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testest

Total questions: 142

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

a)

MAC address

b)

IP address

c)

port ID

d)

VLAN ID

2.

During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process?

a)

Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs.

b)

All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge.

c)

Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic.

d)

Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring.

3.

Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to the root bridge?

a)

designated port

b)

disabled port

c)

alternate

d)

root port

4.

Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end devices attached and intended never to be used to connect to another switch? (Choose two.)

a)

bridge ID

b)

PVST+

c)

PortFast

d)

extended system ID

e)

edge port

5.

Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

a)

port ID

b)

MAC address

c)

bridge priority

d)

IP address

e)

extended system ID

6.

n which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)

a)

learning

b)

blocking

c)

listening

d)

forwarding

e)

disabled

7.

If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

a)

lowest MAC address

b)

highest MAC address

c)

highest IP address

d)

lowest IP address

8.

When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a switch, three ports are shown in the forwarding state. In which two port roles could these interfaces function while in the forwarding state? (Choose two.)

a)

designated

b)

alternate

c)

disabled

d)

root

e)

blocked

9.

What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

a)

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.

b)

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

c)

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

d)

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

10.

What is a characteristic of spanning tree?

a)

It is used to discover information about an adjacent Cisco device.

b)

It prevents propagation of Layer 2 broadcast frames.

c)

It has a TTL mechanism that works at Layer 2.

d)

It is enabled by default on Cisco switches.

11.

Which spanning tree standard supports only one root bridge so that traffic from all VLANs flows over the same path?

a)

802.1D

b)

Rapid PVST

c)

MST

d)

PVST+

12.

What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

a)

creates smaller broadcast domains

b)

allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

c)

prevents Layer 2 loops

d)

prevents routing loops on a router

e)

creates smaller collision domains

13.

the show running-config interface command displays the current commands applied to the specified interface.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

For a router interface to be available, an interface must be Configured with an IP address.

a)

True

b)

  False

15.

Which is a primary function of a router?

 

a)

  domain name resolution

b)

Microsegmentation

c)

 

low control

d)

path selection

16.

Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface? ​

 

a)

show controllers

b)

  show processes

c)

show interfaces

d)

  show running-config

17.

What command you are going to from a PC to SSH a switch in Packet Tracer?

a)

ssh -l username ip address

b)

ssh -l username ip address password

c)

ssh -i username ip address

d)

  ssh -i username ip address password

18.

It required to have description on an interface of a router.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

It is an unsecure remote access.

a)

  Console

b)

  AUX

c)

  SSH

d)

Telnet

20.

Which command displays a message when the router is accessed?

a)

  Router(config)# enable password Cisco

b)

  Router(config)# hostname CL1

c)

Router(config)# banner motd #

d)

  Router(config)# password Cisco

21.

Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

a)

  ctrl+z

b)

  End

c)

  ctrl+c

d)

Exit

22.

using the shutdown command will turn on the deactivated port of a router.

a)

  True

b)

False

23.

Which one is the second phase during the boot up process of a Cisco Router?

 

a)

locate and load the Cisco IOS software

b)

  locate and load the startup configuration file

c)

  perform the POST and load the bootstrap program

d)

enter setup mode

24.

Telnet Operation uses TCP port?

 

a)

20

b)

  21

c)

  23

d)

  22

25.

Which configuration mode you use copy running-config startup-config command?

 

a)

R1#

b)

  R1(config-line)#

c)

R1>

d)

  R1(config)#

26.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing port and VLAN assignments on switch S2 and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output. Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?

a)

  There is no media connected to the interfaces.

b)

 

  There is a native VLAN mismatch between the switches.

c)

They are administratively shut down.

d)

They are configured as trunk interfaces.

27.

What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?

a)

The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.

 

b)

  The ports are placed in trunk mode.

c)

The ports are disabled.

d)

  The ports stop communicating with the attached device

28.

Which is a characteristic describe the native VLAN?

 

a)

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

b)

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.

c)

  This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

d)

  High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

29.

Which is statement is correct with respect to SVI inter-VLAN routing?

 

 

 

 

 

 

Correct Answer 

You Answered 

a)

Switching packets is faster with SVI.

b)

Virtual interfaces support subinterfaces.

c)

SVIs eliminate the need for a default gateway in the hosts.

d)

  SVIs can be bundled into EtherChannels.

30.

Inter-VLAN routing is the process of forwarding network traffic from one VLAN to another VLAN

a)

True

b)

  False

31.

hich command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?

a)

  show interfaces trunk

b)

show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport

c)

  show mac address-table interface Fa0/1

d)

  show vlan brief

32.

If an organization is changing to include Cisco IP phones in its network, what design feature must be considered to ensure voice quality?

a)

  Voice traffic and data traffic require separate trunk links between switches

b)

A separate VLAN is needed for voice traffic.

 

c)

Additional switch ports that are dedicated to Cisco IP phones are required.

d)

  Voice traffic needs to be tagged with the native VLAN.

33.

Management VLAN is used for dedicated to user-generated traffic.

a)

  True

b)

False

34.

Which solution would help a college alleviate network congestion due to collisions?

a)

  a firewall that connects to two Internet providers

b)

  a router with three Ethernet ports

c)

  a router with two Ethernet ports

d)

a high port density switch

35.

Which four steps are needed to configure a voice VLAN on a switch port? (Choose four).

a)

Assign the voice VLAN to the switch port

b)

Ensure that voice traffic is trusted and tagged with a CoS priority value.

c)

Add a voice VLAN

d)

Configure the switch port in access mode

e)

Configure the switch port interface with subinterfaces.

36.

This command is used to set the port to access mode.



(a)  

37.

What is the purpose of the switch command switchport access vlan 99?

a)

  to enable port security

b)

  to designate the VLAN that does not get tagged

c)

  to make the port operational

d)

to assign the port to a particular VLAN

38.

What is the meaning of the number 10 in the encapsulation dot1Q 10 native router subinterface command?​

a)

the VLAN ID

b)

  the subnet number

c)

  the subinterface number​

d)

  the interface number

39.

hich distinct type of VLAN is used by an administrator to access and configure a switch?

 

a)

  default VLAN

b)

  native VLAN

c)

  data VLAN

d)

management VLAN

40.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?

a)

  end

b)

  clockrate 128000

c)

no shutdown

d)

  IPv6 enable

41.

Data VLAN is used for trunk links only.

a)

  True

b)

False

42.

Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

a)

store-and-forward switching

b)

  fast-forward switching

c)

  fragment-free switching

d)

  cut-through switching

43.

It is a DTP mode that requires manual configuration of trunking or nontrunking.

a)

  Trunk

b)

Nonegotiate

c)

  Dynamic auto

d)

  Dynamic desirable

44.

When the store-and-forward method of switching is in use, what part of the Ethernet frame is used to perform an error check?

 

a)

protocol type in the header

b)

CRC in the trailer

c)

  source MAC address in the header

d)

destination MAC address in the header

45.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frame as it leaves the web server if the final destination is PC1?

a)

00-60-2F-3A-07-BB

b)

  00-60-2F-3A-07-AA

c)

  00-60-2F-3A-07-CC

d)

  00-60-2F-3A-07-DD

46.

Without VLANs, all devices connected to the switches will receive all unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic.

a)

True

b)

  False

47.

What type of VLAN is designed to have a delay of less than 150 ms across the network?

a)

  desirable VLAN

b)

  security VLAN

c)

trunk VLAN

d)

voice VLAN

48.

What type of VLAN is used to separate the network into groups of users or devices?

a)

  management VLAN

b)

native VLAN

c)

data VLAN

d)

  voice VLAN

49.

Which is a characteristic describe the native VLAN?

 

a)

  This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

b)

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

c)

  High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

d)

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.

50.

DTP is On by default on Catalyst 2960 and 2950 switches.

a)

True

b)

  False

51.

What is the significant difference between a hub and a Layer 2 LAN switch?

a)

  Each port of a hub is a collision domain, and each port of a switch is a broadcast domain.

b)

A hub divides collision domains, and a switch divides broadcast domains.

c)

A hub extends a collision domain, and a switch divides collision domains.

d)

A hub forwards frames, and a switch forwards only packets.

52.

Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

a)

  access

b)

  Nonegotiate

c)

  native

d)

trunk

53.

Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

a)

  collision detecting

b)

  frame error checking

c)

  frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

d)

faster frame forwarding

54.

What type of VLAN is initially the management VLAN?

a)

native VLAN

b)

default VLAN

c)

  data VLAN

d)

  management VLAN

55.

What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?

a)

The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.

b)

The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.

c)

  The ports are disabled.

d)

  The ports are placed in trunk mode.

56.

A technician is configuring a new Cisco 2960 switch. What is the effect of issuing the BranchSw(config-if)# duplex full command?

a)

  It configures the switch as the default gateway.

b)

  It allows data to flow in only one direction at a time on the interface

c)

It allows data to flow in both directions at the same time on the interface

d)

  It automatically adjusts the port to allow device connections to use either a straight-through or a crossover cable.

57.

HQ(config)# interface gi0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Branch LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.20.133.132 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface gi0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Store LAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 172.20.132.13 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/0

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP

HQ(config-if)# ip address 10.132.133.254 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# interface s0/0/1

HQ(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN

HQ(config-if)# ip address 198.51.100.156 255.255.255.0

HQ(config-if)# no shutdown

HQ(config-if)# end

 

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Store LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

 

a)

172.20.132.1

b)

  198.51.100.156

c)

172.20.132.13

d)

  10.132.133.254

58.

which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

a)

After broken links are reestablished

b)

In an improperly implemented redundant topology

c)

  During high-traffic periods

d)

  When upper-layer protocols require high reliability

59.

Which protocol is a link aggregation protocol?

a)

PAgP

b)

EtherChannel

c)

  RSTP

d)

  STP

60.

It is the Cisco Implementation of IEEE 802.1D

a)

RAPID PVST+

b)

PVST+

c)

  MSTP

 

d)

RSTP

61.

Which channel group mode would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP?

 

a)

  auto

b)

desirable

c)

  passive

d)

  active

62.

Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

a)

  EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.

b)

  EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

c)

  PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

d)

A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.

63.

Rapid PVST+ is___________.

a)

  A protocol that allows multiple VLANs to run in a single spanning-tree instance

b)

A Cisco enhancement of RSTP to provide a spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

c)

  The legacy standard for STP that runs all VLANs in a single spanning-tree instance.

d)

  An evolution of STP that provides faster convergence

64.

If you want to disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command would you use?

a)

  spanning-tree off

b)

spanning-tree portfast

c)

  spanning-tree security

d)

disable spanning-tree

65.

A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes the switch port closest, in terms of overall cost, to the root bridge?

a)

  designated port

b)

root port

c)

  disabled

d)

  alternate port

66.

What will happen if one port in an EtherChannel is configured in VLAN22 & all other ports are configured in VLAN11?

 

a)

  The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if LACP is used

b)

the switches to form the EtherChannel

c)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if either PAgP or LACP is used

d)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if the ports were configured with no negotiation between

e)

  The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if PAgP is used

67.

What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network?

 

a)

  the lowest MAC address of all the ports in the switch

b)

  the highest MAC address of all the ports in the switch

c)

  the VTP revision number

d)

the path cost

68.

A trunk link between two switches has reached its capacity. How can this be addressed in the most economical way?

a)

  Create additional broadcast domains by inserting a router between the switches

b)

  Decrease the size of inter-switch collision domain by configuring additional VLANs

c)

  Increase the speed of the ports

d)

Combine physical ports into a high-speed logical link by configuring the EtherChannel

69.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the show etherchannel summary command on the switch S1. What conclusion can be drawn?

a)

  The port aggregation protocol PAgP is misconfigured.

b)

  The EtherChannel is suspended.

c)

  FastEthernet ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 do not join the EtherChannel.

d)

The EtherChannel is not functional.

70.

It is a Fast converging enhancement of IEEE 802.1D

a)

  MSTP

b)

  PVST+

c)

  RSTP

d)

RAPID PVST+

71.

Which channel group mode would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP?

 

a)

  active

b)

on

c)

passive

d)

desirable

72.

Which one is a component of a bridge ID?

a)

  bridge priority

b)

  port ID

c)

  IP address

d)

extended system ID

73.

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the work?

a)

  MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers

b)

MAC address of the virtual router

c)

  MAC address of the standby router

d)

MAC address of the forwarding router

74.

What is a result when the DHCP servers are not operational in a network?

a)

  Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 10.0.0.0/8 network.

b)

  Workstations are assigned with the IP address 0.0.0.0.

c)

  Workstations are assigned with the IP address 127.0.0.1.

d)

Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 network

75.

What is the result of a network technician issuing the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15 on a Cisco router?

a)

  The Cisco router will allow only the specified IP addresses to be leased to clients.

b)

  The Cisco router will automatically create a DHCP pool using a /28 mask.

c)

  The Cisco router will exclude only the 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.

d)

The Cisco router will exclude 15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.

76.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?

 

a)

The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation

b)

  The Duplicate Address Detection feature is disabled

c)

  No virtual link-local address is configured

d)

The router is configured for SLAAC DHCPv6 operation

77.

A message that is used to identify the explicit server and lease offer to accept.

a)

  DHCPDISCOVER

b)

  DHCPACK

c)

DHCPRQUEST

d)

DHCPOFFER

78.

The client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server

a)

 

  DHCPACK

b)

  DHCPDISCOVER

c)

DHCPREQUEST

d)

 

  DHCPOFFER

79.

To verify a Stateless DHCPv6 Client Router receiver other necessary DHPCv6 information, using The show ipv6 dhcp interface-type interface-number command in global configuration mode of the Server Router.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

To verify that the hosts have received IPv6 addressing information, use the ipconfig/all command.

a)

True

b)

  False

81.

What is a method that can be used to generate an interface ID by an IPv6 host that is using SLAAC?.

a)

  DAD

b)

  ARP

c)

Stateful DHCpv6

d)

random generation

82.

How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?

a)

  It sends an ARP message with the IPv6 address as the destination IPv6 address.

b)

It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.

c)

  It contacts the DHCPv6 server via a special formed ICMPv6 message.

d)

 

  It checks with the IPv6 address database that is hosted by the SLAAC server.

83.

By default, an IPv6-enabled router periodically send ICMPv6 RAs which simplifies how a host can dynamically create or acquire its IPv6 configuration

a)

True

b)

  False

84.

The following configuration are used to configure stateless DHCPv6 Client on a Router.

R(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

R(config)# interface interface-type interface-number

R(config-if)#ipv6 enable

R(config-if)#ipv6 address autoconfig

 

a)

  False

b)

True

85.

Which protocol automates assignment of IP addresses on a network, and which port number does it use?

a)

 

  SMB

b)

DHCP

c)

  80

d)

  DNS

86.

The first step in configuring a Stateless DHCPv6 server is enabling the IPv6 routing using the ipv6 unicast-routing command

a)

True

b)

  False

87.

A company uses the method SLAAC to configure IPv6 addresses for the workstations of the employees. A network administrator configured the IPv6 address on the LAN interface of the router. The interface status is UP. However, the workstations on the LAN segment did not obtain the correct prefix and prefix length. What else should be configured on the router that is attached to the LAN segment for the workstations to obtain the information?​

 

a)

R1(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

b)

R1(config)# ipv6 dhcp pool < name of the pool >

c)

R1(config-if)# ipv6 enable

d)

  R1(config-if)# ipv6 nd other-config-flag

88.

Which one is a protocol that is used by AAA to authenticate users against a central database of usernames and password?

 

a)

RADIUS

b)

CHAP

c)

SSH

d)

  HTTPS

89.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?

 

a)

the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1

b)

the IP address and the MAC address of R1

c)

  the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2

d)

the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1

90.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

a)

  192.168.2.0

b)

  192.168.2.1

c)

192.168.2.2

d)

192.168.2.100

91.

Which one is the description of HSRP?

 

a)

  a Cisco proprietary FHRP that provides load sharing in addition to redundancy

b)

an open standard FHRP that provides redundancy through use of a virtual routers master and one or more backups

c)

a legacy open standard FHRP that allows IPv4 hosts to discover gateway routers

d)

  a Cisco proprietary FHRP that provides redundancy through use of an active device and standby device

92.

Which FHRP implementation is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that suppports IPv6 load balancing?

a)

  GLBP

b)

  VRRPv2

c)

  VRRPv3

d)

  GLBP for IPv6

93.

Which FHRP implementation is a nonproprietary protocol which relies on ICMP to provide IPv4 redundancy?

 

a)

  VRRPv3

b)

GLBP

c)

IRDP

d)

GLBP for IPv6

94.

Which access control component, implementation, or protocol controls what users can do on the network?

a)

  authentication

b)

authorization

c)

  accounting

d)

  802.1X

95.

Which access control component, implementation, or protocol controls what users can do on the network?

a)

  authentication

b)

authorization

c)

  accounting

d)

  802.1X

96.

Which one is a Cisco product that focuses on endpoint security solutions?

a)

  IPS Sensor Appliance

b)

Adaptive Security Appliance

c)

  SSL/IPsec VPN Appliance

d)

NAC Appliance

97.

Next-Generation Firewall or NGFW provides a secure connection to remote users across a public network and into the enterprise network.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Virtual Private Network include AAA services.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

This command is used to check what port channel are configured on a switch.

a)

  Show etherchannel port-channel

b)

  Show interfaces port-channel1

c)

  Show interfaces fa0/2 etherchannel

d)

Show etherchannel summary

100.

DDoS is an attack in which an organization’s data servers or hosts are compromised to steal confidential information.

a)

  True

b)

False

101.

network administrator would like to ensure that router R1 is always elected the active router for an HSRP group. Which set of commands would ensure the required results?

 

a)

 

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.250 255.255.255.0

R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

b)

 

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0

R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1

R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 150

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

c)

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0

R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1

R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 1

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

d)

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.100 255.255.255.0

R1(config-if)# standby 1 ip 192.168.1.1

R1(config-if)# standby 1 priority 255

R1(config-if)# standby 1 preempt

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

102.

Data Breach is a coordinated attack from many devices, called zombies, with the intention of degrading or halting public access to an organization’s website and resources.

 

a)

  True

b)

False

103.

Which component of AAA allows an administrator to track individuals who access network resources and any changes that are made to those resources?

a)

accounting

b)

  authentication

c)

  accessibility

d)

authorization

104.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?

a)

S1

b)

S4

c)

S3

d)

S2

105.

What are two drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network? (Choose two.)

a)

Broadcast frames are transmitted indefinitely.

b)

The switch acts like a hub.

c)

Port security shuts down all of the ports that have attached devices.

d)

Port security becomes unstable.

e)

The MAC address table becomes unstable.

106.

A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root bridge in this design?

a)

34816

b)

61440

c)

32768

d)

28672

e)

1

107.

refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?

a)

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.​

b)

Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.

c)

Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.​

d)

Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.​

108.

What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

a)

All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode

b)

The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.

c)

All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.

d)

Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

e)

All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.

109.

refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output that is shown, what can be determined about the EtherChannel bundle?

a)

The EtherChannel bundle is down.

b)

The EtherChannel bundle is operating at both Layer 2 and Layer 3.

c)

A Cisco proprietary protocol was used to negotiate the EtherChannel link.

d)

Two Gigabit Ethernet ports are used to form the EtherChannel.

110.

Which two parameters must match on the ports of two switches to create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose two.)

a)

VLAN information

b)

speed

c)

port ID

d)

MAC address

e)

PAgP mode

111.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between two switches, SW1 and SW2. Which statement describes the effect after the commands are issued on SW1 and SW2?

a)

The EtherChannel fails to establish

b)

The EtherChannel is established after SW2 initiates the link request.

c)

The EtherChannel is established without negotiation.

d)

The EtherChannel is established after SW1 initiates the link request.

112.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between two switches, SW1 and SW2. However, the EtherChannel link fails to establish. What change in configuration would correct the problem?

a)

Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to desirable.

b)

Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to auto.

c)

Configure SW1 EtherChannel mode to on.

d)

Configure SW2 EtherChannel mode to on.

113.

A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?

a)

The remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches.

b)

The EtherChannel fails.

c)

One interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup link.

d)

The remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.

114.

A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto . Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this EtherChannel?

a)

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode on

b)

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active

c)

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

d)

SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive

115.

Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?

a)

Multilink PPP

b)

DTP

c)

LACP

d)

PAgP

116.

What is a requirement to configure a trunking EtherChannel between two switches?

a)

The participating interfaces must be on the same module on a switch.

b)

The participating interfaces must be physically contiguous on a switch.

c)

The participating interfaces must be assigned the same VLAN number on both switches.

d)

The allowed range of VLANs must be the same on both switches.

117.

What are two advantages of using LACP? (Choose two.)

a)

It allows the use of multivendor devices.

b)

LACP allows Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces to be mixed within a single EtherChannel.

c)

It provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation.

d)

It decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch.

e)

It allows directly connected switches to negotiate an EtherChannel link.

118.

A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes a non-root port that is permitted to forward traffic on the network?

a)

designated port

b)

disabled

c)

alternate port

d)

root port

119.

What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

a)

Configuring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.

b)

EtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.

c)

Spanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.

d)

Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.

e)

Spanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.

120.

Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

a)

alternate, root, designated, root

b)

alternate, designated, root, root

c)

designated, alternate, root, root

d)

designated, root, alternate, root

121.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

HSRP

c)

PortFast

d)

trunking

122.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to form an EtherChannel between the two switches by using the Port Aggregation Protocol. If switch S1 is configured to be in auto mode, which mode should be configured on S2 to form the EtherChannel?

a)

auto

b)

desirable

c)

off

d)

on

123.

A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

a)

32768

b)

61440

c)

4096

d)

65535

124.

In which two PVST+ port states are MAC addresses learned? (Choose two.)

a)

disabled

b)

blocking

c)

listening

d)

forwarding

e)

learning

125.

Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?

a)

root port

b)

disabled port

c)

non-designated port

d)

designated port

126.

A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes a field used to specify a VLAN ID?

a)

extended system ID

b)

bridge ID

c)

bridge priority

d)

port ID

127.

A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes the reference point for all path calculations?

a)

root bridge

b)

alternate port

c)

designated port

d)

root port

128.

A switch is configured to run STP. What term describes a field that has a default value of 32,768 and is the initial deciding factor when electing a root bridge?

a)

MAC Address

b)

bridge ID

c)

extended system ID

d)

bridge priority

129.

Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?

a)

A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.

b)

EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.

c)

PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

d)

EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.

130.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the show etherchannel summary command on the switch S1. What conclusion can be drawn?

a)

The EtherChannel is not functional.

b)

FastEthernet ports Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 do not join the EtherChannel.

c)

The port aggregation protocol PAgP is misconfigured.

d)

the EtherChannel is suspended.

131.

Which statement describes a characteristic of EtherChannel?

a)

It consists of multiple parallel links between a switch and a router.

b)

It is made by combining multiple physical links that are seen as one link between two switches.

c)

It can bundle mixed types of 100 Mb/s and 1Gb/s Ethernet links.

d)

It can combine up to a maximum of 4 physical links.

132.

Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

a)

active

b)

auto

c)

passive

d)

desirable

e)

on

133.

Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

a)

SW1: desirable SW2: desirable

b)

SW1: auto SW2: auto trunking enabled on both switches

c)

SW1: auto SW2: auto PortFast enabled on both switches

d)

SW1: passive SW2: active

e)

SW1: on SW2: on

134.

Refer to the exhibit. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

a)

The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.

b)

The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.

c)

The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.​

d)

The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.

135.

When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?

a)

on

b)

desirable

c)

auto

d)

active

136.

What are two load-balancing methods in the EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)

combination of source port and IP to destination port and IP

a)

combination of source MAC and IP to destination MAC and IP

b)

source MAC to destination MAC

c)

source port to destination port

d)

source IP to destination IP

137.

Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?

a)

STP

b)

MST

c)

PVST+

d)

Rapid PVST+

138.

What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

a)

CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.

b)

ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.

c)

New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.

d)

Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.

139.

Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

a)

removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches

b)

link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes

c)

redundant links between Layer 2 switches

d)

implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts

e)

static default routes

140.

A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?

a)

The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.

b)

The EtherChannel will remain functional.

c)

Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links

d)

Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.

141.

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?

a)

load the default Cisco IOS software

b)

load a power-on self-test program

c)

low-level CPU initialization

d)

load boot loader software

142.

What must an administrator have in order to reset a lost password on a router?

a)

access to another router

b)

physical access to the router

c)

a crossover cable

d)

a TFTP server