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Health Qzlt

Total questions: 193

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A health psychologist who works with people who are already ill focuses on

a)

the health care system and the formulation of health policy

b)

etiology and correlates of health, illness and dysfunctio

c)

prevention and treatment of illness

d)

health promotion and maintenance

2.

_____ occurs when the heart has insufficient supply of oxygen, or adequate removal of carbon dioxide and other waste products.

a)

Ischemia

b)

Arrythmia

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Angina pectoris

3.

Which of the following is a predictor of depression among chronically ill patients?

a)

Gender

b)

Chronic pain

c)

Marital status

d)

Social support

4.

Which of the following is true of anxiety?

a)

Anxious patients cope more poorly with surgery.

b)

Anxiety is prevalent among people with acute illnesses

c)

Anxious MI patients are more likely to return to work on schedule

d)

Anxious diabetic patients have better glucose control

5.

Studying quality of life:

a)

tells us little that the diagnosis does not provide.

b)

cannot be used to compare therapies

c)

is an unnecessary intrusion into patients' lives

d)

makes it possible to determine what kinds of interventions may be needed

6.

Medical measures of quality of life are:

a)

moderately correlated with health psychologists' assessments.

b)

poorly correlated with patients' assessments but are moderately correlated with relatives' assessments.

c)

poorly correlated with patients' and relatives' assessments.

d)

seldom based on objective criteria

7.

Which of the following is a component of quality of life?

a)

Economic functioning

b)

Psychological status

c)

Longevity

d)

Logical functioning

8.

Chronic illness conditions are:

a)

always life-threatening and ultimately lead to death.

b)

less likely among young adults between ages 18 and 44.

c)

either moderate or severe and life-threatening

d)

rare among children

9.

Studies of diabetic control and adherence indicate that the best outcomes are found among adolescents who have:

a)

a dense social support network.

b)

parents who are actively involved in tasks such as monitoring glucose levels.

c)

family therapy.

d)

individual therapy.

10.

Which of the following statements is true of Type I diabetes?

a)

It is primarily managed by reducing the sweet intake.

b)

It is characterized by an abrupt onset of symptoms.

c)

It accounts for 90 percent of all diabetics.

d)

It develops relatively late in life (after age 40).

11.

Which of the following best describes rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

It occurs only in middle-aged and older people.

b)

It usually results in depression which may enhance the pain.

c)

It is a chronic disorder in which complete recovery is not possible.

d)

It is an autoimmune disease that only attacks the thin membrane surrounding the joints.

12.

Susan has breast cancer. She is anxious and depressed. Although she receives a lot of help from her family and friends, she is unable to manage her treatment regime. She is scared of losing the organ and is worried about the reoccurrence of the cancer and pain. She is also worried that her cancer might be fatal. Her oncologist is like to recommend her therapy that follows the _____ format.

a)

psychoanalysis

b)

self-help

c)

intensive psychotherapy

d)

crisis intervention

13.

In therapy that is based on _____, therapists try to focus on the specific issues faced by the cancer patient.

a)

crisis intervention format

b)

passive coping techniques

c)

intense psychotherapy model

d)

long-term analysis of a patient's psyche

14.

Susan, Sarah, and Charlotte are suffering from breast cancer. Susan is a middle-class white woman with advanced breast cancer. Her family and friends provide her with emotional and instrumental social support. Sarah is a Hispanic woman from a working-class family. Her parents are deceased, her siblings do not contact her, and her husband and children are too frightened to be of much support. Charlotte is an African-American woman who was widowed recently. According to the scenario, who is more likely to survive the longest?

a)

There is no way to predict mortality in these cases.

b)

Charlotte

c)

Sarah

d)

Susan

15.

_____ is a most common difficulty experienced as a result of cancer.

a)

Social awkwardness

b)

Anxiety disorders

c)

Eating disorders

d)

Depression

16.

Albert has been suffering from cancer for a year. The progression of the disease was faster in the first few months and later decreased gradually. Although Albert was suffering from cancer, the symptoms were more controlled in the later months. Which of the following is most likely the reason for the change in the course of the disease?

a)

He was not able to accept that he was suffering from cancer during the first few months.

b)

He accepted the fact that his cancer was fatal, and he will die during the later months

c)

He was using repressive coping methods to deal with cancer during the later months.

d)

He was sleeping more and used active coping methods during the first few months.

17.

All cancers result from

a)

a reduction in DNA.

b)

a dysfunction in DNA

c)

a dysfunction in RNA

d)

immunocompromise

18.

Which of the following statements is true of cognitive-behavioral interventions?

a)

They have no effect on the viral load.

b)

They can help in maintaining adherence.

c)

They need to be directed only at stress management

d)

They need to be directed only at improving health behaviors

19.

Studies of personality and coping styles have found that the stress-immune functioning relationship is moderated by:

a)

pessimism.

b)

isolation.

c)

avoidance coping

d)

optimism

20.

The tendency to seek social support and the perception that one had good emotional support were associated with _____ suggesting buffering of stress responses.

a)

low T cell activity.

b)

low NK cell activity

c)

high T cell activity

d)

high NK cell activity

21.

Who among the following is likely to have low NK cell activity?

a)

Hector who is optimistic about being unemployed

b)

Sean who is receiving emotional support from his wife to cope up with his work stress

c)

Amanda who is using active coping strategies to cope with stress caused by her recent divorce

d)

Martha who is using avoidant coping methods to cope with the stress caused by the death of a friend

22.

Long-term provision of care to friends or family members with long-term illness has been linked to adverse effects on almost all functional measures of the immune system. This can be attributed to caregivers':

a)

poor hygiene.

b)

experience of severe stressors

c)

disrupted sleep patterns

d)

poor eating habits.

23.

Juan is very stressed about his recent divorce. He is preoccupied with his ex-wife. How is this stress likely to affect his immune system?

a)

Certain immune parameters will function better than before.

b)

His immune system will be more active than before

c)

His immune system will be less active than before.

d)

It will not affect his immune system

24.

Evidence suggests that some of the adverse effects of depression on immunity may be mediated by

a)

sleep disturbances.

b)

poor maturation of the immune system.

c)

disturbed hypothalamic functioning.

d)

hostility

25.

Which of the following best describes rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

It is an autoimmune disorder.

b)

It is a disorder that can be cured by diet.

c)

It is a disease that typically attacks men.

d)

It is a disease of lifestyle.

26.

Which of the following best defines autoimmune diseases?

a)

Diseases in which the immune system attacks the body's own tissues, falsely identifying them as invaders

b)

Diseases in which the immune system fails to recognize the foreign agents that have entered the body

c)

Diseases in which the immune cells' attacks do not affect the foreign agent

d)

Diseases in which the immune system is not able to produce antibodies

27.

Activation of the HPA axis:

a)

increases in humoral immunity.

b)

decreases the level of glucocorticoids

c)

reduces the release of cytokines.

d)

increases the number of white blood cells

28.

Which of the following statements is true of the relationship between stress and the immune system?

a)

Natural immunity decreases in response to immediate short-term stressors.

b)

Specific immunity increases in response to acute short-term stressors.

c)

The immune system responds in the same way to all types of stress.

d)

Brief stressors lead to changes in cytokine production.

29.

Which of the following statements is true of short-term stressors?

a)

It leads to rapid decrease in immune cells.

b)

It results in a shift from cellular immunity to humoral immunity.

c)

It up-regulates immunity against specific invaders.

d)

It activates immune cells that may help defend against wounds and infection.

30.

_____ levels are indicative of inflammatory activity and may increase in response to stress.

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Thyroxine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Cytokine

31.

The interactions among behavioral, neuroendocrine, and immunological processes of adaptation are referred to as:

a)

psychosomatic medicine.

b)

behavioral medicine

c)

psychoneuroimmunology

d)

health psychology

32.

Cognitive behavioral techniques are helpful in the treatment of pain because it helps to instill _____ in a patient.

a)

self-efficacy

b)

introversion

c)

neuroticism

d)

drug dependency

33.

Which of the following is a goal of an individualized pain management program?

a)

Increasing the use of health care services

b)

Reducing perception of disability

c)

Increasing reliance on medication

d)

Reducing physical activity

34.

Distraction is most effective in coping with:

a)

severe pain.

b)

chronic progressive pain

c)

low-level pain

d)

high-intensity pain

35.

Which of the following is a psychological technique for managing pain?

a)

Counterirritation

b)

Spinal cord stimulation

c)

Spinal block

d)

Biofeedback

36.

Which of the following is a traditionally used pain management method?

a)

Biofeedback

b)

Relaxation

c)

Hypnosis

d)

Counterirritation

37.

Which of the following best describes a pain-prone personality?

a)

Individuals with personality traits that predispose them to deliberate self-injury

b)

An individual's congenital traits that make him or her more vulnerable to pain

c)

A constellation of personality traits that predispose a person to experience chronic pain

d)

Societal factors that force an individual to experience pain more intensely

38.

Which of the following is a reason for chronic pain to get exacerbated?

a)

Decreased stimulation of nociceptors

b)

Appropriate prescription of medications

c)

Increased sympathetic arousal

d)

Inappropriate prior treatments

39.

Which of the following is a difference between acute pain and chronic pain?

a)

Most pain control techniques work well to control acute pain, but are less successful with chronic pain.

b)

Acute pain involves a more complex interaction of physiological, psychological, social, and behavioral components than chronic pain

c)

Unlike acute pain, chronic pain does not require individualized techniques for its management.

d)

Unlike acute pain, chronic pain has no psychological significance

40.

Typically, chronic progressive pain

a)

goes on for 6 months or less and disappears when the tissue damage is repaired.


b)

is associated with degenerative disorders, involves constant pain that increases in severity over time, and lasts longer than 6 months.

c)

involves constant pain that varies in severity, persists for 6 months or longer, and is relatively unresponsive to treatment.

d)

involves intermittent episodes of pain that are acute in character but chronic inasmuch as the condition repeats for more than 6 months

41.

Which of the following is an important feature of chronic pain?

a)

It typically lasts for 6 months or less.

b)

It typically presents psychological profiles that are identical to acute pain.

c)

It typically begins with an acute pain episode.

d)

It typically disappears with the passage of time.

42.

Typically, acute pain:

a)

always requires individualized pain control techniques for its management.

b)

results from a specific injury that produces tissue damage.

c)

does not decrease with treatment and the passage of time.

d)

persists for 6 months or longer and increases in severity over time.

43.

C-fibers:

a)

typically transmit pain signals more rapidly than A-delta fibers.

b)

respond to mechanical or thermal pain but not to polymodal pain

c)

strongly influence the affective and motivational elements of pain

d)

are small, myelinated fibers that transmit sharp pain.

44.

____ -fibers are unmyelinated nerve fibers, involved in polymodal pain, which transmit dull, aching pain.

a)

A-gamma

b)

B

c)

A-delta

d)

C

45.

Which of the following statements is true about chronic pain?

a)

Most pain control techniques work well to control chronic pain but are less successful with acute pain.

b)

Unlike acute pain, chronic pain usually decreases with treatment and the passage of time

c)

Patients with chronic pain disorders show significant loss of gray matter in certain regions of the brain

d)

Behaviors that arise from chronic pain cannot be measured

46.

One barrier to the treatment of pain is that:

a)

physical pain and social pain are mutually exclusive

b)

it is difficult for people to objectively describe pain

c)

the psychological profiles for acute and chronic pain are always identical

d)

One barrier to the treatment of pain is that:

47.

Which of the following statements is true of pain?

a)

Sympathetic arousal that occurs in response to vigorous sports increases pain sensitivity.

b)

It is the symptom most likely to lead an individual to seek treatment

c)

It is always easy for individuals to describe pain objectively.

d)

From a medical practitioner's perspective, pain is never a by-product of a disorder.

48.

Mindfulness meditation is known to be an effective treatment for a functional disorder known as _____.

a)

encipresis

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

fibromyalgia

d)

autophagia

49.

The three goals of a hospital's functioning:

a)

are mutually exclusive.

b)

can create conflicting demands.

c)

have a hierarchical order of importance.

d)

are valid only in government hospitals.

50.

_____ is concerned with ensuring the smooth functioning of the system and the flow of resources, services, and personnel.

a)

Coping

b)

Core

c)

Cure

d)

Care

51.

_____ involves the humanitarian side of medicine, and it deals with the orientation of the nursing staff.

a)

Core

b)

Cure

c)

Care

d)

Coping

52.

The first line of authority in a private hospital which is based on technical skill and expertise is the _____.

a)

behavioral care line

b)

administrative line

c)

medical line

d)

paramedical line

53.

_____ can result from personal theories about a disorder and its treatment.

a)

Faulty communication

b)

Creative nonadherence

c)

Negative affectivity

d)

Secondary gains

54.

In which of the following conditions is treatment adherence likely to be highest?

a)

When a person supplements a prescribed treatment

b)

When a person has no money

c)

When a person lives in a cohesive family

d)

When a person has low IQ

55.

Adherence is likely to be highest when advice is perceived to be _____.

a)

medical

b)

vocational

c)

psychological

d)

social

56.

Physicians prefer to treat an acute illness compared to a chronic illness because:

a)

chronic illnesses pose uncertainties and raise questions about prognosis

b)

acute illnesses pose uncertainties and raise questions about diagnosis

c)

chronic illnesses can increase a physician's distress over having to give bad news.

d)

acute illnesses require less than two physician consultations

57.

Patient depersonalization usually results in:

a)

low quality of technical care.

B. emotional protection for the provider.


b)

sexism in medical practice.

c)

emotional protection for the provider

d)

progressive patient-provider communication.

58.

Which of the following treatments is more likely to be employed during stressful moments to keep the patient quiet and to enable the practitioner to concentrate?

a)

Chiropractic medicine

b)

Polarity therapy

c)

Nonperson treatment

d)

Aversion therapy

59.

Health care providers frequently resort to baby talk because:

a)

they are trained to use baby talk with children who come for treatment.

b)

they assume that all their patients are completely unaware of medical terms.

c)

they often underestimate their patients' level of understanding about an illness

d)

they realize that patients are ill and are not in the right frame of mind to interact as adults

60.

Shirley had gone for a routine medical check-up, and her doctor found that she had unregulated cell growth which is an indicator of malignant neoplasm (cancer). The doctor met Shirley and told her that he suspected a malignant neoplasm in her body that has not yet been located. However, the doctor also mentioned that the infection may spread to other parts of the body through the lymphatic system. The doctor asked Shirley to undergo a few tests and start therapy and medication immediately. Although, Shirley understood that she had a serious condition, she was not very clear on what the doctor meant. In this case, the doctor is:

a)

applying a nonperson treatment.

b)

using baby talk with the patientapplying a nonperson treatment.

c)

using jargons to explain a condition

d)

acquiring informed consent from the patient

61.

____ is an example of a provider behavior that can potentially erode communication between a patient and a physician.

a)

Probing

b)

Baby talk

c)

Inattentiveness

d)

Enthusiasm

62.

A relationship between discrimination and poor health has been found for _____.

a)

African American men and women

b)

Asian adults and children

c)

happily-married women

d)

Caucasian women

63.

Chronic stress appears to _____.

a)

be unrelated to negative life events

b)

be unrelated to illness

c)

habituate people to negative life events

d)

contribute to psychological distress and physical illness

64.

Terry is involved in a long-term but ultimately unsatisfying relationship with Lee. This is an example of a _____.

a)

daily hassle

b)

life event

c)

stressor

d)

chronic stress

65.

Risky families are those that _____.

a)

have no long term impact on the family members

b)

experience major, chronic, recurrent stress as opposed to more modest family stress

c)

have financial problems

d)

are high in conflict or abuse and low in warmth and nurturance

66.

Individuals who are prone to react to stress with _____ report more daily hassles than are those who do not react in this manner.

a)

depression

b)

anxiety

c)

narcissism

d)

optimism

67.

Hassles are minor life events that _____.

a)

do not have any considerable effect on most people

b)

have an objective, but not subjective, component.

c)

are not confounded with mental and physical illness.

d)

have a cumulative effect on health and illness.

68.

The occurrence of daily hassles _____.

a)

are poor predictors of physical health than major life events.

b)

markedly enhances reports of physical symptoms.

c)

reduces psychological well-being over the short term.

d)

bears no relationship to physical health.

69.

Which of the following is an invalid criticism of Holmes and Rahe's (1967) Stressful Life Events (SRE) inventory?

a)

It does not assess whether events have been resolved or not.

b)

It treats both positive and negative events in a similar fashion.

c)

Individual differences in the experience of events are not taken into account.

d)

Some of the items on the list are too specific.

70.

Which of the following would be considered a stressful life event?

a)

A religious festival in a neighboring nation

b)

Questioning one's identity and goals

c)

A significant change in job responsibilities

d)

Lack of career fulfillment

71.

According to Holmes and Rahe (1967), an event is potentially stressful if it _____.

a)

is long-term

b)

requires adaptation

c)

threatens one's self-concept

d)

is negative

72.

Studies of vulnerable populations, e.g., children, older adults, exposed to a chronic stressor indicate they _____.

a)

eventually learn to change their task strategies and attention focus to accommodate the noise in their environments

b)

exhibit few cognitive decrements but do show signs of helplessness

c)

exhibit little adaptation to chronic stressors

d)

eventually habituate to high levels of the stressor

73.

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been associated with _____.

a)

temporary changes in the brain, involving the amygdala

b)

decreased cortisol, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

c)

physical and sexual changes that are temporary

d)

biochemical and hormonal alterations that last over a long period

74.

Which of the following situations would be LEAST stressful?

a)

Karl, a file clerk, has been working intensively for three weeks on a new job responsibility.

b)

Linda, a full-time college student, learns that she will have to find a second part-time job due to cuts in financial aid packages.

c)

Joe arrives at his first class of the day to find that the professor will administer a pop quiz.

d)

Jill has filed for divorce after 25 years of marriage.

75.

Research suggests that individual differences in reactivity to stress are related to individual differences in _____.

a)

epinephrine and norepinephrine production

b)

primary and secondary appraisal

c)

psychological responses to stressors.

d)

acute and chronic illness.

76.

The adrenal cortex produces _____ in response to stress.

a)

ACTH

b)

endogenous opioids

c)

glucocorticoids

d)

epinephrine and norepinephrine

77.

The correct order of the pathways by which stress affects health is _____.

a)

physiology, health behaviors, psychosocial resources, and health care

b)

health behaviors, physiology, health care, and psychosocial resources

c)

psychosocial resources, health behaviors, physiology, and health care

d)

health care, psychosocial resources, health behaviors, and physiology

78.

Of the four most important pathways by which stress affects health, the first one to occur is usually related to _____.

a)

physiology

b)

health behaviors

c)

psychosocial resources

d)

health care

79.

The primary biological factor in the tend-and-befriend mechanism is _____.

a)

HPA activation

b)

GSA

c)

cortisol

d)

oxytocin

80.

The _____ response to stress is especially characteristic of females, related to the release of the stress hormone, oxytocin, and may be necessary in the protection of offspring.

a)

tend-and-befriend

b)

fight-or-flight

c)

divide-and-conquer

d)

awe-and-shock

81.

According to its critics, Selye's (1956, 1976) model _____.

a)

fails to consider the role of psychological appraisal in stress

b)

places too much emphasis on individual differences in response to stress

c)

fails to offer a physiological mechanism for the stress-illness relationship

d)

fails to offer a general theory of reactions to a wide variety of stressors over time

82.

According to Selye (1956, 1976), the _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome occurs if the person fails to overcome the threat and depletes its physiological resources in the process of trying.

a)

flight

b)

exhaustion

c)

resistance

d)

alarm

83.

According to Selye (1956, 1976), the _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome is responsible for the person making efforts to cope with the threat.

a)

resistance

b)

alarm

c)

flight

d)

exhaustion

84.

According to Selye (1956, 1976), the _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome is responsible for the person becoming mobilized to meet the threat.

a)

alarm

b)

resistance

c)

flight

d)

exhaustion

85.

Selye's (1956, 1976) studies of the general adaptation syndrome investigated _____ responses to stress.

a)

adrenocortical

b)

adrenomedullary

c)

gastrointestinal

d)

psychological

86.

The fight-or-flight response _____.

a)

involves arousal of the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system.

b)

is subject to large individual differences.

c)

involves arousal of the parasympathetic nervous system.

d)

is never adaptive.

87.

The process of secondary appraisal involves the evaluation of one's _____.

a)

physical state in the past

b)

personal resources

c)

perception of the event

d)

current emotional state

88.

The process of primary appraisal involves the evaluation of one's _____.

a)

resources

b)

coping ability

c)

meaning of the event

d)

current emotional state

89.

Most definitions of stress focus on _____.

a)

the relationship between the person and the environment

b)

emotional changes

c)

physiological changes

d)

stressful events

90.

Stress is a _____ experience accompanied by predictable biochemical, physiological, cognitive, and behavioral changes that are directed either toward altering the stressful event or accommodating to its effects.

a)

negative emotional

b)

positive emotional

c)

negative physical

d)

positive physical

91.

Evaluations of the efficacy of mass media health appeals suggest that

a)

media appeals are often important sources of information for alerting the public to unknown health
risks

b)

mass media messages are unrelated to shifts in cultural climate

c)

including specific recommendations about health-related behaviours diminishes individual perceptions
of self-efficacy.

d)

messages are often too concrete and specific, and thus it is difficult to glean useful information from
mass media appeals.

e)

mass media campaigns are successful at bringing about long-term change.

D


92.

The family physician may be a particularly effective agent in promoting health-related attitudes and
behaviour because

a)

a physician is a highly credible communicator and agent of health-habit change.

b)

a one-to-one approach is the least expensive and most efficient vehicle for changing health habits

c)

few social engineering solutions to health problems have been successful.

d)

individuals are more likely to follow a suggested treatment if they pay for professional advice.

93.

The work site has typically dealt with employees' health habits by

a)

providing reduced insurance premiums for individuals who successfully modify their health habits

b)

structuring the environment to help people engage in healthy activities.

c)

using a health risk assessment to identify employees' specific risks

d)

providing on-the-job health-promotion programs

e)

All of these answers are correct.

94.

Which of the following is NOT an example of social engineering to change health-related behaviours?

a)

Legislation to eliminate the amount of trans fats allowed in foods

b)

Interventions designed to get parents to reduce accidents in the home.

c)

Lowering the speed limit.

d)

Legislating smoke-free indoor work environments

e)

Requiring immunizations for children before school entry.

95.

_______________ involves modifying the environment to affect one's ability to practise a particular
behaviour.

a)

Passive retraining

b)

Adaptive environmental change

c)

Reconstruction

d)

Social engineering

e)

Occupational therapy

96.

Relapse prevention techniques often adopt cue exposure techniques, which

a)

provides the opportunity to practise coping responses

b)

reduce positive expectations associated with the addictive behaviour

c)

increase feelings of self-efficacy

d)

extinguish the craving typically evoked by a cue, such as an alcoholic beverage.

e)

All of these answers are correct.

97.

An abstinence violation effect is associated with

a)

increased vigilance.

b)

a loss of perceived control and increased likelihood of relapse.

c)

an increased feeling of perceived control and decreased likelihood of relapse.

d)

psychological reactance and an increased feeling of perceived control

e)

suppressed hypervigilance

98.

Relapse

a)

is unrelated to levels of perceived stress and social support.

b)

has been found to have similar rates and patterns for alcohol and drug addiction, but relapse rates for smokers increase with the passage of time.

c)

appears to be unrelated to situational factors; it is almost exclusively an individual problem

d)

is more likely to be observed in instances of declining motivation and lack of goals

e)

usually occurs after a three month period of abstinence.

99.

Motivational interviewing

a)

is a client-centred counselling style designed to get people to work through ambivalence they may be experiencing about changing their health behaviours

b)

helps rid the environment of discriminative stimuli that evoke the problem of health behaviour.

c)

is used to train a client in cognitive restructuring

d)

is designed to reduce anxiety that occurs in social situations.

e)

sets the stage for enlisting the patient's joint participation early in the effort to modify health
behaviours

100.

The goal of social skills training is to

a)

learn to relax all the muscles in the body to discharge tension or stress.

b)

learn relaxation procedures to cope more effectively with their anxiety

c)

get the client to think through and express some of his or her own reasons for and against change

d)

reduce the anxiety associated with social situations.

e)

increase motivation

101.

Wanda's weight loss counsellor has observed that she has a self-defeating pattern of beliefs and
cognitions about her ability to control her overeating. Specifically, when she eats something that is not allowed on her diet, she thinks "I have no willpower; I'll always be fat" and binges the rest of the day. Wanda's counsellor now is encouraging her to think "Well, I slipped on my diet at lunch. Relax, one slip isn't that bad. I'll get back on my diet right away!" The therapist is utilizing a technique called

a)

self-punishment.

b)

self-monitoring

c)

positive reinforcement.

d)

cognitive restructuring

102.

Rhonda entered into an agreement with her friend, Nancy, in an attempt to establish a regular exercise
program. According to their agreement, Nancy pays Rhonda $1 every day that she exercises for at least 30 minutes after work. If she fails to do so, Rhonda must pay Nancy $1. This is an example of

a)

vicarious reinforcement.

b)

a contingency contract

c)

a token economy.

d)

shaping.

e)

negative reinforcement.

103.

The use of Antabuse in the treatment of alcoholism involves having the client sip his or her favourite
drink while ingesting Antabuse. After several pairings, alcohol becomes associated with the Antabuse and elicits a(n) _______________.

a)

unconditioned stimulus

b)

unconditioned response

c)

conditioned stimulus

d)

conditioned response

e)

extinction response

104.

_______________ focuses on the target behaviour and on the beliefs that people hold about their health
habits.

a)

Modelling

b)

Cognitive-behaviour therapy

c)

Operant conditioning

d)

Attitudinal therapy

e)

Classical conditioning.

105.

Which of the following is NOT the best example of an implementation intention to increase exercise
behaviour?

a)

I will exercise 2 hours per week for the next 3 months

b)

I will jog for 30 minutes in my neighbourhood every Tuesday and Thursday evening

c)

I will go buy some new running shoes so that I can start running

d)

I want to exercise more

e)

I will complete three sets of 10 squats every day.

106.

Studies evaluating the effectiveness of Prochaska et al.'s (1992) transtheoretical model of behavioural
change indicate that

a)

its applications have shown mixed success

b)

the media has even less of an effect on an individual's health behaviours than previously thought.

c)

interventions that teach skills relevant to action and behaviour maintenance have little effect on
individual motivation

d)

interventions matched to the stage that an individual is in are more successful than those more
appropriate for other stages.

e)

its applications have been shown to be extremely useful.

107.

Julian has decided that he needs to lose 15 pounds. He is concerned about the amount of fat he consumes and suspects that his cholesterol count is high. He has purchased a popular book on low-fat diets and has decided that he will begin walking three times a week after he buys a new pair of walking shoes next week. According to Prochaska et al.'s (1992) transtheoretical model of behavioural change, Julian is in the _______________ stage of health behaviour change.

a)

action

b)

preparation

c)

contemplation

d)

precontemplation

e)

maintenance

108.

According to the theory of planned behaviour, behavioural intentions are a function of

a)

perceptions of vulnerability, magnitude of health threat, and self-efficacy

b)

specific health attitudes and normative beliefs

c)

general health attitudes, normative beliefs, and perceptions of control

d)

attitude to a specific action, subjective norms, and perceptions of control

109.

_______________ is the belief that one is able to control one's practice of a particular behaviour.

a)

Self-efficacy

b)

Self-control

c)

Self-esteem

d)

Health locus-of-control

110.

The health belief model states that the practice of a particular health behaviour is a function of

a)

perceived self-efficacy and perceived invulnerability

b)

an individual's beliefs in a specific health threat and beliefs that a specific health behaviour can reduce
that threat

c)

an individual's attitudes about a health behaviour, subjective normative beliefs, and self-efficacy.

d)

an individual's beliefs that he or she, rather than powerful others or chance, is in control of his or her
own health

111.

You are designing a health-promotion program for a retirement community. According to the text, which
of the following behaviours would be the most important to target in your intervention?

a)

Getting regular vaccinations for influenza

b)

Maintaining a healthy diet

c)

Developing a regular exercise program

d)

Eliminating smoking

e)

Learning meditation and relaxation techniques

112.

Research suggests that most people's perceptions of their own health risks are

a)

generally accurate.

b)

insensitive to feedback

c)

unrealistically pessimistic

d)

unrealistically optimistic

e)

that their poor health behaviours are distinctive.

113.

Which of the following is considered a "teachable moment"?

a)

a crucial point at which a person is ready to modify a health behaviour

b)

an adult with newly diagnosed coronary artery disease

c)

pregnancy

d)

a child's first dental visit

e)

All of these answers are correct

114.

Considering the relationship of chronological age to health behaviours, health habits

a)

deteriorate among adults 73 and older

b)

deteriorate in adolescence and early adulthood.

c)

improve among retired adults under 73.

d)

are good in childhood.

115.

One aspect of health habits that makes them difficult to modify is that

a)

unhealthy habits do not develop until adulthood, when they have no apparent effect on health

b)

factors controlling health behaviour are generally consistent across the life span

c)

they are interdependent—a change in one habit is often reflected in changes in others

d)

the exact point for intervention is seldom clear.

116.

According to the demographic factors discussed in the text, which of the following individuals is most
likely to practice good health behaviours?

a)

Sam, a 30-year-old assistant professor who has just celebrated his fifth wedding anniversary

b)

Bill, a divorced 50-year-old corporate attorney

c)

Dan, a 30-year-old high school graduate who works as a file clerk in a small insurance agency who expects to be married next month

d)

Joe, a 45-year-old high school dropout who works two jobs in order to support his family

117.

According to the text, cancer deaths could be reduced by more than 50 percent simply by getting people

a)

eat more fruits and vegetables

b)

tell their doctor when their health changes

c)

increase their physical activity

d)

avoid smoking

118.

Health habits

a)

are often performed without conscious awareness.

b)

require access to the health care delivery system

c)

are unrelated to health behaviours

d)

are highly resistant to change, because they are continually reinforced by specific positive outcomes

e)

are something people are consciously aware of but choose to deny.

119.

According to the text, changing health behaviours may be beneficial because it

a)

may reduce the number of deaths due to diseases related to lifestyle.

b)

may increase individual longevity and life expectancy.

c)

may delay the onset of chronic disease and enhance quality of life.

d)

it will reduce spending on health services.

e)

All of these answers are correct.

120.

Which of the following is the best definition of health promotion?

a)

Medical interventions designed to enhance and maximize good health

b)

The avoidance of health-compromising behaviours.

c)

The practice of good health behaviours.

d)

A general philosophy that good health is a personal and collective achievement

e)

A collection of behavioural management techniques for good health behaviours.

121.

People with graduate degrees in health psychology typically are employed

a)

All of these.

b)

as clinicians who work with medical patients.

c)

in industrial or occupational health settings.

d)

in academic settings, where they conduct research programs in health psychology

122.

The advantage of theory in health psychology is:

a)

All of these

b)

to tie together loose ends

c)

to generate specific predictions

d)

that theories provide guidelines for how to do research

123.

In industrialized countries, _______________ are the major contributors to disability and death.

a)

accidents and homicides

b)

hereditary disorders

c)

chronic illnesses

d)

acute disorders

124.

Until the turn of the 20th century, _______________ were the major causes of illness and death in the United States.

a)

accidents and homicides

b)

hereditary disorders

c)

chronic illnesses

d)

acute disorders

125.

According to the biopsychosocial model,

a)

All of these.

b)

patients play an important role in their diagnosis and treatment.

c)

treatment must focus on biological, psychological, and social factors.

d)

an interdisciplinary team approach may lead to the best diagnoses.

126.

The idea that health is the absence of disease most closely resembles the

a)

pathological model.

b)

psychosomatic model.

c)

biopsychosocial model.

d)

biomedical model.

127.

According to your text, all conditions of health and illness are influenced by

a)

one's personality type.

b)

psychodynamics.

c)

psychological and social factors.

d)

None of these.

128.

______________ links patterns of personality to specific illnesses.

a)

The biomedical model

b)

Freudian theory

c)

Psychosomatic medicine

d)

Psychoanalytic theory

129.

According to the humoral theory of the ancient Greeks, disease is the result of

a)

trephination.

b)

evil spirits.

c)

an imbalance of bodily fluids.

d)

cellular disorders

130.

During prehistory most ancient cultures viewed the mind and the body as

a)

part of the same system.

b)

separate and autonomous systems.

c)

somewhat interdependent.

d)

ultimately unknowable.

131.

Which of the following is made available to people with hypertension so that they can monitor their blood pressure successfully?

a)

Implanted neural device

b)

IAP monitoring device

c)

Ventricular assist device

d)

Ambulatory monitoring device

132.

Which of the following is the primary concern for health psychologists?

a)

Development of superior quality medication

b)

Methods to reduce disability

c)

Rate of mortality in a given population

d)

Health-related quality of life

133.

Most of the research in health psychology is said to be _____.

a)

semi-experimental

b)

meta-analytic

c)

descriptive

d)

experimental

134.

Which of the following suggests that chronic illnesses helped in propagating the field of health psychology?

a)

Chronic illnesses usually have no requirement for lengthy interventions.

b)

Psychological factors are the sole causes implicated in chronic illnesses.

c)

Chronic illnesses are short-lived, and its management is simple.

d)

Chronic illnesses often result in problems in family functioning.

135.

According to the biopsychosocial model, which of the following is a macrolevel process that continually interacts with microlevel processes to influence health, illness and its course?

a)

Cellular disorders

b)

Chemical imbalances

c)

Depression

d)

Social seclusion

136.

The field of health psychology is greatly influenced by the psychosomatic movement.   Which of the following assumptions of this movement has made a lasting contribution to health psychology?

a)

Physical health is affected by both the psychological and social environment

b)

Certain disorders are best treated medically; however other disorders are best treated through psychotherapy

c)

Certain biological disorders can be related on a consistent basis to specific personality types

d)

Psychological conflict is sufficient to produce certain disorders

137.

Which of the following best defines health psychology?

a)

Diagnosing, preventing, and treating a disease without including the option of surgery

b)

Applying the principles of biology in order to study the anatomy of a human being

c)

Using psychological theories and principles to tackle problems in the areas of mental health, education, product design, ergonomics, and law

d)

Understanding the psychological influences on how people stay healthy, why they become ill, and how they respond when they get ill

138.

The term health involves:

a)

surgically treating physical ailments to eliminate chronic pain.

b)

a reduction in physical pain and social pain.

c)

the absence of disease or infirmity.

d)

a balance among physical, mental, and social well-being.

139.

A health psychologist who designs a media campaign to get people to improve their diets is focusing on:

a)

the health care system and the formulation of health policy

b)

the etiology and correlates of health, illness, and dysfunction

c)

prevention and treatment of illness

d)

health promotion and maintenance

140.

According to the psychological aspects of prevention and treatment of illness, health psychologists who work with people who are already ill focus on:

a)

advising individuals about career paths that are less stressful

b)

developing recommendations to maintain a healthy lifestyle

c)

helping them in following their treatment regimen

d)

altering their exercise patterns

141.

A health psychologist who is interested in the behavioral and social factors that contribute to disease focuses on:

a)

the prevention and treatment of illness.

b)

health promotion and maintenance.

c)

the health care system and the formulation of health policy.

d)

the etiology and correlates of health, illness, and dysfunction.

142.

_____ refers to the origins or causes of illness.

a)

Pathology

b)

Oncology

c)

Epidemiology

d)

Etiology

143.

Which of the following is studied by health psychologists to analyze the health care system and formulate health policy?

a)

Classification of occupations that is highly stressful, and can adversely affect people's health.

b)

Exercise patterns and dietary interventions that help to promote good habits, and develop a healthy lifestyle.

c)

The behavioral and social factors that contribute to health, illness, and dysfunction such as alcohol consumption and smoking.

d)

The impact of hospitals and physicians on people's behavior to develop recommendations for improving health care.

144.

The _____ model assumes a mind-body dualism to understanding illness.

a)

commonsense

b)

health-belief

c)

biopsychosocial

d)

biomedical

145.

The biomedical model maintains that:

a)

psychological and social processes are relevant to the disease process.

b)

disease results when the four humors or circulating fluids of the body are out of balance.

c)

health and illness are consequences of biological, psychological, and social factors.

d)

all illness can be explained on the basis of aberrant somatic bodily processes.

146.

Sigmund Freud described _____ as a specific unconscious conflict that produces physical disturbances, and symbolizes repressed psychological conflicts.

a)

etiology

b)

conversion hysteria

c)

chronic illness

d)

epidemiology

147.

The belief that profiles of particular disorders is caused by emotional conflict is propagated by the:

a)

tools of neuroscience.

b)

biomedical model.

c)

field of psychosomatic medicine.

d)

theory of biophysics.

148.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an acute disorder?

a)

It is usually a long-term illness

b)

It often develops due to a virus or bacteria

c)

It is currently the main contributor to disability and death

d)

It can only be managed, not cured

149.

Acute disorders are:

a)

slowly developing diseases with which people live for many years.

b)

the major causes of death and illness in the United States.

c)

typically co-managed by the patient and the practitioner.

d)

short-term illnesses that are usually amenable to cure.

150.

_____ is an example of a chronic illness that is particularly prevalent in industrialized countries.

a)

Influenza

b)

Pneumonia

c)

Cancer

d)

Tuberculosis

151.

Judith is diagnosed with a lump in her gallbladder which must be surgically removed. The doctor and the hospital psychologist explain the procedure, the difficulties, and the benefits of undergoing the surgery. Judith is aware of the extent of pain she might experience, and she will be taught techniques to manage the pain. According to Janis and Johnson, which of the following is Judith likely to do?

a)

Take a second opinion from another health care provider to verify the facts.

b)

Ask for a substitute procedure that might involve lesser pain.

c)

Feel anxious and withdraw from the procedure.

d)

Improve her adjustment toward the procedure.

152.

Most of the research in health psychology is guided by _____.

a)

clinical trials

b)

unproven hypothesis

c)

proven theory

d)

practical problems

153.

__ refers to the number of cases of a disease that exist at some given point in time.

a)

Etiology

b)

Pathology

c)

Mortality

d)

Morbidity

154.

The total number of existing cases of a disease that exist at any given point in time is called _____.

a)

incidence

b)

plague

c)

mortality

d)

prevalence

155.

The number of deaths due to a particular cause is known as _____.

a)

homicide

b)

obliteration

c)

morbidity

d)

mortality

156.

Conversion hysteria

a)

All of these.

b)

occurs when an individual develops several minor symptoms to avoid interpersonal conflict

c)

occurs when unconscious conflict is manifested in a symbolic physical symptom.

d)

is now even more frequent than in Freud's time.

157.

_____ is the degree of change that occurs in autonomic, neuroendocrine, and/or immune responses as a result of stress.

a)

Reactivity

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Physiology

d)

Stressor

158.

Mike has been having difficulty meeting the demands of the two executives who oversee his work area and communicate different expectations. One executive is concerned about production and constantly urges Mike to meet performance quotas. The other is concerned about quality assurance and would like Mike to slow down and focus on the quality of his work. This is an example of _____.

a)

overwork

b)

work pressure

c)

role conflict

d)

role ambiguity

159.

_____ is a generalized defense against pathogens.

a)

Humoral immunity

b)

Passive immunity

c)

Specific immunity

d)

Natural immunity

160.

Assessment of quality of life:

a)

assesses the impact of treatments.

b)

evaluates the practitioners' experience in dealing with illnesses

c)

discourages comparison of therapies

d)

identifies the likely problems associated with acute diseases

161.

Denial serves as a protective function:

a)

during the rehabilitative phase of the illness.

b)

when patients must play an active role in the treatment regimen

c)

during the acute phase of the illness

d)

before the patient seeks medical treatment

162.

Of the following situations, patients' anxiety would be the highest:

a)

while the patient is explained about the side effects of a medical procedure.

b)

while the patient is awaiting an invasive medical procedure

c)

after the patient has received a test result.

d)

after the physician had explained the diagnosis and treatment regimen

163.

Up to _____ of all medical inpatients with chronic disease suffer from severe depression

a)

one-fourth

b)

one-half

c)

one-tenth

d)

one-quarter

164.

Unlike anxiety and denial, depression:

a)

may be intermittent and unrelenting.

b)

is the first response to chronic illness.

c)

is at a steady state during the course of chronic illness.

d)

may be a long-term reaction to chronic illness.

165.

Which of the following is true of depression?

a)

Treatment for depression aggravates psychological distress.

b)

Depression increases as a result of telephone-administered cognitive behavioral therapy.

c)

Treatment for depression increases symptoms associated with the illness.

d)

Depression increases with the severity of the illness.

166.

The perception and evaluation of one's physical functioning and appearance comprise one's _____.

a)

self-evaluation

b)

body image

c)

self-concept

d)

physical self

167.

Which of the following is true about body image?

a)

Negative evaluations last longer in chronically ill patients.

b)

Changes in body image are long-lived in acutely ill patients.

c)

Body image plummets only during acute illness.

d)

Body image remains constant during chronic illness.

168.

Alex is suffering from migraine. He avoids it completely by eating and sleeping excessively. Which of the following coping strategies is Alex using here?

a)

Social support

b)

Behavioral escape

c)

Cognitive escape

d)

Distancing

169.

Analyses of the effectiveness of coping strategies in managing the stress associated with chronic illness conclude that:

a)

active coping is more consistently associated with good adjustment.

b)

confrontative coping is associated with better adjustment than the use of multiple coping strategies.

c)

avoidant coping is associated with reduced psychological distress and better psychological adjustment.

d)

the coping strategies used by chronically ill patients are significantly different from the strategies observed in healthy samples.

170.

Successful adjustment to chronic illness is associated with:

a)

having a personal sense of control, even in medical situations, in which little personal control is possible.

b)

blaming others for one's illness and thus minimizing self-blame.

c)

developing an acute model of one's disorder.

d)

having an appropriate or accurate illness schema about the nature of one's illness.

171.

During physical rehabilitation, patients need a _____ management program for the alleviation of discomfort.

a)

pain

b)

disease

c)

mind

d)

health

172.

Which of the following is to be included in a comprehensive rehabilitation program for chronically ill patients?

a)

Stress management

b)

Family isolation

c)

Unrestricted diet

d)

igorous exercise

173.

Stress management programs are increasingly incorporated into physical treatment regimens due to the debilitating effects of stress on:

a)

acute disorders.

b)

coping strategies.

c)

chronic diseases

d)

psychosocial adjustment.

174.

Adherence to treatment regimens is:

a)

problematic with people who have chronic illnesses.

b)

unaffected by the side effects of treatment.

c)

significantly lower in patients being treated for acute disorders.

d)

significantly higher in patients being treated for acute disorders

175.

Which of the following predicts adherence to chronic disease regimens?

a)

Hereditary factors associated with the patients

b)

Low expectations for controlling self-efficacy

c)

Knowledge of the treatment regimen

d)

Low expectations for controlling one's health

176.

Studies of reactions to the disabled indicate that they tend to elicit:

a)

compassion.

b)

ambivalence.

c)

curiosity.

d)

pity.

177.

Adverse changes in social interactions after a diagnosis of chronic disease are more likely to be observed in:

a)

intimate others.

b)

employers

c)

friends and acquaintances.

d)

family members.

178.

Most caregiving for the chronically ill is provided by:

a)

friends

b)

women

c)

men

d)

formal services such as home health nurses or nursing homes.

179.

Which of the following is true of caregiving?

a)

It often strains the relationship between patient and caregiver.

b)

It is most commonly associated with men than with women.

c)

It threatens the health of elderly caregivers.

d)

It is always long-term and intermittent.

180.

Compared to therapy with other clients, psychotherapy provided to medical patients is more likely to:

a)

challenge the client's defenses and promote a realistic assessment of his or her situation.

b)

be expensive and time consuming.

c)

involve collaboration with the patient's family and physician.

d)

be continuous and long term in nature.

181.

Family support of the chronically ill patient is especially important because they:

a)

need no guidance on the harmful actions that will upset a patient.

b)

promote adherence to treatment.

c)

are the only source of social support for a patient.

d)

encourage the patient to stay cheerful always.

182.

A social support group is most likely to appeal to:

a)

Edith, a physician who is also an osteoarthritis patient.

b)

Sybil, a high-school dropout with three children who is recovering from pneumonia.

c)

Arnel, a recent immigrant from the Philippines who suffers from Lyme disease.

d)

Fred, an insurance company executive who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction (MI).

183.

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are together termed as _____.

a)

enzymes

b)

platelets

c)

catecholamines

d)

acids

184.

The _____ glands are located on top of each of the kidneys.

a)

adrenal

b)

thyroid

c)

pituitary

d)

pineal

185.

Which of the following functions is performed by the adrenal cortex in response to stress?

a)

There is a deregulation of sodium retention.

b)

The formation and inflammation of antibodies is encouraged.

c)

There is a decrease in the amount of energy stored in the body.

d)

There is an increase in protein and fat mobilization.

186.

Which of the following functions is performed by the adrenal cortex in response to stress?

a)

There is a deregulation of sodium retention.

b)

The formation and inflammation of antibodies is encouraged.

c)

There is a decrease in the amount of energy stored in the body.

d)

There is an increase in protein and fat mobilization.

187.

_____ occurs when the heart has insufficient supply of oxygen, or adequate removal of carbon dioxide and other waste products.

a)

Ischemia

b)

Arrythmia

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Angina pectoris

188.

_____ occurs when a clot has developed in a coronary vessel, and blocks the flow of blood to the heart.

a)

Glioblastoma

b)

Ischemia

c)

Angina pectoris

d)

Myocardial infarction

189.

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of atherosclerosis?

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Ischemia

c)

Lupus

d)

Lymphoma

190.

_____ accounts for 80 percent of all cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

a)

Alcoholism

b)

Smoking

c)

Obesity

d)

Hypertension

191.

A critical function of the pancreas is the production of _____.

a)

oxytocin

b)

pepsin

c)

insulin

d)

cortisol

192.

Which of the following diseases has a genetic basis?

a)

Cerebral palsy

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Paraplegia

d)

Hay fever

193.

_____ cells secrete chemicals that kill invading organisms and infected cells.

a)

B

b)

T

c)

Mast

d)

Eosinophil