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Worksheets

Modules 1 – 3

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 4hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)
  • DoS attack​

b)
  • identity theft

c)
  • spyware

d)
  • zero-day attack

2.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

a)
  • Internet

b)
  • intranet

c)
  • extendednet

d)
  • extranet

3.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)
  • cloud computing

b)
  • bring your own device

c)
  • online collaboration

d)
  • video conferencing

4.

What is an ISP?

a)
  • It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

b)
  • It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

c)
  • It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

d)
  • It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

5.

An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?

a)
  • the Internet

b)
  • an extranet

c)
  • a local area network

d)

an intranet

6.

Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

a)
  • New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

b)
  • A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

c)

A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.

d)

Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN

7.

A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical clinic. The technician accidentally sets up the wireless network so that patients can see the medical records data of other patients. Which of the four network characteristics has been violated in this situation?

a)
  • reliability

b)
  • fault tolerance

c)
  • scalability

d)
  • Quality of Service (QoS)

e)

security

8.

What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)

a)
  • the types of data that need to be prioritized

b)
  • the cost of the end devices utilized in the network

c)

the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal

d)
  • the number of intermediate devices installed in the network

e)

the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

9.

What type of network traffic requires QoS?

a)
  • email

b)
  • on-line purchasing

c)
  • video conferencing

d)
  • wiki

10.

A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • implementing a firewall

b)
  • installing a wireless network

c)
  • installing antivirus software

d)
  • implementing an intrusion detection system

e)
  • adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

11.

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

a)

VTY interface

b)

console interface

c)
  • Ethernet interface

d)
  • boot IOS mode

e)
  • privileged EXEC mode

12.

Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

a)
  • the AUX interface

b)
  • the console port interface

c)

the switch virtual interface

d)
  • the first Ethernet port interface

13.

What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

a)
  • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

b)
  • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.

c)
  • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.

d)

It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

14.

While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?

a)
  • Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.

b)
  • Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.

c)
  • Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.

d)
  • Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.

15.

An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

a)
  • to restart the ping process

b)
  • to interrupt the ping process

c)
  • to exit to a different configuration mode

d)
  • to allow the user to complete the command

16.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

a)
  • letmein

b)
  • secretin


c)

lineconin

d)
  • linevtyin

17.

A technician configures a switch with these commands:

a)
  • Telnet access

b)

SVI

c)
  • password encryption

d)
  • physical switchport access

18.

Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

a)
  • end

b)

exit

c)
  • Ctrl-Z

d)

  • Ctrl-C

19.

What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

a)
  • RAM provides nonvolatile storage.

b)

The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.

c)

The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.

d)
  • RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.

e)
  • RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

20.

Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Branch2!

b)

SwBranch799

c)
  • Floor(15)

d)
  • HO Floor 17

e)

RM-3-Switch-2A4

21.

How is SSH different from Telnet?

a)
  • SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.

b)
  • SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.

c)
  • SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.

d)
  • SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a device from a console connection.

22.

What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)

a)
  • It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.

b)
  • It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.

c)
  • It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.

d)
  • It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.

e)
  • It is associated with VLAN1 by default.

23.

What command is used to verify the condition of the switch interfaces, including the status of the interfaces and a configured IP address?

a)

ipconfig

b)
  • ping

c)
  • traceroute

d)

show ip interface brief

24.

In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax is represented by running-config ?

a)
  • the command

b)

a keyword

c)
  • a variable

d)
  • a prompt

25.

After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

a)
  • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

b)

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted

c)
  • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

d)
  • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

26.

What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file?

a)

(config)# service password-encryption

b)
  • (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password

c)
  • (config-line)# password secret

d)
  • (config)# enable secret Secret_Password

e)
  • (config)# enable password secret

27.

A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

a)
  • This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

b)
  • This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.


c)
  • This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

d)
  • This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

e)
  • This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router maintenance.

28.

What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?

a)
  • encapsulation

b)
  • flow control

c)
  • access method

d)
  • response timeout

29.

Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?

a)
  • Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.


b)
  • Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.

c)
  • Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.

d)
  • Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.

30.

What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

a)
  • ARP

b)

DHSP

c)

DNS

d)

FTP

e)

PPP

31.

Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

a)
  • bits

b)
  • data

c)
  • frame

d)
  • packet

e)

segment

32.

When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?

a)
  • DNS server address

b)
  • subnet mask

c)
  • default gateway

d)
  • DHCP server address

33.

What process involves placing one PDU inside of another PDU?

a)
  • encapsulation

b)
  • encoding

c)
  • segmentation

d)
  • flow control

34.

What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?

a)

internet

b)
  • transport

c)

network access

d)
  • session

35.

Which method allows a computer to react accordingly when it requests data from a server and the server takes too long to respond?

a)
  • encapsulation

b)
  • flow control

c)
  • access method

d)
  • response timeout

36.

A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to decode the received transmission?

a)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

b)
  • HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

c)
  • Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

d)
  • HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP

37.

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

a)
  • data link

b)
  • network

c)
  • session

d)
  • transport

e)

physical

38.

At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation?

a)
  • physical layer

b)
  • data link layer

c)
  • network layer

d)
  • transport layer

39.

What is a characteristic of multicast messages?

a)
  • They are sent to a select group of hosts.

b)
  • They are sent to all hosts on a network.

c)
  • They must be acknowledged.

d)
  • They are sent to a single destination.

40.

Which statement is correct about network protocols?

a)
  • Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.

b)
  • They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

c)
  • They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.

d)
  • They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.

41.

What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

a)
  • Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor.

b)
  • A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data.

c)
  • Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.

d)
  • Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.

42.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a)

a router

b)
  • a firewall

c)
  • a web server

d)
  • a DSL modem

43.

Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

a)
  • to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

b)
  • to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

c)
  • to enable the switch to be managed remotely

d)
  • to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

44.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

a)
  • The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

b)
  • The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

c)
  • The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

d)
  • The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

45.

What term describes a network owned by one organization that provides safe and secure access to individuals who work for a different organization?

a)
  • extranet

b)
  • cloud

c)
  • BYOD

d)
  • quality of service

46.

What term describes storing personal files on servers over the internet to provide access anywhere, anytime, and on any device?

a)

cloud

b)
  • BYOD

c)
  • quality of service

d)
  • converged network

47.

What term describes a network where one computer can be both client and server?

a)
  • peer-to-peer

b)
  • cloud

c)
  • BYOD

d)
  • quality of service

48.

What term describes a type of network used by people who work from home or from a small remote office?

a)
  • BYOD

b)
  • SOHO network

c)
  • quality of service

d)
  • converged network

49.

What term describes a computing model where server software runs on dedicated computers?

a)
  • internet

b)
  • intranet

c)

client/server

d)
  • extranet

50.

What term describes a technology that allows devices to connect to the LAN using an electrical outlet?

a)
  • powerline networking

b)
  • internet

c)
  • intranet

d)
  • extranet

51.

What term describes a policy that allows network devices to manage the flow of data to give priority to voice and video?

a)
  • intranet

b)
  • internet

c)
  • quality of service

d)
  • extranet

52.

What term describes a private collection of LANs and WANs that belongs to an organization?

a)

intranet

b)
  • internet

c)
  • extranet

d)
  • peer-to-peer

53.

What term describes the ability to use personal devices across a business or campus network?

a)
  • internet

b)
  • intranet

c)
  • extranet

d)

BYOD

54.

At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)
  • network layer

b)
  • data link layer

c)
  • transport layer

d)
  • application layer

55.

At which OSI layer is a destination port number added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)
  • transport layer

b)
  • data link layer

c)
  • network layer

d)
  • application layer

56.

At which OSI layer is data added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)
  • data link layer

b)
  • network layer

c)
  • application layer

d)
  • transport layer

57.

At which OSI layer is a source IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)
  • application layer

b)
  • presentation layer

c)
  • data link layer

d)
  • network layer

58.

Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?

a)
  • Host

b)
  • Servers

c)
  • media

d)

  • Intermediary device

59.

At which OSI layer is a destination IP address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)
  • transport layer

b)
  • application layer

c)
  • network layer

d)
  • presentation layer

60.

At which OSI layer is a source MAC address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)
  • presentation layer

b)
  • transport layer

c)
  • application layer

d)
  • data link layer

61.

At which OSI layer is a source port number added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)
  • transport layer

b)
  • application layer

c)
  • network layer

d)
  • presentation layer

e)
  • data link layer

62.

At which OSI layer is a destination MAC address added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)
  • application layer

b)
  • transport layer

c)
  • data link layer

d)
  • network layer

63.

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

a)
  • Wireless

b)

fire optic cable

c)
  • Copper cable

64.

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)
  • Host

b)
  • Servers

c)

Router

d)

Switch

65.

Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?

a)
  • servers

b)
  • intermediary devices

c)
  • media

d)

hosts

66.

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

a)
  • wireless

b)
  • Fiber-optic cable

c)
  • copper cable

67.

Which connection physically connects the end device to the network?

a)
  • Port

b)
  • NIC

c)

Interface

68.

Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks?

a)
  • Port

b)
  • NIC

c)
  • Interface

69.

Which type of network topology lets you see which end devices are connected to which intermediary devices and what media is being used?

a)
  • Physical topology

b)
  • Logical topology

70.

Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation?

a)

Physical topology

b)
  • Logical topology

71.

Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?

a)
  • Extranet

b)
  • Intranet

c)
  • LAN

d)
  • WAN

72.

Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to the organization’s data?

a)
  • Extranet

b)
  • Intranet

c)
  • LAN

d)
  • WAN

73.

Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provider?

a)
  • Extranet

b)
  • Intranet

c)
  • LAN

d)
  • WAN

74.

When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved?

a)
  • fault tolerance

b)
  • Scalability

c)
  • QoS

d)
  • Security

75.

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture?

a)
  • fault tolerance

b)
  • Scalability

c)
  • QoS

d)
  • Security

76.

With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?

a)
  • fault tolerance

b)
  • Scalability

c)
  • QoS

d)
  • Security

77.

Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is an example of which characteristic of network architecture?

a)
  • fault tolerance

b)
  • Scalability

c)
  • QoS

d)
  • Security

78.

Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?

a)
  • BYOD

b)
  • Video communications

c)
  • Cloud computing

79.

Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network?

a)
  • BYOD

b)
  • Video communications

c)
  • Cloud computing

80.

Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom and Hybrid?

a)
  • BYOD

b)
  • Video communications

c)
  • Cloud computing

81.

Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an electrical outlet?

a)
  • Smart home technology

b)
  • Powerline

c)
  • Wireless broadband

82.

Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smart phone?

a)
  • Smart home technology

b)
  • Powerline

c)
  • Wireless broadband

83.

Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and programs?

a)
  • Firewall

b)
  • Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)
  • Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)
  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)
  • Denial of Service (DoS)

84.

Which option creates a secure connection for remote workers?

a)
  • Firewall

b)
  • Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)
  • Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)
  • Denial of Service (DoS)

85.

Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network?

a)
  • Firewall

b)
  • Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)
  • Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)
  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

86.

Which option describes a network attack that occurs on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known?

a)
  • Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

b)
  • Zero-day or Zero-hour

c)
  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

d)
  • Denial of Service (DoS)

e)
  • Firewall

87.

Which option describes malicious code running on user devices?

a)
  • Firewall

b)
  • Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

c)
  • Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)
  • Virtual Private Network (VPN)

e)
  • Denial of Service (DoS)

88.

Which access method would be most appropriate if you were in the equipment room with a new switch that needs to be configured?

a)
  • Console

b)
  • Telnet/SSH

c)
  • Aux

89.

Which access method would be most appropriate if your manager gave you a special cable and told you to use it to configure the switch?

a)
  • Console

b)
  • Telnet/SSH

c)
  • Aux

90.

Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?

a)
  • Console

b)
  • Telnet/SSH

c)
  • Aux

91.

Which access method would be the most appropriate if you call your manager to tell him you cannot access your router in another city over the internet and he provides you with the information to access the router through a telephone connection?

a)
  • Console

b)
  • Telnet/SSH

c)
  • Aux

92.

Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?

a)
  • global configuration mode

b)

interface subconfiguration mode

c)
  • line console subconfiguration mode

d)
  • privileged EXEC mode

e)
  • user EXEC mode

93.

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?

a)
  • global configuration mode

b)
  • interface subconfiguration mode

c)

line console subconfiguration mode

d)
  • privileged EXEC mode

e)
  • user EXEC mode

94.

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is displayed?

a)
  • global configuration mode

b)
  • interface subconfiguration mode

c)
  • privileged EXEC mode

d)
  • line console subconfiguration mode

e)
  • user EXEC mode

95.

Which two commands would return you to the privileged EXEC prompt regardless of the configuration mode you are in? (Choose two.)

a)
  • CTRL+Z

b)
  • disable

c)
  • enable

d)
  • end

e)
  • exit

96.

What is the command to assign the name “Sw-Floor-2” to a switch?

a)
  • hostname Sw-Floor-2

b)
  • host name Sw-Floor-2

c)
  • name Sw-Floor-2

97.

How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?

a)
  • enable class

b)
  • secret class

c)
  • enable secret class

d)
  • service password-encryption

98.

Which command enables password authentication for user EXEC mode access on a switch?

a)
  • enable secret

b)
  • login

c)
  • secret

d)
  • service password-encryption

99.

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access on a switch?

a)
  • enable secret

b)
  • secret

c)
  • login

d)
  • service password-encryption

100.

Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?

a)
  • banner $ Keep out $

b)
  • banner motd $ Keep out $

c)
  • display $ Keep out $

d)
  • login banner $ Keep out $

101.

What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?

a)
  • dotted-binary format

b)
  • dotted-decimal format

c)
  • dotted-hexadecimal format

102.

How is an IPv4 address represented?

a)

four binary numbers between 0 and 1 separated by colons

b)
  • four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated by periods

c)
  • thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by colons

d)

thirty-two hexadecimal numbers separated by periods

103.

What type of interface has no physical port associated with it?

a)
  • console

b)
  • Ethernet

c)
  • serial

d)
  • switch virtual interface (SVI)

104.

What is the process of converting information into the proper form for transmission?

a)
  • Formatting

b)
  • Encoding

c)
  • Encapsulation

105.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?

a)
  • Formatting

b)
  • Encoding

c)
  • Encapsulation

106.

Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three.)

a)
  • Flow control

b)
  • Sequence numbers

c)
  • Access method

d)
  • Retransmit time

e)
  • Response timeout

107.

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?

a)
  • Unicast

b)
  • Multicast

c)
  • Broadcast

108.

BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?

a)
  • network communication

b)
  • network security

c)
  • routing

d)
  • service discovery

109.

What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communication?

a)
  • to uniquely label transmitted segments of data for proper reassembly by the receiver

b)

to determine if data is corrupted during transmission

c)
  • to ensure data flows at an efficient rate between sender and receiver

d)
  • to guarantee delivery of data

110.

This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information.

a)
  • TCP

b)
  • IP

c)
  • HTTP

d)
  • Ethernet

111.

UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?

a)
  • application

b)
  • transport

c)
  • internet

d)
  • network access

112.

Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer?

a)
  • EIGRP

b)
  • DNS

c)
  • OSPF

d)
  • ICMP

e)
  • DHCP

113.

Which protocol operates at the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?

a)
  • HTTP

b)
  • IP

c)
  • DNS

d)
  • Ethernet

114.

Which of the following are protocols that provide feedback from the destination host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery? (Choose two.)

a)
  • IPv4

b)
  • TCP

c)
  • ICMPv4

d)
  • IPv6

e)
  • ICMPv6

115.

A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the receiving device?

a)
  • HTTP at the application layer

b)
  • HTML at the application layer

c)
  • IP at the internet layer

d)
  • UDP at the internet layer

e)
  • TCP at the transport layer

116.

Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

a)
  • File Transfer

b)
  • Address Resolution

c)
  • Routing Protocols

d)
  • Messaging

e)
  • Internet Protocol

117.

True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.

a)
  • True

b)
  • False

118.

This standards organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones

a)
  • Internet Society (ISOC)

b)
  • Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

c)
  • Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

d)
  • Internet Research Task Force (IRTF)

119.

This standards organization is responsible for IP address allocation and domain name management.

a)
  • Internet Society (ISOC)

b)
  • Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

c)
  • Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

d)
  • Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

120.

What types of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA)?

a)
  • electric wiring and connectors

b)
  • radio equipment and cell towers

c)
  • video compression and broadband communications

d)
  • Voice over IP (VoIP) and satellite communications

121.

What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission?

a)
  • sequencing

b)
  • duplexing

c)
  • multiplexing

d)
  • segmentation

122.

Which protocol stack layer encapsulates data into frames?

a)
  • data link

b)
  • transport

c)
  • network

d)
  • application

123.

What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack?

a)
  • de-encapsulation

b)
  • segmentation

c)
  • sequencing

d)
  • encapsulation

124.

True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in different IP networks must be forwarded to a default gateway.

a)
  • True

b)
  • False

125.

True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used to identify the network that a device belongs to.

a)

True

b)
  • False

126.

Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link layer addresses? (Choose three.)

a)
  • Data link layer addresses are logical and network layer addresses are physical.

b)
  • Network layer addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits and data link layer addresses are decimal.

c)
  • Data link layer addresses are physical and network layer addresses are logical.

d)
  • Network layer addresses are logical and data link addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.

e)
  • Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.

127.

What is the order of the two addresses in the data link frame?

a)
  • source MAC, destination MAC

b)
  • destination MAC, source IP

c)
  • destination IP, source IP

d)
  • destination MAC, source MAC

e)
  • source IP, destination IP

128.

True or False? Data Link addresses are physical so they never change in the data link frame from source to destination.

a)
  • True

b)
  • False