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Worksheets

1-50

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The abbreviation for the call sign CHEROKEE XY-ABC would be:

a)

CHEROKEE BC

b)

CHEROKEE XY-BC

c)

XYBC

d)

ABC

2.

The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is:

a)

QFE

b)

QTE

c)

QUJ

d)

QDR

3.

The definition of the DISTRESS condition is that:

a)

the aircraft has crashed

b)

there is concern for the safety of the aircraft or a person on board or other

c)

the aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance

d)

the aircraft is being hijacked

4.

The words preceding an URGENCY message should be:

a)

Mayday

b)

Pan

c)

Urgency

d)

Pan Pan

5.

The Q code on which height is based on:

a)

QFE

b)

QFF

c)

QNH

d)

QUJ

6.

The frequency on which ATIS can be found is:

a)

discrete VHF-only

b)

discrete VHF or VOR frequency

c)

VOR frequency only

d)

any ATC frequency

7.

The call from an aircraft for a missed approach is:

a)

OVERSHOOTING

b)

TOUCH AND GO

c)

GOING AROUND

d)

ABORTING

8.

When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:

a)

WORDS TWICE

b)

SPEAK SLOWER

c)

REPEAT MESSAGE

d)

SAY AGAIN

9.

When reporting a frequency, the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted:

a)

never

b)

after the initial call

c)

when there is no likelihood of confusion

d)

by the ground station only

10.

The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates:

a)

loss of communications

b)

distress

c)

urgent

d)

hijacking

11.

Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to “RESET SQUAWK” is to:

a)

reselect the numbers on the control unit

b)

set the numbers to 7000

c)

switch to STANDBY and back to ON

d)

press the IDENT button

12.

If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:

a)

try another appropriate frequency

b)

start transmitting blind

c)

land at the nearest suitable airfield

d)

transmit words twice

13.

The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC“X-CD CHANGE FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is:

a)

118.7X-CD

b)

CHANGING FREQUENCYX-CD

c)

TO STEPHENVILLEX-CD

d)

118.7

14.

The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the aircraft is at:

a)

low level and long range

b)

low altitude and short range

c)

high altitude at long range

d)

high altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome

15.

The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is:

a)

QNH

b)

QTE

c)

QDM

d)

QDR

16.

The abbreviation for a control zone is:

a)

ATZ

b)

CTZ

c)

CTR

d)

CTA

17.

The call sign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area

a)

CLEARANCE

b)

GROUND

c)

TOWER

d)

APRON

18.

The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should:

a)

continue with 360 degree turns

b)

carry out a go-around

c)

carry out one 360 degree turn only

d)

reverse the direction of the turn

19.

The time given in aeronautical communications is:

a)

in minutes only

b)

UTC

c)

local mean time

d)

daylight saving time

20.

In order to make a message effective you should:

a)

repeat the message

b)

speak slower

c)

speak at a constant volume

d)

use words twice

21.

When making a blind transmission you should:

a)

transmit the message twice

b)

transmit each word twice

c)

repeat the message on 121.5 MHz

d)

wait for visual signals

22.

The abbreviation AFIS stands for:

a)

aerodrome flight information service

b)

automatic flight information service

c)

aircraft fire indication system

d)

automatic flight instrument system

23.

What is the Q-code for Magnetic bearing from the stations?

a)

QTE

b)

QDR

c)

QDM

d)

QFE

24.

The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is:

a)

3to 30 MHz

b)

108.0 to 139.95 MHz

c)

118.0 to 136.975 MHz

d)

88to 108 MHz

25.

The message “READABILITY 3” means:

a)

readable now and then

b)

readable

c)

unreadable

d)

readable but with difficulty

26.

The phrase to use when you want to say "yes" is:

a)

AFFIRMATIVE

b)

AFFIRM

c)

ROGER

d)

WILCO

27.

The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is:

a)

wait and I will call you

b)

proceed with your message

c)

consider the transmission as not sent

d)

hold your present position

28.

The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25 kHz spacing is:

a)

123.05

b)

123.725

c)

123.7

d)

12374

29.

The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is:

a)

HOLDING SHORT

b)

ROGER

c)

WILCO

d)

UNDERSTOOD

30.

The priority of the message “LINE UP” is:

a)

same as “WORK IN PROGRESS ON TAXIWAY”

b)

greater than “REQUEST QDM”

c)

same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”

d)

less than “CLEAR TO LAND”

31.

Clearance limit is defined as:

a)

the point to which aircraft is granted ATC

b)

the time at which the ATC clearance expires

c)

the flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance

d)

the height below which you will hit the first obstacle

32.

The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take-off includes the phrase:

a)

CANCEL TAKE-OFF

b)

STOP IMMEDIATELY

c)

ABORT ABORT

d)

YOU WON'T LIKE THIS

33.

The term “DISREGARD” means:

a)

pay no attention to what I say

b)

ignore

c)

cancel the last clearance

d)

you have not been cleared

34.

The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should:

a)

confirm that you received and understood the last

b)

stay where you are

c)

pass the required information to ATC

d)

message examine a system or procedure

35.

The call sign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be:

a)

PRESTO

b)

CLEARANCE

c)

DELIVERY

d)

GROUND

36.

The term “CORRECTION” is used when:

a)

the readback of a message is incorrect

b)

the message has to be deleted

c)

an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is…

d)

the readback of a message is correct

37.

The state of emergency is defined as a condition:

a)

concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board, but does not require immediate assistance

b)

of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

c)

where an aircraft requires an immediate take-off

d)

where the aircraft needs to land immediately because the crew are running out of duty time

38.

The term “CORRECTION” is used when:

a)

an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is…

b)

the readback of a message is correct

c)

the message has to be deleted

d)

the readback of a message is incorrect

39.

The response to a general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:

a)

give no response

b)

respond in numerical order

c)

respond in alphabetical order

d)

request a repeat of the message

40.

If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:

a)

has to fly low level only

b)

may proceed with the flight with ATC permission

c)

has to cancel the flight

d)

should fly for another company

41.

Following a communications failure, the time at which the aircraft should aim to leave the hold is:

a)

before it runs out of fuel

b)

within 10 minutes of the EAT or ETA

c)

within 30 minutes of the EAT or ETA

d)

EAT or ETA

42.

The call “PAN PAN MEDICAL” indicates that:

a)

the flight is concerning a protected medical transport pursuant to the 1949 Geneva Convention

b)

> there is concern about the safety of the aircraft or other vehicle or a person on board, but does not require immediate assistance

c)

one of the flight crew has been taken ill

d)

> the crew require medical aid on the pan

43.

An urgent message should include the following information:

a)

name of station addressed, call sign, present position, level, ETA destination

b)

call sign, position, route, destination, endurance

c)

> name of station addressed, aircraft call sign, nature of urgent condition, intention of commander, position, level, heading

d)

captain's number, rank and name

44.

Readability 2 means that your transmission is:

a)

established with two way communication

b)

readable now and then

c)

readable but with difficulty

d)

readable

45.

How does ATC report RVR?

a)

In feet and inches

b)

In meters at touchdown, midpoint and stop end of runway

c)

In kilometers along the final approach

d)

In nautical miles along the runway

46.

An aircraft departing on an IFR flight under radar vectors has a communication failure. What action should be taken in addition to squawking 7600?

a)

> Return by the shortest way to the flight plan route, regardless of any limitation issued by ATC

b)

Maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for 3 minutes, then return to the flight path according to the flight plan

c)

Maintain present heading for 1 minute then return to the flight plan route

d)

Return to the current flight plan route in the most direct manner

47.

An altitude of 13 500 ft would be spoken as:

a)

ANGELS THIRTEEN POINT FIVE

b)

ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET

c)

THIRTEEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET

d)

ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET

48.

What cannot be left out from a position report?

a)

Your signature

b)

Position, Time, Flight level, Next position and ETA

c)

Call sign, Flight level and Time

d)

Call sign, Position and Time

49.

The call sign suffix for an airfield without radar would be:

a)

APPROACH

b)

CENTER

c)

INFORMATION

d)

RADIO

50.

The definition of the instruction “MONITOR …” is:

a)

you are being watched

b)

listen out on frequency

c)

establish communications on frequency

d)

watch out for visual signals on frequency