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cisco_130

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1.     Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

a)

o   designated, alternate, root, root

b)

o   designated, root, alternate, root

c)

o   alternate, root, designated, root

d)

o   alternate, designated, root, root

2.

1.     Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

a)

MAC address of the virtual router

b)

  MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers

c)

MAC address of the standby router

d)

MAC address of the forwarding router

3.

1.     What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

a)

  Configure SSH.

b)

Configure 802.1x.

c)

Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.

d)

Configure Telnet.

4.

1.     After a host has generated an IPv6 address by using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify that the address is unique and therefore usable?

a)

The host checks the local neighbor cache for the learned address and if the address is not cached, it it considered unique.

b)

The host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation message to the DHCP or SLAAC-learned address and if no neighbor advertisement is returned, the address is considered unique.

c)

The host sends an ICMPv6 echo request message to the DHCPv6 or SLAAC-learned address and if no reply is returned, the address is considered unique.

d)

The host sends an ARP broadcast to the local link and if no hosts send a reply, the address is considered unique.

5.

   Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

a)

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.10

b)

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.1

c)

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 10.1.1.10

d)

Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1

e)

Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 192.168.1.1

6.

1.     After attaching four PCs to the switch ports, configuring the SSID and setting authentication properties for a small office network, a technician successfully tests the connectivity of all PCs that are connected to the switch and WLAN. A firewall is then configured on the device prior to connecting it to the Internet. What type of network device includes all of the described features?

a)

standalone wireless access point

b)

firewall appliance

c)

switch

d)

wireless router

7.

Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

a)

WPA2 with AES

b)

WPA2 with TKIP

c)

  WEP

d)

WPA

8.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. If STP is running, what will be the end result?

a)

The switches will load balance and utilize both EtherChannels to forward packets.

b)

Both port channels will shutdown.

c)

The resulting loop will create a broadcast storm.

d)

STP will block one of the redundant links.

9.

What are three techniques for mitigating VLAN attacks? (Choose three.)

a)

Enable BPDU guard.

b)

Use private VLANs.

c)

Enable Source Guard.

d)

Enable trunking manually.

e)

Set the native VLAN to an unused VLAN.

Disable DTP.

10.

An administrator is trying to remove configurations from a switch. After using the command erase startup-config and reloading the switch, the administrator finds that VLANs 10 and 100 still exist on the switch. Why were these VLANs not removed?

a)

These VLANs cannot be deleted unless the switch is in VTP client mode.

b)

These VLANs can only be removed from the switch by using the no vlan 10 and no vlan 100 commands.

c)

Because these VLANs are stored in a file that is called vlan.dat that is located in flash memory, this file must be manually deleted.

d)

These VLANs are default VLANs that cannot be removed.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route would an IT technician enter to create a backup route to the 172.16.1.0 network that is only used if the primary RIP learned route fails?

a)

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0

b)

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 91

c)

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 111

d)

ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0 121

12.

Refer to the exhibit. In addition to static routes directing traffic to networks 10.10.0.0/16 and 10.20.0.0/16, Router HQ is also configured with the following command: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1  What is the purpose of this command?

a)

Packets from the 10.10.0.0/16 network will be forwarded to network 10.20.0.0/16, and packets from the 10.20.0.0/16 network will be forwarded to network 10.10.0.0/16.

b)

Packets that are received from the Internet will be forwarded to one of the LANs connected to R1 or R2.

c)

Packets with a destination network that is not 10.10.0.0/16 or is not 10.20.0.0/16 or is not a directly connected network will be forwarded to the Internet.

d)

Packets that are destined for networks that are not in the routing table of HQ will be dropped.

13.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

a)

It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.

b)

It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

c)

It identifies the subinterface.

d)

It identifies the native VLAN number.

e)

It identifies the VLAN number.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?

a)

SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

b)

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.

c)

SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.

d)

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.

15.

.A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast feature for the SSID?

a)

to reduce the risk of interference by external devices such as microwave ovens

b)

to reduce the risk of unauthorized APs being added to the network

c)

to provide privacy and integrity to wireless traffic by using encryption

d)

to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area

16.

Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two)

a)

They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

b)

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

c)

They use fewer router resources.

d)

They improve netw​ork security.

e)

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

 

a)

S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

b)

S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

c)

C 10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

d)

S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

18.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric to forward a data packet with the IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?

a)

90

b)

128

c)

2170112

d)

2681856

e)

3193856

19.

A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?

a)

  Remove the route using the no ip route command.

b)

Change the administrative distance for that route.

c)

Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.

d)

   Change the routing metric for that route.

20.

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​

a)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.

b)

They are used for point-to-multipoint links.

c)

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

d)

They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.

e)

he interface vlan <vlan number> command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

a)

The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.

b)

There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.

c)

Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.

d)

RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

a)

Trunk1

b)

Trunk2

c)

Trunk3

d)

Trunk4

23.

A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

a)

Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.

b)

Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.

c)

Link types are determined automatically.

d)

Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.

24.

Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

a)

STP

b)

Rapid PVST+

c)

MSTP

d)

PVST+

e)

RSTP

25.

What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch appears in the MAC address table associated with a different port?

a)

The switch purges the entire MAC address table.

b)

The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

c)

The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

d)

The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

26.

.A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?

a)

warning

b)

restrict

c)

shutdown

d)

protect

27.

Which network attack is mitigated by enabling BPDU guard?

a)

rogue switches on a network

b)

rogue DHCP servers on a network

c)

MAC address spoofing

d)

CAM table overflow attacks

28.

A network administrator uses the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default global configuration command to enable BPDU guard on a switch. However, BPDU guard is not activated on all access ports. What is the cause of the issue?

a)

  PortFast is not configured on all access ports.

b)

Access ports belong to different VLANs.

c)

BPDU guard needs to be activated in the interface configuration command mode.

d)

Access ports configured with root guard cannot be configured with BPDU guard.

29.

A new Layer 3 switch is connected to a router and is being configured for interVLAN routing. What are three of the five steps required for the configuration? (Choose three.) *

a)

creating SVI interfaces

installing a static route

b)

creating VLANs

c)

  adjusting the route metric

d)

implementing a routing protocol

assigning ports to VLANs

e)

modifying the default VLAN

30.

A company is deploying a wireless network in the distribution facility in a Boston suburb. The warehouse is quite large and it requires multiple access points to be used. Because some of the company devices still operate at 2.4GHz, the network administrator decides to deploy the 802.11g standard. Which channel assignments on the multiple access points will make sure that the wireless channels are not overlapping?

a)

  channels 1, 6, and 11

b)

channels 2, 6, and 10

c)

  channels 1, 5, and 9

d)

channels 1, 7, and 13

31.

What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?

a)

WEP

b)

WPA2 Enterprise

c)

WPA Personal

d)

WPA2 Personal

32.

An administrator notices that large numbers of packets are being dropped on one of the branch routers. What should be done or checked?

a)

Create extra static routes to the same location with an AD of 1.

b)

Check the routing table for a missing static route.

c)

Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

d)

Check the statistics on the default route for oversaturation.

33.

In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?

a)

to determine if remote access is enabled

b)

when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices

c)

to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface

d)

when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host

34.

Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?

a)

The default-router and dns-server commands need to be configured with subnet masks.​

b)

The DNS server and the default gateway router should be in the same subnet.

c)

The IP address of the DNS server is not contained in the excluded address list.​

d)

The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.

35.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has added a new subnet to the network and needs hosts on that subnet to receive IPv4 addresses from the DHCPv4 server.What two commands will allow hosts on the new subnet to receive addresses from the DHCP4 server? (Choose two.)

a)

R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.2.0.250

b)

R1(config)# interface G0/1

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.0.254

c)

  R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.2.0.250

R1(config)# interface G0/0

d)

R2(config)# interface G0/0

36.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

a)

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

b)

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

c)

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

d)

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

37.

What network attack seeks to create a DoS for clients by preventing them from being able to obtain a DHCP lease?

a)

CAM table attack

b)

IP address spoofing

c)

DHCP spoofing

d)

  DHCP starvation

38.

A cybersecurity analyst is using the macof tool to evaluate configurations of switches deployed in the backbone network of an organization. Which type of LAN attack is the analyst targeting during this evaluation?

a)

VLAN double-tagging

b)

MAC address table overflow

c)

VLAN hopping

d)

  DHCP spoofing

39.

Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

o   the source MAC address and the incoming port

o   the destination MAC address and the incoming port

o   the source MAC address and the outgoing port

o   the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

o   the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

o   the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

a)

the source MAC address and the incoming port

b)

  the destination MAC address and the incoming port

c)

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

d)

  the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

e)

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

40.

Which statement describes a result after multiple Cisco LAN switches are interconnected?

a)

There is one broadcast domain and one collision domain per switch.

b)

The broadcast domain expands to all switches.

c)

  One collision domain exists per switch.

d)

Frame collisions increase on the segments connecting the switches.

41.

Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

a)

EUI-64

b)

stateful DHCPv6

c)

static

d)

SLAAC

42.

On a Cisco 3504 WLC Summary page ( Advanced > Summary ), which tab allows a network administrator to configure a particular WLAN with a WPA2 policy?

a)

MANAGEMENT

b)

WLANs

c)

SECURITY

d)

WIRELESS

43.

A network administrator of a small advertising company is configuring WLAN security by using the WPA2 PSK method. Which credential do office users need in order to connect their laptops to the WLAN?

a)

a key that matches the key on the AP

b)

a username and password configured on the AP

c)

a user passphrase

d)

the company username and password through Active Directory service

44.

What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

a)

The SSID is broadcast.

b)

MAC address filtering is enabled.

c)

WEP encryption is enabled.

d)

The wireless channel is automatically selected.

e)

A well-known administrator password is set.

45.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

a)

because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

b)

because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

c)

because VLAN 99 has not yet been created

d)

because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

46.

Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

a)

access – trunk

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

b)

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable

o   dynamic desirable – dynamic auto

c)

dynamic desirable – trunk

d)

access – dynamic auto

47.

Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

a)

Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.

o   Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.

b)

Select the correct VTP mode and version.

o   Reboot the switch.

c)

Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.

d)

  Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

48.

Select the three PAgP channel establishment modes. (Choose three.)

a)

active

passive

b)

on

c)

desirable

d)

auto

e)

blocking

49.

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route command can be entered on R1 to forward traffic to the LAN connected to R2?

a)

ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/0 fe80::2

b)

ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/1 fe80::2

c)

ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/1 2001:db8:12:10::1

d)

ipv6 route 2001:db8:12:10::/64 S0/0/0

50.

   .Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

a)

Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

b)

Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.

c)

Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.

d)

Add an administrative distance of 254.

51.

Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

a)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100

b)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100

c)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100

d)

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

52.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring IPv6 routing on the network. Which command issued on router HQ will configure a default route to the Internet to forward packets to an IPv6 destination network that is not listed in the routing table?​

a)

ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/1/1

b)

ipv6 route ::1/0 serial 0/1/1

c)

ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/0/0

d)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/1

53.

What protocol or technology uses a standby router to assume packet-forwarding responsibility if the active router fails?

a)

  HSRP

b)

  EtherChannel

c)

VTP

d)

DTP

54.

What is the effect of entering the ip arp inspection vlan 10 configuration command on a switch?

a)

It enables DHCP snooping globally on a switch.

b)

It specifies the maximum number of L2 addresses allowed on a port.

c)

It enables DAI on specific switch interfaces previously configured with DHCP snooping.

d)

It globally enables BPDU guard on all PortFast-enabled ports.

55.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?

a)

DTP

b)

LACP

c)

PAgP

d)

STP

56.

Successful inter-VLAN routing has been operating on a network with multiple VLANs across multiple switches for some time. When an inter-switch trunk link fails and Spanning Tree Protocol brings up a backup trunk link, it is reported that hosts on two VLANs can access some, but not all the network resources that could be accessed previously. Hosts on all other VLANS do not have this problem. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

a)

The allowed VLANs on the backup link were not configured correctly.

b)

The protected edge port function on the backup trunk interfaces has been disabled.

c)

Dynamic Trunking Protocol on the link has failed.

d)

Inter-VLAN routing also failed when the trunk link failed.

57.

.Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is attempting to install an IPv6 static route on router R1 to reach the network attached to router R2. After the static route command is entered, connectivity to the network is still failing. What error has been made in the static route configuration?

a)

The interface is incorrect.

b)

The next hop address is incorrect.

c)

The network prefix is incorrect.

d)

The destination network is incorrect.

58.

What protocol or technology uses source IP to destination IP as a load-balancing mechanism?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

  VTP

c)

STP

d)

DTP

59.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​

a)

Change the administrative distance to 120.

b)

Change the administrative distance to 1.

c)

  Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.

d)

Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.

60.

Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

a)

standard static route

b)

default static route

c)

  floating static route

d)

  summary static route

61.

Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?

a)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

b)

ip route 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/0/0

c)

  ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0

d)

ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0/0/0

62.

Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

a)

channel-group 2 mode auto

b)

channel-group 1 mode desirable

c)

interface port-channel 2

d)

interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5

63.

What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

a)

so that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

b)

so that the switch stops forwarding traffic

c)

so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts

d)

so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address

64.

.What is a method to launch a VLAN hopping attack?

a)

introducing a rogue switch and enabling trunking

b)

  flooding the switch with MAC addresses

c)

sending spoofed IP addresses from the attacking host

d)

  sending spoofed native VLAN information

65.

Refer to the exhibit. All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)

a)

fa0/21

b)

fa0/10

c)

fa0/13

d)

fa0/9

e)

fa0/20

fa0/11

66.

What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?

a)

  traps

b)

  auditing

c)

acknowledgments

d)

warnings

67.

A technician is troubleshooting a slow WLAN and decides to use the split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured to do this? (Choose two.)

a)

Configure the security mode to WPA Personal TKIP/AES for both networks.

o   Configure the security mode to WPA Personal TKIP/AES for one network and WPA2

b)

Personal AES for the other network

c)

Configure a common SSID for both split networks.

d)

  Configure the 2.4 GHz band for basic internet traffic that is not time sensitive.

e)

Configure the 5 GHz band for streaming multimedia and time sensitive traffic.

68.

A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

a)

auto secure MAC addresses

b)

dynamic secure MAC addresses

c)

  static secure MAC addresses

d)

sticky secure MAC addresses

69.

What is the IPv6 prefix that is used for link-local addresses?

 

a)

FE80::/10

b)

FF01::/8

c)

  FC00::/7

d)

2001::/3

70.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address that is not in the MAC address table?

a)

The switch resets the refresh timer on all MAC address table entries.

b)

The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

c)

The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

d)

The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port.

71.

A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch, but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions? (Choose two.)

a)

  Configure the existing VTP domain name on the new switch.

b)

Configure the new switch as a VTP client.

c)

Configure all ports of both switches to access mode.

d)

Enable VTP pruning.

e)

Configure an IP address on the new switch.

72.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

a)

host F

b)

host B

c)

host D

d)

host C

e)

host G

host E

73.

A technician is configuring a router for a small company with multiple WLANs and doesn’t need the complexity of a dynamic routing protocol. What should be done or checked?

a)

Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

b)

Create a floating static route to that network.

c)

Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables.

d)

Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

74.

.Which two functions are performed by a WLC when using split media access control (MAC)? (Choose two.)

a)

packet acknowledgments and retransmissions

b)

frame translation to other protocols

c)

association and re-association of roaming clients

d)

  beacons and probe responses

e)

frame queuing and packet prioritization

75.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured routers R1 and R2 as part of HSRP group 1. After the routers have been reloaded, a user on Host1 complained of lack of connectivity to the Internet The network administrator issued the show standby brief command on both routers to verify the HSRP operations. In addition, the administrator observed the ARP table on Host1. Which entry should be seen in the ARP table on Host1 in order to gain connectivity to the Internet?

a)

the IP address and the MAC address of R1

b)

the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R1

c)

the virtual IP address of the HSRP group 1 and the MAC address of R2

d)

the virtual IP address and the virtual MAC address for the HSRP group 1

76.

A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

a)

  IP address

b)

default gateway

c)

vty lines

d)

default VLAN

e)

VTP domain

  loopback address

77.

.Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the configuration shown on R1?

 

a)

R1 is configured as a DHCPv4 relay agent.

b)

R1 will send a message to a local DHCPv4 client to contact a DHCPv4 server at 10.10.10.8.

c)

R1 will broadcast DHCPv4 requests on behalf of local DHCPv4 clients.

d)

R1 is operating as a DHCPv4 server.

78.

What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP servers?

a)

It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is accepting.

b)

It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process over again.

c)

It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.

d)

It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.

79.

What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

a)

STP

b)

CDP

c)

  DTP

d)

ARP

80.

Why is DHCP snooping required when using the Dynamic ARP Inspection feature?

a)

It uses the MAC address table to verify the default gateway IP address.

b)

It redirects ARP requests to the DHCP server for verification.

c)

It relies on the settings of trusted and untrusted ports set by DHCP snooping.

d)

It uses the MAC-address-to-IP-address binding database to validate an ARP packet.

81.

To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

a)

The role of the ports in all VLANs.

b)

The root bridge BID.

c)

  The number of broadcasts received on each root port.

d)

  The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

e)

The status of native VLAN ports.

82.

87.A WLAN engineer deploys a WLC and five wireless APs using the CAPWAP protocol with the DTLS feature to secure the control plane of the network devices. While testing the wireless network, the WLAN engineer notices that data traffic is being exchanged between the WLC and the APs in plain-text and is not being encrypted. What is the most likely reason for this?

a)

  DTLS only provides data security through authentication and does not provide encryption for data moving between a wireless LAN controller (WLC) and an access point (AP).

b)

Data encryption requires a DTLS license to be installed on each access point (AP) prior to being enabled on the wireless LAN controller (WLC).

c)

  Although DTLS is enabled by default to secure the CAPWAP control channel, it is disabled by default for the data channel.

d)

DTLS is a protocol that only provides security between the access point (AP) and the wireless client.

83.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

a)

  Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

b)

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.

c)

Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

d)

Include a router in the topology.

e)

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

84.

What action takes place when the source MAC address of a frame entering a switch is not in the MAC address table?

a)

The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

b)

The switch adds a MAC address table entry for the destination MAC address and the egress port.

c)

The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

d)

The switch adds the MAC address and incoming port number to the table.

85.

A technician is configuring a wireless network for a small business using a SOHO wireless router. Which two authentication methods are used, if the router is configured with WPA2? (Choose two.) **

a)

  AES

b)

TKIP

c)

personal

d)

WEP

e)

enterprise

86.

.A network administrator is adding a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 series WLC. Which tab should the administrator use to create a new VLAN interface to be used for the new WLAN?

 

a)

WLANs

b)

CONTROLLER

c)

  WIRELESS

d)

MANAGEMENT

87.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

a)

The port channel ID is 2.

b)

The bundle is fully operational.

c)

The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.

d)

The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.

e)

The EtherChannel is down.

88.

Which three statements accurately describe duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.)

a)

By default, the autonegotiation feature is disabled.

Enabling autonegotiation on a hub will prevent mismatched port speeds when connecting the hub to the switch.

b)

  When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports will operate in full-duplex mode.

c)

The duplex and speed settings of each switch port can be manually configured.

d)

An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity issues.

e)

By default, the speed is set to 100 Mb/s and the duplex mode is set to autonegotiation.

89.

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

a)

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

b)

  (config)# interface vlan 1 (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0 (config-if)# no shutdown

c)

o   (config)# ip routing

d)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config-if)# no switchport

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252

e)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

90.

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?​

a)

to Fa0/1 only​

b)

  to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only​

c)

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4

d)

to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only

e)

to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only

91.

Which statement is correct about how a Layer 2 switch determines how to forward frames?

a)

Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.

b)

Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.

c)

Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

o   Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address

d)

Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

92.

mployees are unable to connect to servers on one of the internal networks. What should be done or checked?

a)

Use the “show ip interface brief” command to see if an interface is down.

b)

Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables.

c)

Check the statistics on the default route for oversaturation.

d)

  Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

93.

What protocol or technology requires switches to be in server mode or client mode?

a)

VTP

b)

EtherChannel

c)

HSRP

d)

DTP

94.

What is the effect of entering the shutdown configuration command on a switch?

a)

It disables an unused port.

b)

It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

c)

It disables DTP on a non-trunking interface.

d)

It enables BPDU guard on a specific port.

95.

What else is required when configuring an IPv6 static route using a next-hop link-local address? **

a)

network number and subnet mask on the interface of the neighbor router

b)

ip address of the neighbor router

c)

interface number and type

d)

  administrative distance

96.

A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?

a)

Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables.

b)

Create a floating static route to that network.

c)

  Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

d)

Check the configuration of the exit interface on the new static route.

97.

A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?

a)

The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.

b)

  The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.

c)

Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.

d)

The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.

98.

On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP stability?

a)

only ports that are elected as designated ports

b)

only ports that attach to a neighboring switch

c)

all PortFast-enabled ports

d)

all trunk ports that are not root ports

99.

How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

a)

Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

b)

It will not perform recursive lookups.

c)

Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary.

d)

  Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

100.

What protocol or technology allows data to transmit over redundant switch links?

a)

STP

b)

VTP

c)

EtherChannel

d)

DTP

101.

A PC has sent an RS message to an IPv6 router attached to the same network. Which two pieces of information will the router send to the client? (Choose two.)

a)

  prefix

b)

domain name

c)

  subnet mask in dotted decimal notation

o   administrative distance

d)

DNS server IP address

e)

prefix length

102.

Which two VTP modes allow for the creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.)

a)

distribution

o   master

b)

server

c)

client

d)

transparent

e)

slave

103.

Refer to the exhibit. What will router R1 do with a packet that has a destination IPv6 address of 2001:db8:cafe:5::1?

 

a)

forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/0

b)

forward the packet out Serial0/0/0

c)

forward the packet out GigabitEthernet0/1

d)

drop the packet

104.

What is a drawback of the local database method of securing device access that can be solved by using AAA with centralized servers?

a)

There is no ability to provide accountability.

b)

It is very susceptible to brute-force attacks because there is no username.

c)

The passwords can only be stored in plain text in the running configuration.

d)

User accounts must be configured locally on each device, which is an unscalable authentication solution.

105.

Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)

 

a)

802.11ac

b)

802.11a

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11b

e)

802.11g

106.

Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

a)

  R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

b)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

c)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

d)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

107.

.What is the effect of entering the switchport mode access configuration command on a switch?

a)

  It disables DTP on a non-trunking interface.

b)

  It disables an unused port.

c)

It manually enables a trunk link.

d)

It enables BPDU guard on a specific port.

108.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

a)

ipv6 nd other-config-flag​

b)

  ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

c)

prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​

d)

ipv6 unicast-routing

e)

dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

109.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the port security feature on switch SWC. The administrator issued the command show port-security interface fa 0/2 to verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? (Choose three.)

 

a)

The port is configured as a trunk link.

b)

The switch port mode for this interface is access mode.

o   Three security violations have been detected on this interface.

c)

This port is currently up.

d)

  There is no device currently connected to this port.

e)

Security violations will cause this port to shut down immediately.

110.

What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

a)

to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

b)

to enhance user bandwidth

c)

to eliminate virtual circuits

o   to create fewer collision domains

d)

to isolate traffic between segments

e)

  to create more broadcast domains

111.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address appearing in the MAC address table?

a)

The switch resets the refresh timer on all MAC address table entries.

b)

The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

c)

The switch updates the refresh timer for the entry.

d)

  The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port.

112.

A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to the router?

a)

Configure the port as a trunk port and assign it to VLAN1.

b)

Configure it as a trunk port and allow only untagged traffic.

c)

   Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.

d)

Configure the port as an access port and a member of VLAN1.

113.

What is the effect of entering the switchport port-security configuration command on a switch?

a)

It enables port security globally on the switch.

b)

It dynamically learns the L2 address and copies it to the running configuration.

c)

It restricts the number of discovery messages, per second, to be received on the interface.

d)

It enables port security on an interface.

114.

Users on a LAN are unable to get to a company web server but are able to get elsewhere. What should be done or checked?

a)

Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers.

b)

Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table.

c)

Create a floating static route to that network.

d)

Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

115.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the router R1 for IPv6 address assignment. Based on the partial configuration, which IPv6 global unicast address assignment scheme does the administrator intend to implement?

a)

manual configuration

b)

stateful

c)

stateless

d)

SLAAC

116.

What protocol or technology disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

DTP

c)

STP

d)

  VTP

117.

During the AAA process, when will authorization be implemented?

a)

immediately after the determination of which resources a user can access

b)

immediately after an AAA client sends authentication information to a centralized server

c)

immediately after AAA accounting and auditing receives detailed reports

d)

immediately after successful authentication against an AAA data source

118.

Which two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)

a)

TACACS+

b)

RADIUS

c)

   SNMP

d)

802.1x

e)

  SSH

119.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

 

a)

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

b)

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

c)

   The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

d)

   The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

120.

. What is the effect of entering the spanning-tree portfast configuration command on a switch?

·    

 

a)

It disables an unused port.

b)

  It disables all trunk ports.

c)

It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

d)

It checks the source L2 address in the Ethernet header against the sender L2 address in the ARP body.

121.

.  A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator change the default DHCP IPv4 addresses on an AP?

·       

a)

to restrict access to the WLAN by authorized, authenticated users only

b)

to monitor the operation of the wireless network

c)

to reduce outsiders intercepting data or accessing the wireless network by using a well-known address range

d)

to reduce the risk of interference by external devices such as microwave ovens

122.

A company has just switched to a new ISP. The ISP has completed and checked the connection from its site to the company. However, employees at the company are not able to access the internet. What should be done or checked?

·       

a)

Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table.

b)

Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

c)

Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers.

d)

  Create a floating static route to that network.

123.

Which mitigation technique would prevent rogue servers from providing false IP configuration parameters to clients?

a)

implementing port security

b)

turning on DHCP snooping

c)

disabling CDP on edge ports

d)

implementing port-security on edge ports

124.

What protocol or technology defines a group of routers, one of them defined as active and another one as standby?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

VTP

c)

  HSRP

d)

   DTP

125.

What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

·

a)

  Disable DTP.

b)

  Disable STP.

c)

Enable port security.

d)

Place unused ports in an unused VLAN.

126.

What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

·

a)

  Disable DTP.

b)

  Disable STP.

c)

Enable port security.

d)

Place unused ports in an unused VLAN.

127.

Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

a)

  broadcast DHCPACK

b)

broadcast DHCPREQUEST

c)

  unicast DHCPACK

d)

unicast DHCPREQUEST

128.

Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

a)

   FTP

b)

HTTP

c)

NetBEUI

d)

  POP

e)

SSH

129.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?

a)

Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port.

b)

The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly.

c)

There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0.

d)

The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.

e)

The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN. 

130.

What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?

a)

    a static route

b)

the ipv6 route ::/0 command

c)

the ipv6 unicast-routing command

d)

the ip routing command

131.

. A network administrator has found a user sending a double-tagged 802.1Q frame to a switch. What is the best solution to prevent this type of attack?

a)

  The native VLAN number used on any trunk should be one of the active data VLANs.

b)

  The VLANs for user access ports should be different VLANs than any native VLANs used on trunk ports.

c)

  Trunk ports should be configured with port security.

d)

  Trunk ports should use the default VLAN as the native VLAN number.