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5th Grade-Final Quizizz

Total questions: 170

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How does the Earth move?

a)

It rotates on its axis.

b)

It does not move.

c)

It bounces.

2.

How long does it take for the Earth to make one orbit around the sun?

a)

2 weeks

b)

1 year or 365 days

c)

2 years

3.

Why don't we feel the Earth moving?

a)

It spins smoothly at the same speed and never stops turning.

b)

It is not moving at all.

c)

It only moves at night.

4.

What is an axis?

a)

The imaginary line through the center of the planet.

b)

The action of spinning around the center.

c)

A force that attracts a body to the center of the Earth.

5.

What does the vocabulary word orbit mean?

a)

An imaginary line through the center of the planet.

b)

A sloping or leaning position.

c)

One object travels in a path around another object.

6.

In the sentence below, what does the word rotate mean?


The Earth rotates on its axis to give us day and night.

a)

A sloping or leaning position.

b)

The action of spinning around an axis or center.

c)

A force that attracts a body to the center of the Earth.

7.

Approximately how long does it take from new moon to the next new moon?

a)

24 hourd

b)

365 days

c)

12 days

d)

28 days

8.

How long does it take the Earth to rotate once on its axis?

a)

24 days

b)

365 days

c)

24 hours

d)

28 days

9.

Sun appears to rise in the__________and set in the ________.

a)

West, East

b)

East, East

c)

East, West

d)

West, West

10.

Which of the following can be found on Earth but not on the moon?

a)

Water

b)

Atmosphere

c)

life

d)

All of the above

11.

The moon does not produce any light. Yet we can we see the moon in the sky. Why?

a)

Moon reflecting Earth's light

b)

Earth reflecting the Moon's light

c)

Moon reflecting the Sun's light

12.

What is the 6th planet from the Sun?

a)

Mercury

b)

Saturn

c)

Earth

d)

Venus

13.

Which planet is closer to the Sun?

a)

Earth

b)

Venus

c)

Saturn

d)

Neptune

14.
The Earth's tilt is _?_degrees.
a)
0
b)
90
c)
23.5
d)
41
15.
What would happen if the Earth's axis was tilted at a greater angle than it is now? 
a)
Days would be more than 24 hours.
b)
Days would be less than 24 hours.
c)
Hotter summers, colder winters
d)
More tilt would not make a difference.
16.
When the Northern Hemisphere of Earth is leaning away from the Sun, What season is the Southern Hemisphere experiencing?
a)
Summer
b)
Winter
c)
Spring
d)
Fall
17.
a celestial body orbiting around a planet or star.
a)
satellite
b)
sun
c)
moon
d)
crater
18.
a natural satellite that orbits a planet. 
a)
sun
b)
atmosphere
c)
moon
d)
craters
19.
The order of the planets is:
a)
Mars,Venus,Earth,
Mercury,Saturn
Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Earth,Venus,Mars
Jupiter, Neptune,
Mercury,Saturn,
Uranus
c)
Mercury,Venus,Earth
Mars,Jupiter,
Saturn,Uranus
Neptune
20.

Which planet could be referred to as a Gas Giant?

a)

Venus

b)

Mars

c)

Saturn

d)

Earth

21.
What is found in a belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter?
a)
asteroid
b)
comet
c)
meteor
22.
What divides the inner planets from the outer planets?
a)
Kuiper Belt
b)
Oort Cloud
c)
Asteroid Belt
23.
Name the moon phase
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
New Moon
d)
Full Moon
24.
Name the moon phase
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
New Moon
d)
Full Moon
25.
When the Earth is between the moon and sun, it is most likely a:
a)
new moon
b)
full moon
c)
waxing crescent
d)
waxing gibbous
26.
What does the word "lunar" mean?
a)
Related to the Moon
b)
Related to the Sun
c)
Related to the Earth
d)
Related to eclipses
27.
What does "waxing" mean?
a)
Become larger, stronger, brighter
b)
Become smaller, weaker, dimmer
c)
Rotate
d)
Revolve
28.
What is a "gibbous" shape?
a)
Half circle
b)
Less than half circle
c)
More than half circle
d)
Full circle
29.
From Earth, why do we always see the same side of the Moon?
a)
Moon doesn't rotate
b)
Earth's rotation is faster than Moon's
c)
Moon's rotation is same speed as its revolution
d)
Moon's rotation is faster than Earth's
30.
During a solar eclipse...
a)
The sun is blocked
b)
The Earth is blocked
31.
What type of eclipse is this?
a)
total lunar eclipse
b)
partial lunar eclipse
c)
total solar eclipse
d)
partial solar eclipse
32.
What type of eclipse is down in the diagram?
a)
Total lunar eclipse
b)
Partial lunar eclipse
c)
total solar eclipse
d)
partial solar eclipse
33.

What are the four inner planets?

a)

Earth, Uranus, Mercury, Venus

b)

Mercury Venus Earth Saturn

c)

Mars, Earth , Mercury, Venus

d)

Mars, Earth, Neptune, Mercury

34.

What are the outer planets?

a)

Jupiter, Saturn, Earth, Neptune

b)

Saturn, Neptune, Mars, Uranus

c)

Uranus, Saturn, Neptune, Jupiter

d)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

35.
Which planet is the largest?
a)
Jupiter
b)
Saturn
c)
Uranus
d)
Neptune
36.
Which is hotter: Venus or Mercury?
a)
Venus
b)
Mercury
c)
They are exactly the same.
d)
Sun
37.
What has NASA sent to Mars to roam around and take pictures?
a)
Rovers
b)
Dogs
c)
Pencils
d)
Humans
38.
Which planet rotates all the way on its side?
a)
Uranus
b)
Neptune
c)
Jupiter
d)
Earth
39.
Which planet is considered Earth's twin?
a)
Venus
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Mars
40.
Which planet spins the fastest?
a)
Jupiter
b)
the Sun
c)
Pluto
d)
Earth
41.
Which planet doesn't have a moon?
a)
Earth
b)
Mars
c)
Mercury
d)
Jupiter
42.
Which planet has the largest continuous hurricane?
a)
Earth
b)
Mars
c)
Jupiter
d)
Saturn
43.

Pluto is a..?

a)

Tiny planet

b)

Dwarf planet

c)

A planet

d)

Moon

44.

Why is Venus so hot?

a)

It's closest to the sun

b)

It was just made like that

c)

It has the thickest atmosphere

d)

It is pure fire

45.
Name the moon phase
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
46.
Name the phase of the moon for letter a
a)
First Quarter
b)
Last Quarter
c)
Waxing Gibbous
d)
Waning Gibbous
47.
Name the phase of the moon for letter f
a)
Waning Gibbous
b)
Waxing Gibbous
c)
Waning Crescent
d)
Waxing Crescent
48.
Which of the following words describe the phases of the moon?
a)
none, quarter, half, three quarters, full
b)
new, crescent, quarter, gibbous, full
c)
dark, light, half, quarter, blue
d)
first quarter, second quarter, third quarter, fourth quarter
49.
What is the difference between a gibbous moon and a crescent moon?
a)
The gibbous shows more than half of the bright side of the moon.
b)
The crescent shows more than half of the bright side of the moon.
c)
The gibbous shows less than half of the bright side of the moon. 
50.

Mercury, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn and Neptune spin counterclockwise. Which way does Venus spin?

a)

Clockwise

b)

Counterclockwise

c)

It doesn't spin

d)

Venus is fake

51.

Organisms that make their own food.

a)

producers

b)

consumers

c)

detritivores

52.

A simple model that shows how energy moves from the Sun, to a producer, to one or more consumers through feeding relationships.

a)

Food web

b)

Food chain

c)

Energy pyramid

53.

Which of the following is NOT a producer in this food web?

a)

grass

b)

shrub

c)

fungi

d)

tree

54.

The berries and plantain are best known as

a)

producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

decomposers

55.

How much energy is transferred from one organism to another?

a)

only 10%

b)

all of it, 100%

c)

only 50%

d)

20%

56.
An example of a decomposer is a _______.
a)
butterfly
b)
bear
c)
plant
d)
worm
57.
This is the ultimate source of energy on Earth.
a)
Heat
b)
Fire
c)
Electricity
d)
The sun
58.
A grasshopper that eats the seeds of a plant is considered to be a _____________.
a)
producer
b)
decomposer
c)
consumer
d)
predator
59.
A consumer at the top of a food chain is sometimes called ________.
a)
a producer
b)
an apex consumer
c)
a top consumer
d)
prey
60.

True or false: Ecosystems are made up of both living and non-living things.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

This process is used by Producers to create usable energy.

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

62.

Organisms that have to eat other organisms for energy because they are unable to create their own are called...

a)

Consumers

b)

Decomposers

c)

Producers

d)

Animals

63.

Who was the author of Declaration of Independence?

a)

Thomas Paine

b)

John Adams

c)

Richard Henry Lee

d)

Thomas Jefferson

64.

General Cornwallis surrendered at the Battle of:

a)

Fort Ticonderoga

b)

Saratoga

c)

Charlestown

d)

Yorktown

65.

People in the thirteen colonies who supported independence were called

a)

loyalists

b)

patriots

c)

tories

d)

pacifists

66.

Who was the first person to sign the Declaration of Independence?

a)

Thomas Jefferson

b)

John Adams

c)

John Hancock

d)

George Washington

67.

Which of these sentences is an opinion?

a)

Debate over the Declaration began on July 1, 1776.

b)

A person should not call a signature a "John Hancock".

c)

On July 4, 1776, Congress approved the Declaration of Independence

d)

The Declaration was copied on paper made of sheepskin.

68.

Who was King of Great Britain during the American Revolutionary Era?

a)

King George the III

b)

King Charles

c)

Queen Victoria

d)

King Julian

69.

What document was signed that ENDED the American Revolution?

a)

The Treaty of Paris

b)

The Declaration of Independence

c)

The Treaty of Alliance

d)

Second Continental Congress

70.

Who was chosen to lead the Continental Army?

a)

Patrick Henry

b)

George Washington

c)

John Hancock

d)

Samuel Adams

71.

Congress sent the "Olive Branch Petition" to King George. The petition asked the king to repeal his governing policies for the colonies. An olive branch is a symbol of:

a)

war

b)

peace

c)

encouragement

d)

anger

72.

How did the king react to the Olive Branch Petition?

a)

He agreed with the colonists

b)

He refused to read it

c)

He removed soldiers from the colonies

d)

He knew that a peaceful solution could be reached

73.

Which event/battle was considered a turning point in the Revolutionary War?

a)

Yorktown

b)

Trenton

c)

Valley Forge

d)

Saratoga

74.

Which of these events did NOT occur at the Battle of Yorktown?

a)

A blockade prevented British troops and supplies from arriving

b)

Armistead passed on British information to the Patriots

c)

General Cornwallis was victorious

d)

The French and the Patriot army surrounded the British

75.

Many women in the Revolutionary War...

a)

nursed fallen soldiers

b)

cooked meals

c)

fought in battles

d)

made maps

e)

all of these answers

76.

Winter at Valley Forge was a cold battle in which the British and American forces continually fought.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

During the winter at Valley Forge, Washington set up headquarters in Valley Forge, PA, but food and supplies were in short supply.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

December 25, 1776 was when Washington and his men crossed the Delaware River and marched 9 miles to Trenton, NJ.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

After crossing the Delaware River, Washington was not victorious. The Hessians captured the Patriot troops.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Who said, "Give me liberty or give me death."?

a)

Patrick Henry

b)

Nathan Hale

c)

Thomas Jefferson

d)

George Washington

81.

Match the word to the correct definition: BLOCKADE

a)

professional soldiers

b)

a group of soldiers

c)

using ships to prevent passage of people or supplies from a port

d)

working against one's own country

82.

Match the people to the description: PATRIOT

a)

supported the Revolution

b)

supported the King

c)

Member of the Continental Congress

83.

Match the date with the events: July 4, 1776

a)

Congress approved the Declaration of Independence

b)

Boston Tea Party

c)

Boston Massacre

d)

French and Indian War

84.

An advantage for the Americans was that the soldiers only signed up for 6 months.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

A disadvantage for the Americans was that they lacked uniforms.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

An advantage for the Americans was that the citizens made musket balls and the farmers gave them food.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

A disadvantage for the Americans was that they had a difficult time getting soldiers and supplies across the ocean

a)

True

b)

False

88.

An advantage for the British was that they had at least 60,000 soldiers

a)

True

b)

False

89.

A disadvantage for the British was that they were trained to fight in open battle fields.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

An advantage for the British was that they had red uniforms and were easy to spot.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

A disadvantage for the British was some British didn't support the war since it raised taxes

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Match the law to the description: STAMP ACT

a)

Colonists could only buy sugar and molasses from England

b)

Colonists must pay a tax on all paper goods including playing cards

c)

Colonists must house and feed British soldiers

d)

Colonists could not settle west of the Appalachian mountains

93.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
94.
A relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is unharmed...
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
95.
A tapeworm and a cat have this type of relationship.
a)
mutualism
b)
parasitism
c)
commensalism
d)
competition
96.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
97.
What type of symbiosis?  Skunks often live in burrows that have been dug and abandoned by woodchucks.  
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
98.
Which symbols best describe parasitism?
a)
+,+
b)
+,-
c)
+,0
d)
-,0
99.
Red-billed oxpeckers are birds that often feed on parasites that infest impala.  This is an example of _______.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
neutralism
d)
competition
100.
A relationship between two organisms in which both organisms benefit. 
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
101.
When a mosquito bites you, you are the __________ and the mosquito is the  ____________.
a)
host, hostess
b)
parasite, host
c)
host, parasite
d)
prey, predator
102.

Aphids are tiny insects that live on and eat the leaves of plants, removing vital nutrients from the plants.

a)

Predation

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Mutualism

103.
An organism that is killed and eaten by another organism
a)
Predator
b)
Prey
c)
Competition
d)
Adaptation
104.
a)
Parasitism
b)
Mutualism  
c)
Commensalism 
d)
Predation
105.
a)
Parasitism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Commensalism
d)
Predation
106.
Different species are most likely to compete for resources in an ecosystem if both species attempt to –
a)
occupy the same niche.
b)
successfully reproduce.
c)
live in different habitats.         
d)
find different food sources.   
107.
Ticks will feed on a deer’s blood and harm the deer.
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
108.

One organism hunts and eats another organism.

a)

predation

b)

mutualism

c)

carnivore

d)

parasitism

109.

When different species live together.

a)

symbiosis

b)

habitat

c)

competiton

d)

predation

110.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all  _____  parts of the environment
a)
alive
b)
biotic 
c)
abiotic
d)
living
111.
Barn owls hunt shrews. In this example what is a barn owl?
a)
Herbivore/Predator
b)
Carnivore/Prey
c)
Carnivore/Predator
112.
Which of these is NOT a state of matter?
a)
magma
b)
solid
c)
gas
d)
liquid
113.
What is matter made of?
a)
liquid
b)
gas
c)
energy
d)
particles
114.
How can we explain that 500 mL of water + 500 mL of alcohol equals only 970 mL?
a)
there is space in between the particles
b)
particles get smaller when mixed
c)
particles join together when mixed
d)
none of the above
115.
Why can't particles of matter be seen?
a)
transparent
b)
tiny
c)
both of these
d)
none of these
116.
A soccer ball deflates in the cold because particles of matter ___________.
a)
move closer together
b)
move further apart
c)
change from gas to liquid
d)
change from liquid to gas
117.
What do the particles of air inside the balloon do when the air around it is removed?
a)
spread out
b)
come together
c)
grow smaller
d)
grow larger
118.
What makes Zoe's fizzy tablet rocket work?
a)
increasing temperature
b)
buildup of gas particles
c)
gas particles growing larger in size
d)
decreasing temperature
119.
How many times smaller than the width of a human hair is one particle?
a)
10x
b)
100x
c)
1,000x
d)
100,000x
120.
Which of these are true of all matter?
a)
takes up space
b)
has weight
c)
both of these
d)
neither apply to all matter
121.
In a gas, all particles of matter move freely around and do what?
a)
constantly expand
b)
warm up
c)
take the shape of their containers
d)
rise up
122.

Matter must have weight and _________.

a)

be visible

b)

take up space

c)

be a solid

d)

all of these

123.

If 25 grams of sugar dissolves into 150 grams of water, what is the new weight of the liquid?

a)

125 g

b)

150 g

c)

25 g

d)

175 g

124.

What evidence was found for conservation of matter in the fire snake demo?

a)

looked the same before and after

b)

about the same weight before and after

c)

smelled the same before and after

d)

matter was not conserved

125.

The fire snake weighed slightly less after it burned. Where did that matter go?

a)

disappeared

b)

burned up

c)

escaped as gas

d)

soaked into sand

126.

Why does the weight of the dry ice go down while it's sitting on the scale?

a)

it's melting

b)

it's disappearing

c)

turning into a gas

d)

none of these

127.

As the balloon collects gas, what happens to the weight reading on the scale?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

d)

goes to zero

128.

As this candle burns it gets shorter. Where does the wax go?

a)

wax goes into the air

b)

disappears

c)

melts into the candle

d)

burns and releases gases into the air

129.

What makes cinnamon rolls get bigger when you bake them?

a)

more matter

b)

gas bubbles get smaller

c)

more energy

d)

gas bubbles get larger

130.

Where did Zoe's flash paper go when it disappeared?

a)

converted to gas

b)

converted into pure energy

c)

into the candle

d)

she hid it in her hand

131.

If you could weigh a sealed air bag before and after it inflates, the weight would do what?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

go to zero

d)

stay the same

132.

Why is a balloon with air in it heavier than a balloon without air?

a)

It's larger

b)

It takes up more space

c)

It has matter in it

d)

None of the above

133.

Which of these is matter?

a)

energy

b)

air

c)

peace

d)

love

134.

Which property did Zoe use to identify these two metals?

a)

soluability

b)

color

c)

density

d)

magnetism

135.

Which of these is LESS dense than air?

a)

styrofoam

b)

sodium hexafluoride

c)

helium

d)

wood

136.

Which property of matter did the team use to figure out which gas was which?

a)

conductivity

b)

magnetism

c)

solubility

d)

density

137.

What property of matter did the team use to figure out which clear liquid was which?

a)

density

b)

solubility

c)

conductivity

d)

magnetism

138.

____________ is the property that tells us how well something dissolves.

a)

liquidness

b)

density

c)

dissolvability

d)

solubility

139.

What is causing the Styrofoam to disappear?

a)

density

b)

trapped gas escaping

c)

chemical reaction

d)

none of these

140.

How did Charlotte make slime with magnetic properties?

a)

aluminum powder

b)

iron powder

c)

sodium powder

d)

ink powder

141.

What property of plastic makes it a good choice for the pot handle?

a)

It is conductive

b)

It is not conductive

c)

solubility

d)

density

142.
The part of Earth’s ecosystem that contains all the water:
a)
Atmosphere
b)
Biosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Lithosphere
143.
The part of Earth’s ecosystem that contains all plants and animals:
a)
Atmosphere
b)
Biosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Lithosphere
144.

What percentage of Earth’s water is located in OCEANS:

a)

3%

b)

50%

c)

71%

d)

97%

145.

ATMOSPHERE

a)

IT HAS SOIL

b)

IT HAS WATER

c)

IT HAS LIVING THINGS

d)

IT HAS AIR

146.

(_______________)- Land (Earth's core, mantle, mountains, sand, metals)

a)

Geosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere

147.

(_______________)- Water (oceans, lakes, rivers, groundwater, glaciers)

a)

Geosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere

148.

(_______________)- Air (oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, zone, wind)

a)

Geosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere

149.

(_______________)- Life (plants, animals, insects, humans)

a)

Geosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere

150.

The Biosphere is......

a)

Gas

b)

Life

c)

Rocks

d)

Magma

151.

The Atmosphere is......

a)

Density

b)

Water

c)

Air

d)

Dirt

152.

The Hydrosphere is.......

a)

Water

b)

Air

c)

Life

d)

All of the above

153.

The Geosphere is.......

a)

Water

b)

Rock

c)

Magma

d)

Hair

154.

What percentage of earth's water is DRINKABLE FRESH WATER???

a)

3%

b)

97%

c)

100%

d)

150%

155.
Why are plants called producers?
a)
They make carbon dioxide
b)
They decompose
c)

They make or produce their own food

d)
They are omnivores
156.
What is the process in which plants use sunlight to create energy?
a)
Photography
b)
Pennsylvania
c)
Cholorophyll
d)
Photosynthesis
157.
All animals are...
a)
producers
b)
consumers
c)
carnivores
d)
omnivores
158.
Living things that eat other living things are called...
a)
Consumers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Omnivores
d)
Animals
159.
What do decomposers eat?
a)
only plants
b)
plants and animals
c)
only other animals
d)
dead organisms
160.
What are fungi?
a)
really fun dudes
b)
mushrooms
c)
algae
d)
moss
161.

I am the chef for the ecosystem because I am the only organism that can make my own food.

a)

consumer

b)

producer

c)

decomposer

162.

I rely on eating other organisms for the energy I need to function since I can not make my own food.

a)

consumer

b)

producer

c)

decomposer

163.

I am Mother Nature's recycler because I take dead things and turn them back into soil.

a)

consumer

b)

producer

c)

decomposer

164.

Which part of the Engineer Design Process must happen FIRST?

a)

Imagine

b)

Plan

c)

Ask

165.

WHich part of the EDP is the step where you realize you may have to start the whole process over again?

a)

test/improve

b)

create

c)

plan

166.

You and a partner should be drawing pics and diagrams in which part of the EDP?

a)

plan

b)

imagine

c)

create

167.

The part of the EDP where you BUILD, BUILD, BUILD is where you _____.

a)

ask

b)

plan

c)

create

168.

The guidelines or directions that must be followed when solving a problem are?

a)

Criteria

b)

Prototypes

c)

Research

d)

Constraints

169.

A collection of information that we can sort and use to understand things is?

a)

Model

b)

Variable

c)

Solution

d)

Data

170.

The steps that engineers take to solve problems which include: ask, imagine, plant, create, test, improve are called?

a)

The Scientific Method

b)

The Engineering Design Process

c)

The Science Project

d)

Mrs. McMahan and Ms. Hedgespeth's Problem Solving

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