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Worksheets

Second quiz 60-120

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?

a)

PAgP

b)

DTP

c)

LACP

d)

STP

2.

Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

a)

floating static route

b)

default static route

c)

summary static route

d)

standard static route

3.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address appearing in the MAC address table?

a)

The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

b)

The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

c)

The switch purges the entire MAC address table.

d)

The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

4.

The exhibit shows two PCs called PC A and PC B, two routes called R1 and R2, and two switches. PC A has the address 172.16.1.1/24 and is connected to a switch and into an interface on R1 that has the IP address 172.16.1.254. PC B has the address 172.16.2.1/24 and is connected to a switch that is connected to another interface on R1 with the IP address 172.16.2.254. The serial interface on R1 has the address 172.16.3.1 and is connected to the serial interface on R2 that has the address 172.16.3.2/24. R2 is connected to the internet cloud. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

a)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

b)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

c)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

d)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

5.

What protocol or technology allows data to transmit over redundant switch links?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

DTP

c)

STP

d)

VTP

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

a)

Host C

b)

Host D

c)

Host F

d)

Host A

e)

Host B

7.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

a)

Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

b)

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.

c)

Include a router in the topology.

d)

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

8.

What is the effect of entering the shutdown configuration command on a switch?

a)

It enables BPDU guard on a specific port.

b)

It disables an unused port.

c)

It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

d)

It disables DTP on a non-trunking interface.

9.

What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

a)

so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts

b)

so that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

c)

so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address

d)

so that the switch stops forwarding traffic

10.

During the AAA process, when will authorization be implemented?

a)

Immediately after successful authentication against an AAA data source

b)

Immediately after AAA accounting and auditing receives detailed reports

c)

Immediately after an AAA client sends authentication information to a centralized server

d)

Immediately after the determination of which resources a user can access

11.

A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

a)

auto secure MAC addresses

b)

dynamic secure MAC addresses

c)

static secure MAC addresses

d)

sticky secure MAC addresses

12.

Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)

a)

802.11b

b)

802.11g

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11ac

e)

802.11a

13.

To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

a)

The root bridge BID.

b)

The role of the ports in all VLANs.

c)

The number of broadcasts received on each root port.

d)

The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

a)

Trunk1

b)

Trunk2

c)

Trunk3

d)

Trunk4

15.

Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

a)

EUI-64

b)

SLAAC

c)

stateful DHCPv6

d)

static

16.

Which two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)

a)

TACACS+

b)

SSH

c)

RADIUS

d)

802.1x

e)

SNMP

17.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast feature for the SSID?

a)

to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area

b)

to reduce the risk of interference by external devices such as microwave ovens

c)

to reduce the risk of unauthorized APs being added to the network

d)

to provide privacy and integrity to wireless traffic by using encryption

18.

Which mitigation technique would prevent rogue servers from providing false IP configuration parameters to clients?

a)

implementing port security

b)

turning on DHCP snooping

c)

disabling CDP on edge ports

d)

implementing port-security on edge ports

19.

A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?

a)

shutdown

b)

restrict

c)

warning

d)

protect

20.

What protocol or technology defines a group of routers, one of them defined as active and another one as standby?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

VTP

c)

HSRP

d)

DTP

21.

Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

a)

There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.

b)

RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.

c)

Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.

d)

The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.

22.

Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

a)

dynamic auto - dynamic auto

b)

dynamic desirable - trunk

c)

dynamic desirable - dynamic desirable

d)

access - dynamic auto

e)

dynamic desirable - dynamic auto

23.

A technician is configuring a router for a small company with multiple WLANs and doesn’t need the complexity of a dynamic routing protocol. What should be done or checked?

a)

Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables.

b)

Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

c)

Create extra static routes to the same location with an AD of 1.

d)

Check the statistics on the default route for oversaturation.

24.

A company is deploying a wireless network in the distribution facility in a Boston suburb. The warehouse is quite large and it requires multiple access points to be used. Because some of the company devices still operate at 2.4GHz, the network administrator decides to deploy the 802.11g standard. Which channel assignments on the multiple access points will make sure that the wireless channels are not overlapping?

a)

channels 1, 5, and 9

b)

channels 1, 6, and 11

c)

channels 1, 7, and 13

d)

channels 2, 6, and 10

25.

A network administrator of a small advertising company is configuring WLAN security by using the WPA2 PSK method. Which credential do office users need in order to connect their laptops to the WLAN?

a)

the company username and password through Active Directory service

b)

a key that matches the key on the AP

c)

a user passphrase

d)

a username and password configured on the AP

26.

Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

a)

alternate, designated, root, root

b)

designated, alternate, root, root

c)

alternate, root, designated, root

d)

designated, root, alternate, root

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?

a)

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0

b)

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 121

c)

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 111

d)

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 91

28.

What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

a)

Disable DTP.

b)

Disable STP.

c)

Enable port security.

d)

Place unused ports in an unused VLAN.

29.

A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?

a)

Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.

b)

The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.

c)

The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free

d)

The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.

30.

Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

a)

broadcast DHCPACK

b)

broadcast DHCPREQUEST

c)

unicast DHCPACK

d)

unicast DHCPREQUEST

31.

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

a)

MAC address of the virtual router

b)

MAC address of the standby router

c)

MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers

d)

MAC address of the forwarding router

32.

After a host has generated an IPv6 address by using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable?

a)

The host sends an ICMPv6 echo request message to the DHCPv6 or SLAAC-learned address and if no reply is returned, the address is considered unique.

b)

The host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation message to the DHCP or SLAAC-learned address and if no neighbor advertisement is returned, the address is considered unique.

c)

The host checks the local neighbor cache for the learned address and if the address is not cached, it it considered unique.

d)

The host sends an ARP broadcast to the local link and if no hosts send a reply, the address is considered unique.

33.

Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

a)

SSH

b)

HTTP

c)

FTP

d)

POP

34.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?

a)

Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port.

b)

The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.

c)

The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN. 

d)

There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0.

35.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

a)

It identifies the VLAN number.

b)

It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

c)

It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.

d)

It identifies the native VLAN number.

36.

What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?

a)

IP address spoofing

b)

DHCP starvation

c)

CAM table attack

d)

DHCP spoofing

37.

Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

a)

The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet.

b)

The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.

c)

The default-router and dns-server commands need to be configured with subnet masks.

d)

The IP address of the DNS server is not contained in the excluded address list.

38.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has added a new subnet to the network and needs hosts on that subnet to receive IPv4 addresses from the DHCPv4 server. What two commands will allow hosts on the new subnet to receive addresses from the DHCP4 server? (Choose two.)

a)

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.2.0.250

b)

R1(config)# interface G0/0

c)

R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.2.0.250

d)

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.0.254

e)

R1(config)# interface G0/1

39.

What protocol or technology uses source IP to destination IP as a load-balancing mechanism?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

VTP

c)

DTP

d)

STP

40.

What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

a)

DTP

b)

STP

c)

ARP

d)

CDP

41.

What protocol or technology requires switches to be in server mode or client mode?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

DTP

c)

VTP

d)

STP

42.

What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

a)

to create fewer collision domains

b)

to enhance user bandwidth

c)

to create more broadcast domains

d)

to isolate traffic between segments

e)

to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

43.

What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

a)

a static route

b)

the ipv6 route ::/0 command

c)

the ipv6 unicast-routing command

d)

the ip routing command

44.

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to the router?

a)

Configure it as a trunk port and allow only untagged traffic.

b)

Configure the port as an access port and a member of VLAN1.

c)

Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.

d)

Configure the port as a trunk port and assign it to VLAN1.

45.

What are three techniques for mitigating VLAN attacks? (Choose three.)

a)

Use private VLANs.

b)

Enable trunking manually

c)

Enable Source Guard.

d)

Disable DTP.

e)

Set the native VLAN to an unused VLAN.

46.

In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

a)

to determine if remote access is enabled

b)

when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host

c)

when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices

d)

to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface

47.

What is a drawback of the local database method of securing device access that can be solved by using AAA with centralized servers?

a)

There is no ability to provide accountability.

b)

User accounts must be configured locally on each device, which is an unscalable authentication solution.

c)

It is very susceptible to brute-force attacks because there is no username.

d)

The passwords can only be stored in plain text in the running configuration.

48.

What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers?

a)

It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is accepting.

b)

It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process over again.

c)

It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.

d)

It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.

49.

. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the port security feature on switch SWC. The administrator issued the command show port-security interface fa 0/2 to verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? (Choose three.)

a)

This port is currently up.

b)

The port is configured as a trunk link.

c)

Security violations will cause this port to shut down immediately.

d)

There is no device currently connected to this port.

e)

The switch port mode for this interface is access mode.

50.

What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?

a)

WEP

b)

WPA2 Enterprise

c)

WPA2 Personal

d)

WPA Personal

51.

A network administrator has found a user sending a double-tagged 802.1Q frame to a switch. What is the best solution to prevent this type of attack?

a)

The native VLAN number used on any trunk should be one of the active data VLANs.

b)

The VLANs for user access ports should be different VLANs than any native VLANs used on trunk ports.

c)

Trunk ports should be configured with port security.

d)

Trunk ports should use the default VLAN as the native VLAN number.

52.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

a)

The EtherChannel is down.

b)

The port channel ID is 2.

c)

The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.

d)

The bundle is fully operational.

e)

The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.

53.

On a Cisco 3504 WLC Summary page ( Advanced > Summary ), which tab allows a network administrator to configure a particular WLAN with a WPA2 policy?

a)

WLANs

b)

SECURITY

c)

WIRELESS

d)

MANAGEMENT

54.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring IPv6 routing on the network. Which command issued on router HQ will configure a default route to the Internet to forward packets to an IPv6 destination network that is not listed in the routing table?​

a)

ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/0/0

b)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1

c)

ipv6 route ::1/0 serial 0/1/1

d)

ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/1/1

55.

Users are complaining of sporadic access to the internet every afternoon. What should be done or checked?

a)

Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

b)

Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables.

c)

Create a floating static route to that network.

d)

Check the statistics on the default route for oversaturation.

56.

What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch appears in the MAC address table associated with a different port?

a)

The switch purges the entire MAC address table.

b)

The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

c)

The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

d)

The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.