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Y10 BISS EOY revision

Total questions: 152

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is flood management for?

a)

To help rivers flooding

b)

To protect certain areas from flooding

c)

To protect farms from flooding

d)

To prevent rivers going near a town or city

2.

What is hard engineering?

a)

Man-made ways to try and control flooding

b)

Natural ways to try and control flooding

3.

What is soft engineering

a)

Man-made ways to try and control flooding

b)

Natural ways to try and control flooding

4.

Which of the following are types of hard engineering?

a)

Flood warnings

b)

Straightening and dredging

c)

A dam

d)

Flood plane zoning

5.

Which of the following are types of soft engineering?

a)

A dam

b)

Flood plane zoning

c)

Straightening and dredging

d)

Flood warnings

6.

What are the positives of using a dam/reservoir?

a)

It can create electricity

b)

It stops flooding downstream

c)

It is cheap

d)

It is very effective

7.

What are the negatives of flood warnings?

a)

It is expensive

b)

Not everyone will get the message

c)

It doesn't stop the flooding

d)

It damages the environment

8.

Which is more expensive?

a)

Hard engineering

b)

Soft engineering

9.

Which of these is a human cause of flooding?

a)

Heavy rainfall

b)

Natural Hazards

c)

Impermeable rocks

d)

Deforestation

10.

What are the advantages of soft engineering?

a)

More effective than hard engineering

b)

Doesn't harm wildlife habitats

c)

Cheap

d)

All of these

11.

What are some of the disadvantages of soft engineering?

a)

It is sometimes less effective than hard engineering

b)

It takes time

c)

Both

12.

Which of the following is not an effect of flooding?

a)

Death

b)

Loss of Property

c)

Heavy rainfall

d)

Erosion

13.

What is the end of a river known as?

(a)  

14.

Urbanization can cause floods

a)

by decreasing the area where water can infiltrate the ground, thus producing more runoff.

b)

by increasing infiltration and decreasing the amount of runoff.

15.

What landform is this?

a)

Oxbow Lake

b)

Waterfall

c)

Floodplain

d)

Gorge

16.

What landform is this?

a)

Meander

b)

Waterfall

c)

Oxbow Lake

d)

Floodplain

17.

Which type of erosion is where the acidity in river water dissolves soft rocks around the river?

a)

Attrition

b)

Abrasion

c)

Solution

d)

Hydraulic Action

18.

Which of these is a physical cause of flooding?

a)

Deforestation

b)

Climate change

c)

Steep relief of the land

d)

Urbanisation

19.

Which of these is an example of hard engineering?

a)

Washland

b)

Flood-plain zoning

c)

River restoration

d)

Dams and reservoirs

20.

Waterfalls form when a river goes over layers of hard and (a)   rock

21.

When soft rock is eroded undercutting happens. This forms an ________

a)

overhang

b)

overdrop

c)

overcut

22.

The process of wearing away and cutting into rock in a river is called ___________.

a)

transportation

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

23.

Below are listed the 4 types of erosion. Which two are important in the formation of waterfalls?

a)

Hydraulic action

b)

Abrasion

c)

Attrition

d)

Solution

24.

a winding curve or bend of a river

a)

Meander

b)

Maender

c)

Meeder

d)

Meandur

25.

When erosion happens in a sideways direction

a)

Vertical

b)

Lateral

c)

Abrasion

d)

Solution

26.

As a river goes around a bend, most of the water is pushed towards the ___________.

a)

Inside

b)

Outside

c)

Bottom

d)

Top

27.

Water on the inner bend is __________.

a)

Faster

b)

Wetter

c)

Dryer

d)

Slower

28.

Continuous erosion on the ________ bank and deposition on the inner bank forms a meander in the river.

a)

Outer

b)

Inner

c)

Front

d)

Back

29.

Which letter has a higher velocity?

a)

A

b)

B

30.

The geographic boundary of the drainage basin is called...

a)

A confluence

b)

A tributary

c)

The source

d)

The watershed

31.

A location where two rivers meet…

a)

A confluence

b)

A tributary

c)

The source

d)

The maain channel

32.

What is shown in this image...

a)

The source

b)

The watershed

c)

A confluence

d)

The mouth

33.

The occupied channel width is greater in the...

a)

upper course

b)

lower course

34.

The load particle size is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

35.

The channel depth is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

36.

The slope angle (gradient) is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

37.

Average velocity is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

38.

Load quantity is greater in the...

a)

Upper course

b)

Lower course

39.

A diagram that pretends to slice a river like a cake, so you can see sideways bank-to-bank is called a...

a)

Cross profile

b)

Width profile

c)

Side profile

d)

Intersect profile

40.

Name Label 1 on the hydrograph...

a)

rising limb

b)

falling limb

c)

base flow

d)

overland flow

41.

Name label 1 on the hydrograph

a)

rising limb

b)

falling limb

c)

base flow

d)

groundwater flow

42.

What is Label 1?

a)

peak discharge

b)

bankfull stage

c)

peak rainfall

d)

lag time

43.

River discharge is measured in ...

a)

metres cubed per second

b)

metres per second

c)

litres per second

d)

millilitres per second

44.

urbanised catchment?

a)

hydrograph A

b)

hydrograph B

45.

Which hydrograph, A or B, is more likely for a forested drainage basin?

a)
b)
46.

Which hydrograph, A or B, is more likely for a drainage basin with impermeable rock like granite?

a)
b)
47.

This is when materials move along the river bed by bouncing

a)

Saltation

b)

Traction

c)

Suspension

d)

Solution

48.

This is the process of transporting dissolved materials in a river

a)

Saltation

b)

Solution

c)

Traction

d)

Suspension

49.

This is when materials are transported by floating along in the river

a)

Saltation

b)

Solution

c)

Traction

d)

Suspension

50.

Some materials are too heavy to float or bounce and so they are rolled along the river bed

a)

Traction

b)

Solution

c)

Saltation

d)

Suspension

51.

A flood plain is...

a)

the flat land alongside a river which sometimes floods

b)

flat land surrounding a river which never floods

c)

the source of water for a river

d)

the boundary between two drainage basins

52.

Rocks and soil that do not allow water to soak into them are called...

a)

permeable

b)

impermeable

53.

Throughflow

a)

Movement of water through the soil

b)

Overland flow of water

c)

Water in a river

54.

Transpiration

a)

Water seeping into soil

b)

Evaporation from the seas

c)

Water evaporated from vegetation

55.
What is water vapor doing when it changes to water?
a)
evaporating
b)
condensing
c)
precipitating
d)
runoff
56.

Inputs into the drainage basin system includes

a)

Rain

b)

Snow

c)

Hail

57.

S in S.T.A.C.K

a)

Start

b)

Side view

c)

Straight lines

d)

Scale

58.

T in S.T.A.C.K

a)

Title

b)

Type

c)

Tracks

d)

Total

59.

A in S.T.A.C.K

a)

Answer

b)

Average size

c)

Accurate

d)

A title

60.

C in S.T.A.C.K

a)

Colour

b)

Camps

c)

Climate

d)

Compass

61.

K in S.T.A.C.K

a)

Kite

b)

Key

c)

Knowledge

d)

Kangaroo

62.

1

a)

North

b)

South

c)

East

d)

West

63.

5

a)

North

b)

South

c)

East

d)

West

64.

6

a)

North East

b)

South East

c)

South West

d)

North West

65.

A

a)

NEN

b)

EEN

c)

ENE

d)

NNE

66.

B

a)

WSW

b)

SSW

c)

WSS

d)

SWW

67.

0501

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

68.

0305

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

69.

032028

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

70.

008008

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

71.

035005

a)

F

b)

B

c)

G

d)

D

e)

E

72.

Which is in a valley?

a)

E

b)

F

c)

B

d)

H

73.

Appears to be on the flattest ground

a)

G

b)

D

c)

H

d)

A

74.

What is the six figure for the castle?

a)

289950

b)

288951

c)

279940

d)

278950

75.

In what stage of the DTM are traditional tribes?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

76.

What does DTM stand for?

a)

Demographic Transnational Modelling

b)

Demographic Transition Model

c)

Decreasing Thermal Medicines

d)

Developing Transition Model

77.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 1 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is high but the birth rate is low

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

The death rate is low but the birth rate is high

d)

Both the death and birth rate are low

78.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 2 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is decreasing and birth rate remains high

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

The death rate is low but the birth rate is high

d)

Both the birth rate and death rate are decreasing

79.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 3 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is decreasing and birth rate remains high

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

The death rate is low but the birth rate is high

d)

Both the birth rate and death rate are decreasing

80.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 4 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is decreasing and birth rate remains high

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

Both the death and birth rate are low and fluctuating

d)

Both the birth rate and death rate are decreasing

81.

Which of these does the DTM not include?

a)

Birth rate

b)

Population

c)

Migration

d)

Death rate

82.

In which stage of the DTM is this population pyramid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

83.

In which stage of the DTM is this population pyramid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

84.

In which stage of the DTM is this population pyramid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

85.

What was the main reason behind the One Child policy?

a)

The government ran out of money to feed the growing population

b)

By 1979 the population had already reached 1 billion and needed to slow down

c)

The government wanted to make families smaller

d)

The Chinese wanted help from the government to reduce the size of their families

86.

It was originally believed that more people would make a stronger economy.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

The One Child Policy was introduced in....

a)

2016

b)

1979

c)

1977

d)

1719

88.

In Bangladesh we can find

a)

The Ganges deltas

b)

The Krishna river

89.

Population density is…  

a)

Total population of a country 

b)

Number of adults per 1000 people  

c)

Number of people who live in cities divided by the number in rural areas 

d)

Average number of people in an area 

90.

One way that immigration can negatively impact a host country is… 

a)

Requiring support from government services, like welfare 

b)

Providing a larger workforce and fueling the economy. 

c)

“Brain drain” (losing people with higher education) 

d)

Fueling the economy and supporting the housing market 

91.

When a country provides generous maternity leave policy, this can be considered an example of… 

a)

Anti-natalist policy 

b)

Anti-immigration policy 

c)

Pronatalist policy 

d)

Pro-immigration policy 

92.

In which situation is a country most likely to adopt a “pronatalist” policy? 

a)

A country with many children under ten and few elderly people over 50. 

b)

A country with many elderly people over 50 and few children under ten. 

c)

A country with a similar number of people in all age groups. 

d)

A country with low death rates and high birth rates. 

93.

What would the population pyramid of a college town look like? 

a)

A high number of children under ten 

b)

Fewer males and female in the age range of 18-25 

 

c)

A large number of males and females in the age range of 18-25 

d)

Fewer men than women in the age range of 15-40

94.

Which area is most likely to have the LOWEST population density? 

a)

A city with many jobs and access to trade 

b)

A small town with access to a railroad line 

c)

A farming community with many types of farms 

d)

A suburb in Canada with access to major highways  

 

95.

Groynes are an effective technique because they slow down the process of what occurring?

a)

Transportation

b)

Longshore drift

c)

Nearshore drift

d)

Deposition

96.

How do groynes work to protect the coastline?

a)

They trap sediment by slowing down longshore drift, thereby building up a wide beach

b)

They absorb wave energy so that the cliffs behind are protected

c)

They act as a hard rock barrier at foot of cliff to provide a buffer again the sea

d)

They allow rapid longshore drift along the coastline

97.

If the photo is facing south, which direction is longshore drift working in?

a)

west to east

b)

east to west

c)

south to north

d)

north to south

98.

A recurved sea wall is effective because it...

a)

Is not particularly expensive

b)

Stops erosion of the coastline

c)

Deflects wave energy back out to sea

99.

Beach nourishment is .... (choose 2)

a)

when and or shingle is moved from the front to back of the beach by bulldozers

b)

When marram grass is planted to stabilise the beach

c)

A more sustainable form of protecting the coastline

d)

when and sand or shingle is dredged offshore and dumped onto beaches

100.

Which key word? 'This involves building artificial structures which try to control natural processes of erosion. '

a)

Hard engineering

b)

Soft engineering

c)

Managed retreat

d)

Regeneration

101.

Identify the soft engineering approach to coastal management?

a)

Breakwater

b)

Rip-rap

c)

Beach nourishment

d)

Gabions

102.

Some coastlines eroded faster than others due to the fetch. What is the fetch?

a)

The change of seasons.

b)

The rock composition along a coastline.

c)

The distance over which the wave has traveled.

d)

The average wave height of approaching waves.

103.

Which of the options below is an example of a natural sea defence?

a)

Breakwater

b)

Promenade

c)

Rip-rap

d)

Sand dunes

104.

What is an example of a less resistant rock?

a)

Limestone

b)

Boulder clay

c)

Chalk

d)

Granite

105.

Name the coastal management technique.

a)

Sea wall

b)

Revetment

c)

Riprap

d)

Gabions

106.

Name the coastal management technique.

a)

Sea wall

b)

Gabions

c)

Revetments

d)

Riprap

107.

What is the main disadvantage of a sea wall?

a)

Aesthetically displeasing

b)

Encourages tourism, and thus litter

c)

Creates strong backwash, causing erosion beneath the wall

d)

Expensive

108.
Which of the following is an advantage of rock armour/rip rap?
a)
It looks unnatural
b)
It is costly to transport the stones
c)
It allows the build up of the beach
109.
What type of areas are typically subjected to the management technique of managed retreat?
a)
Low value areas e.g. farmland
b)
Low lying areas
c)
Housing estates
d)
High value retail areas
110.

This coastline was created due to...

a)

Erosion

b)

Deposition

c)

Using your phone in class

d)

Both

111.

A high energy environment causes __________ to occur?

a)

Erosion

b)

Deposition

c)

Gravity

d)

Sand Dunes

112.

Erosion happens faster when water interacts with...

a)

Hard Rocks eg. Igneous and Metamorphic Rock

b)

Soft Rocks eg. Sedimentary Rocks

c)

At the same rate on both hard and soft rocks

113.

What is hydraulic action?

a)

The weight and impact of water against the coastline which cause cracks/caves to form.

b)

The way a coastal feature transitions into a new feature

c)

The time it takes for erosion to occur

d)

The way a wave moves up the beach and interacts with the coastline.

114.

Abrasion occurs when?

a)

Little rocks get picked up by the waves and smashed on to the cliffs

b)

Small rocks are smashed against each other, making smaller rocks.

c)

Chemicals in the sea water dissolve the rocks

d)

At low tide when animals enter the coastal environment.

115.

Solution occurs when?

a)

Little rocks get picked up by the waves and smashed on to the cliffs

b)

Small rocks are smashed against each other, making smaller rocks.

c)

Chemicals in the sea water dissolve the rocks

d)

At low tide when animals enter the coastal environment.

116.

Attrition occurs when?

a)

Little rocks get picked up by the waves and smashed on to the cliffs

b)

Small rocks are smashed against each other, making smaller rocks.

c)

Chemicals in the sea water dissolve the rocks

d)

At low tide when animals enter the coastal environment.

117.

What wave type is associated with erosion?

a)

Constructive Waves

b)

Destructive Waves

c)

Radio Waves

d)

Polar Waves

118.

What wave type is associated with deposition?

a)

Constructive Waves

b)

Destructive Waves

c)

Radio Waves

d)

Polar Waves

119.

What pattern does longshore drift create?

a)

Zig-Zag

b)

Ripple

c)

Circular

d)

Straight Lines

120.

What is this depositional feature called?

a)

Tombolo

b)

Spit

c)

Sand Dune

d)

Sand Bar

121.

What erosional features are present in this image? (Select 3)

a)

Stack

b)

Stump

c)

Cliff

d)

Arch

e)

Cave

122.
Which layer is the thinnest?
a)
Crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Outer core
d)
Inner core
123.
Which layer is contains the convection currents?
a)
Asthenosphere
b)
Lithosphere
c)
Mesosphere
124.
Which layer includes the crust and the upper mantle?
a)
Asthenosphere
b)
Lithosphere
c)
Mesosphere
125.
What is the correct order from the center of the earth to the surface of the earth?
a)
Crust, Mantle, Inner core , Outer core
b)
Crust, Mantle, Outer core , Inner core
c)
Inner core, Outer core, mantle, crust
d)
Outer core , Inner core, Mantle, Crust
126.
Volcanoes found away from plate boundaries, such as Hawaii, are known as 
a)
hot spots
b)
calderas
c)
trenches
d)
mid-ocean ridges
127.
What takes place because of sea-floor spreading?
a)
Crust is recycled.
b)
Crust is created.
c)
The ocean is evaporated.
d)
The sea floor remains unchanged.
128.
The focus of an earthquake is 
a)
above the epicenter
b)
the epicenter
c)
below the epicenter
d)
next to the epicenter
129.

Which of these are secondary effects of an earthquake?

a)

Tsunami

b)

Fires

c)

Ground Shaking

d)

Landslides

130.

Which of these is not a tectonic hazard?

a)

Volcano

b)

Landslide

c)

Hurricane

d)

Avalanche

131.

At which type of plate margin does subduction occur?

a)

Destructive plate margin

b)

Constructive plate margin

c)

Conservative plate margin

132.

What tectonic hazard is most likely to occur at a conservative plate margin?

a)

Avalanche

b)

Tsunami

c)

Volcano

d)

Earthquake

133.

Which of the following is a primary effect of an earthquake

a)

Death and injury

b)

Tsunami

c)

landslide

d)

Fire

134.

Which of the following is not a way for scientists to monitor volcanoes?

a)

Remote sensing using satellites

b)

Measuring changes in the shape of the land

c)

Collecting and analysing lava

d)

Using seismographs to record earthquakes

135.

It is impossible to make accurate predictions about earthquakes - True or False

a)

True

b)

False

136.

Which plate type is heavier?

a)

Continental

b)

Oceanic

c)

Tectonic

137.

Pyroclastic flows are a mixture of.......

a)

Lava and ash

b)

Ash and rock

c)

Magma and ash

d)

Gas, ash and rock

138.

Which is the deepest?

a)

Epicentre

b)

Focus

139.

In some areas of the world, like California and Japan, earthquakes are a common occurrence. How can this best be explained?

a)

The strong ocean currents are undermining both areas causing earthquakes.

b)

Both areas are located near the edge of the Pacific Ocean, the unstable sand causes earthquakes.

c)

Both areas are subjected to strong ocean wind and waves that causes earthquakes.

d)

Both areas are on the boundary of active plates, the motion of the plates causes earthquakes.

140.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening. It is that

a)

the oceanic crust is melting.

b)

the denser ceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

c)

volcanic islands are forming.

d)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other.

141.
Geologists have long recognized that earthquakes are not randomly distributed on Earth but occur in concentrated areas that coincide with __________ and provide evidence for the theory of ___________ .
a)
mountain ranges; fault zones.
b)
continental borders; supercontinents.
c)
plate boundaries; plate tectonics
d)
areas of liquid magma; sea floor spreading.
142.
The image shows the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region of high tectonic activity. What evidence supports the theory that the tectonic activity of the region is due to the subduction of tectonic plates?
a)
The region is bound by many oceanic trenches.
b)
North America seems to be colliding with Asia at the north of the ring.
c)
The Asia-Pacific region is dotted by many small and large islands
d)
The landmasses look like they would fit together like the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle.
143.
Identify the Major Plate labeled I
a)
African Plate
b)
Antarctic Plate
c)
Pacific Plate
d)
Eurasian Plate 
144.
Identify the Major Plate labeled B
a)
African Plate
b)
Antarctic Plate
c)
Pacific Plate
d)
Eurasian Plate 
145.
Where is Haiti located?
a)
Pacific Ocean
b)
Caribbean sea
c)
Atlantic Ocean
d)
North Sea
146.
In which direction would you travel from Haiti to the USA?
a)
North East
b)
NorthWest
c)
North East
d)
South West
147.
What is the name of Haiti's capital city?
a)
Saint Marc
b)
Jacmel
c)
Port-au-Princess
d)
Port-au-Prince
148.
What are the names of the two plates that share a boundary that caused the earthquake?
a)
North American and the Caribbean 
b)
South American and Caribbean
c)
Eurasian and South American
d)
North American and South American
149.
What is the average life expectancy of people in Haiti? 
a)
45
b)
69
c)
67
d)
62
150.

Does Haiti share a land border with?

a)

Jamaica

b)

Cuba

c)

The Dominican Republic

d)

Port au Prince

151.

Did Haiti have a lot of earthquake-resistant buildings?

a)

yes

b)

no

152.

On what date did the Earthquake occur?

a)

2 January 2010

b)

18 December 2011

c)

18 December 2010

d)

12 January 2010,

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Spanish Vocab 2 A. Dillon

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1st - 12th Grade