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BCK MCQ 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

‘’The wealth of Nation” Considered as the first modern work of Economics was written by :

a)

Marx

b)

Adam-Smith

c)

Lipsey

d)

Allen

2.

Business Economics is:

a)

Normative Science

b)

Interdisciplinary

c)

Pragmatic in approach

d)

All of the above

3.

The Central Economic Problem is:

a)

What to produce?

b)

What provision (if any) are to be made for economic growth?

c)

How to produce?

d)

All of the above

4.

The ‘communist Manifesto’ was published in:

a)

1848

b)

1905

c)

1952

d)

None of the above

5.

Which of the following is not within the scope of Business Economics??

a)

Risk analysis

b)

Accounting Standards

c)

Capital Budgeting

d)

All of the above

6.

The allocation of resources in a free-market economy is determined by:

a)

Level of profits of firms

b)

Consumer preferences

c)

Central planning authority

d)

None of these

7.

Which of the following exhibit direct price demand relationship:

a)

Substitute goods

b)

Complementary goods

c)

Giffen goods

d)

None of these

8.

Which of the following is a variable case for a firm?

a)

Interest on loan

b)

Monthly rent

c)

Insurance premium

d)

Wages to employees

9.

A firm’s average fixed cost (AFC) is Rs. 20 at Six Units of output. What will be AFC at four Units of Output?

a)

Rs. 20

b)

Rs. 30

c)

Rs. 40

d)

Rs. 50

10.

X,Y and Z are confused with the formula for defining TC

(a) X Says : TC = TVC +TFC

(b) Y Says: TC = AC X output

(c) Z Says: TC = ZMC + TFC

Identify who amongst them is correct

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

Z

d)

All of them

11.

Which two curves are intersected by MC Curve at their minimum points:

a)

AC and AVC

b)

AC and AFC

c)

AC and TVE

d)

AVC and AFC

12.

There will be ------- in the demand Curve of cars with an increase in the Price of Petrol

a)

Leftward shift

b)

Rightward shift

c)

Upward movement

d)

Downward movement

13.

The Consumer surplus is derived from:

a)

Law of diminishing marginal utility

b)

Marginal rate of substitution

c)

Budget line

d)

None of these

14.

Income elasticity in the case of Inferior good will be:

a)

Zero

b)

Positive

c)

Negative

d)

Infinite

15.

What are the determinant of Price elasticity of demand?

a)

Availability of substitute

b)

Tied demand

c)

Time period

d)

All of these

16.

When the two goods are complementary to each other the cross elasticity between them is:

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Either of these

d)

None of these

17.

According to Hicks and Allen the demand curve slopes downwards due to :

a)

Income and substitution effect

b)

Diminishing marginal utility

c)

Price elasticity

d)

None of these

18.

The heavy advance order for Capital goods is an example of

a)

Lagging indicator

b)

Leading indicator

c)

Coincidental indicator

d)

None of these

19.

The commonly available technique of demand forecasting are:

a)

Survey of buyer's intention

b)

Expert opinion method

c)

Least square method

d)

All of these

20.

If the price of both goods fall how would that budget line, be affected?

a)

The budget line will be shifting to the left

b)

The budget line would not shift

c)

So long as the prices of both goods change in the same proportion the new budget line will have same slope

d)

None of these

21.

Two Suppliers and many buyers are in -------- market.

a)

Duopoly

b)

Monopoly

c)

Perfect competition

d)

Oligopoly

22.

Interest on own capital is a ----

a)

Explicit cost

b)

Implicit cost

c)

Future cost

d)

None of these

23.

The transformation of physical inputs into output is known as ----

a)

Supply

b)

Demand

c)

Cost

d)

Production

24.

When e = 0 elasticity of demand is

a)

Unitary

b)

Inelastic

c)

Perfectly inelastic demand

d)

None of these

25.

Which curve is not affected by fixed cost?

a)

MC curve

b)

TC curve

c)

AC curve

d)

AFC curve

26.

Which two curves are intersected by MC curve at their minimum points:

a)

AC and AVC

b)

AVC and AFC

c)

AC and AFC

d)

AC and TVC

27.

Which of the following is an example of “Implicit cost”?

a)

Interest that could have been earned on retained earnings used by the firm to finance expansion

b)

Payment of rent by the firm

c)

Interest Payment made by the Firm for funds borrowed from a Bank

d)

Payment of wages by the firm

28.

Demand curve of perfectly competitive market form is a horizontal straight line parallel to X-axis. It happens because:

a)

Selling costs are zero

b)

There is freedom of entry and exit

c)

Firm is a price-taker

d)

None of these

29.

Under which market form, the demand curve is steeper as compared to monopolistic competition?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Perfect competition

d)

None of these

30.

Firms cooperate with each other in determining price or output or both. It is a feature of:

a)

Pure Oligopoly

b)

Non-collusive Oligopoly

c)

Imperfect Oligopoly

d)

Collusive Oligopoly

31.

Consumers get maximum variety of goods under:

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Monopolistic competition

c)

Monopoly

d)

Pure competition

32.

‘A few big sellers’ is a characteristics of:

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Monopolistic competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

None of these

33.

Ceteris paribus means:

a)

Holding supply constant

b)

Holding demand constant

c)

Price being constant

d)

Other factors being constant

34.

Who defined Business economics in terms of the use of economic analysis in the formulation of business policies?

a)

Adam Smith

b)

Robbins

c)

Joel Dean

d)

Alfred Marshall

35.

A rational person does not act unless___

a)

The action is ethical

b)

The action produces marginal cost that exceeds marginal revenue

c)

The action produces marginal benefits that exceed marginal costs.

d)

The action makes money for the person

36.

Which one of the following countries does not follow Capitalist economic system?

a)

USA

b)

UK

c)

Germany

d)

India

37.

“The increase in demand of a commodity due to the fact that others are also consuming the same commodity” is known as__________

a)

Veblen effect

b)

Bandwagon effect

c)

Snob effect

d)

Demonstration effect

38.

In the Cobb-Douglas production function given as: Q = A*L^a*k^(1-a) the share of labour in total production is

a)

a

b)

1 - a

c)

A

d)

a .L

39.

Assertion (A): Investment has also a supply effect.

Reason (R): Because it raises capacity to produce.

a)

(A) is true and (R) is false

b)

Both (A) and (R) are true & (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

c)

Both (A) and (R) are true & (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

d)

(A) is false and (R) is true

40.

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a)

Kinked Demand Curve is related to Oligopolistic market

b)

Even a monopolistic firm can incur losses

c)

Firms are price takers in perfectly competitive market

d)

It is always beneficial for a firm in a perfectly competitive market to discriminate prices

41.

In economics, generally the classification of the markets is made on the basis of

a)

Time

b)

Geographic area

c)

Volume of business

d)

All of these

42.

Peak is the ____________ stage of expansion

a)

Later

b)

Earlier

c)

Either A or B

d)

None of the above

43.

Coincident economic indicators are also called ___________

a)

Concurrent indicators

b)

Compound indicators

c)

Coexist indicators

d)

Random indicators

44.

Demand for complementary goods are:

a)

Derived demand

b)

Autonomous demand

c)

Aggregate demand

d)

None of these

45.

The budget line is also known as:

a)

Production possibility curve

b)

Consumption possibility curve

c)

Iso utility curve

d)

None of these

46.

Allocation of resources is dealt in:

a)

Macro-economics

b)

Micro-economics

c)

Public Finance

d)

None of these

47.

The Product under Pure Monopoly is:

a)

Homogenous

b)

Differentiated

c)

Unrelated

d)

None of these

48.

Demand for Electricity is elastic because

a)

it is very expensive

b)

it has alternative uses

c)

it has a number of close substitutes

d)

None of these

49.

Fluctuation in economic activities according to Keynes are due to :

a)

Innovations

b)

Changes in money supply

c)

Fluctuation in aggregate effective demand

d)

Fluctuation in government spending

50.

In business cycle peaks and troughs are collectively known as:

a)

Turning points

b)

Equilibrium points

c)

Real business cycle events

d)

None of these

51.

Price Rigidity explained by Sweezy’s model is related to which market form:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopolistic competition

d)

None of these

52.

Secular Period is also known as :

a)

Short period

b)

Very long period

c)

Long period

d)

Very short period

53.

Which of the following is correct about Cartel?

a)

There are few firms

b)

All of which are similar in size

c)

Most cartels have only a subset of producers

d)

All of the above

54.

Which of the following is not a determinant of the firm’s cost function?

a)

Taxes

b)

The production function

c)

The price of the firm's output

d)

None of these

55.

Comfort lie between:

a)

inferior goods and necessities

b)

luxuries and inferior goods

c)

necessities and luxury

d)

None of these

56.

Inequality and Exploitation is minimal under:

a)

Mixed economy

b)

Capitalism

c)

Socialism

d)

None of these

57.

A vertical supply curve parallel to Y axis implies that the elasticity of supply is :

a)

Infinity

b)

Zero

c)

Greater than zero but less than infinity

d)

Equal to one

58.

When the Output of the firm increases in the Short run , its average fixed cost :

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

First decline and then rise

d)

Remains constant

59.

Price discrimination will be profitable only if the elasticity of demand in different sub market is :

a)

Different

b)

Uniform

c)

Zero

d)

Less

60.

When e > 1 the MR is

a)

One

b)

Negative

c)

Positive

d)

Zero

61.

Find out the incorrect:

a)

Economic activities are drive by rationality.

b)

Economic activities are guided by self-interest

c)

Non-Economic activities are driven by emotional or sentimental force.

d)

Non-Economic activities are not at all important in life

62.

National Water Mission is related to -

a)

Environmental aspect

b)

Legal cause

c)

Social welfare

d)

Economic planning

63.

One of the leading companies in Paint Industry, Asian Paints, was incorporate is in the year-

a)

1962

b)

1942

c)

1868

d)

1980

64.

Mark incorrect as Globalization refers to:

a)

Encouraging regional economic cooperation

b)

Integrating the world into one economic global village

c)

It pares the way for higher factor mobility

d)

Drawing countries out of their insulation

65.

Which of the following is NOT a function of RBI?

a)

Monopoly of note issue

b)

Banker to the government

c)

Advancing loan to large business houses

d)

Controller of credit

66.

Which of the following is incorrect?

a)

Arbitrage is simultaneous purchase and sale of a commodity

b)

Current assets are those which can be turned into cash within a year

c)

Intangible assets are those which do not have physical form. They are in the form of rights

d)

Break-even point is also called an optimum point of a firm

67.

The Karta in Joint Hindu Family Business has

a)

Limited liability

b)

Unlimited liability

c)

No liability for debts

d)

Joint liability

68.

Environmental Analysis helps in:

a)

Providing input for strategic decision making

b)

Turning threats to firm’s advantage

c)

Anticipate opportunities and to take optimal responses

d)

All of the above

69.

Which one of the following is NOT a Foreign Company?

a)

Dr. Reddy’s Laboratories Ltd.

b)

Walmart

c)

Nestle

d)

HP

70.

Privatization may NOT be of conceptualized in form of:

a)

Divestment

b)

Disinvestment

c)

Dedication

d)

Displacement

71.

Which one of the following is NOT a SEBI function as one body?

a)

Quasi-legislative

b)

Quasi-judicial

c)

Quasi-fiscal

d)

Quasi-executive

72.

ADR stands for:

a)

American Deficit Record

b)

American Depository Receipt

c)

Asset Depreciation Record

d)

Asset Depository Receipt

73.

Which of the following is NOT an economic objective of the firm?

a)

Sales growth

b)

Improvement in market share

c)

Profits and return on investment

d)

Conservation of natural resources

74.

In the PEST framework for environmental analysis, what does the letter ‘E’ stand for?

a)

Ecological

b)

Economic

c)

Ethical

d)

Educational

75.

The mission of Bharti Airtel Ltd. is:

a)

Hunger to win customers for life

b)

Focus on value-based marketing

c)

Continual improvement

d)

Serving for better

76.

Which policies are meant for specific segments of society, it can be in the area of public distribution to people below poverty line, justice for women etc.?

a)

Financial

b)

Distributive

c)

Facilitating

d)

Economic

77.

Which of these was originally privately owned?

a)

SEBI

b)

IRDAI

c)

RBI

d)

NABARD

78.

Risk is a probable chance that investments’ actual returns will be _____ than as calculated

a)

Increased

b)

Reduced

c)

Equal

d)

None of the above

79.

Find out the incorrect:

a)

Sole proprietor is a business unit having unlimited liability

b)

LLP firm may be constituted

c)

HUF business may be formed by a group of people who do not belong to family

d)

Hindu includes Buddha, Jain, Sikh, Parsi families

80.

Mark incorrect: Partnership implies

a)

Contractual ownership of business

b)

Liability of partner is limited to the extent of one’s share capital

c)

The contract is an agreement enforceable at law is called deed

d)

Deed may be registered in India under the Partnership Act, 1932

81.

Mark the correct:

a)

Tata Sons is a holding company

b)

Infosys, Wipro and TCS are IT companies

c)

Flipkart, Amazon, Myntra are online trading companies

d)

All of the above are correct

82.

Find out the correct:

a)

For sustainable economic development, FII is more preferable to FDI

b)

FDI has strong speculative effect in equity market

c)

In India, permission for FDI is not uniform for all sectors.

d)

FDI is usually done to reap short term gains.

83.

Which of the following Institution has a portfolio of Natural Resource Management Programmes involving diverse fields like Watershed Development, Tribal Development etc., though dedicated funds set up for the purpose?

a)

SEBI

b)

RBI

c)

SBI

d)

NABARD

84.

Which of the following is not covered under four P’s of Marketing?

a)

Product

b)

Price

c)

Place

d)

Procedure

85.

A partnership may NOT be formed to carry on:

a)

Any trade

b)

Occupation

c)

Profession

d)

Social enterprise

86.

Relationship between organisation and environment can be described through:

a)

Exchange of information

b)

Exchange of resources

c)

Exchange of influence and power

d)

All of the above

87.

Luca Maestri is the CFO of which company?

a)

Walmart

b)

Nestle

c)

Apple

d)

Microsoft

88.

The form of privatization, where government keeps hold of responsibility and private enterprise handles the management of it fully or partly is known as:

a)

Disinvestment

b)

Deregulation

c)

Delegation

d)

Decentralization

89.

Where is the head office of NABARD?

a)

Mumbai

b)

Delhi

c)

Gurugram

d)

Bengaluru

90.

What is a bull market?

a)

A market in which the stock prices are increasing consistently

b)

A market in which the stock prices are decreasing consistently

c)

A market in which the stock prices are stable over a long time

d)

None of the above

91.

A HUF cannot comprise members of a:

a)

Hindu and Sikh family

b)

Parsi family

c)

Buddhist family

d)

Muslim Family

92.

The term PESTLE analysis is used to describe a framework for analyzing:

a)

Macro environment

b)

Micro environment

c)

Both macro and micro environment

d)

None of the above

93.

Indane LPG is the product of which corporation in India?

a)

IOCL

b)

NTPC

c)

ONGC

d)

PGCIL

94.

Simplification of trade restrictions related to import is an example of:

a)

Globalization

b)

Privatization

c)

Disinvestment

d)

Aggregation

95.

The RBI has been vested with extensive power to control and supervise commercial banking system under the-

a)

Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

b)

The Banking Regulation Act, 1949

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

The Companies Act, 2013

96.

______ is a strategy that is used to minimize the risk of a particular investment and maximize the returns of an investment.

a)

Cap

b)

Ecryption

c)

Hedge

d)

Term insurance

97.

Which one is NOT a part of environmental scanning?

a)

Identify opportunities & threats affecting business

b)

It takes events, trends, issues and expectations in the consideration

c)

It is done by government to know if the firm is engaged in any anti national activity.

d)

It helps in formulating future path of the firm.

98.

Identify the sector where, FDI is NOT permitted:

a)

Automobile

b)

Infrastructure

c)

Textile

d)

Atomic energy

99.

How many members of SEBI should be from RBI?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

1

d)

2

100.

. A portion of the after‐tax profits paid out to the owners of a business as a return on their investment is:

a)

Dividend

b)

Expense

c)

Expenditure

d)

Deferred Income