interrupt is detected?
a)
Push the current contents of CPU registers onto the memory stack
b)
Pop registers off the memory stack
c)
Load the interrupt service routine
d)
Change the process state of the currently executing process to blocked
168.
When a program is loaded, what does the operating system do?
a)
Defragment the drive the program was loaded from
b)
Allocate memory for the program
c)
Extend the amount of virtual memory
d)
Defragment the memory
169.
What is intermediate code?
a)
Code that has been compiled to run on a virtual machine
b)
Code that has been compiled and is about to be linked to libraries
c)
Low level code that is translated to machine code
d)
The code produced by a interpreter
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