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Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Each ART has its own PI planning
a)
true
b)
false
2.
Each team in the ART plans independently of the ART
a)
true
b)
false
3.
Completed program board is an output of the PI planning
a)
true
b)
false
4.
Uncommitted objectives are extra things the teams do if they get time
a)
true
b)
false
5.
During the PI planning event, all iterations are fully planned
a)
true
b)
false
c)
Could be planned partially
6.
Entire team is part of the management review
a)
true
b)
false
7.
Risks are
a)
Resolved
b)
Transferred
c)
Owned
d)
Accepted
e)
Mitigated
8.
Accepted risks have
a)
Mitigation plan
b)
Contingency plan
9.
Management review can change which of the following
a)
Priorities
b)
Vision
c)
Teams<br />
d)
ARTs
10.
Business value is not assigned to uncommitted objectives
a)
true
b)
false
11.
ART Sync has the following participants
a)
SM, PO
b)
SM, PO, PM, RTE
c)
Architect, System team
d)
Architect, Dev Team
e)
Entire ART
12.
System demo happens along with iteration demo
a)
true
b)
false
c)
It can happen
13.
System Architect facilitates the system demo
a)
true
b)
false
14.
PO/PM leads the system demo
a)
true
b)
false
15.
Teams commit to delivering stories during the IP iteration<br />
a)
true
b)
false
16.
Teams cannot deliver work increments during the IP iteration<br />
a)
true
b)
false
17.
I & A workshop consists of the following
a)
Quantitative & Qualitative measurements
b)
System Demo
c)
Planning meetings
d)
ART Retrospectives
18.
Techniques used during the problem solving workshops
a)
Fishbone
b)
5 Whys
c)
Pareto
d)
Brainstorming
19.
Features have
a)
Acceptance Criteria
b)
Success Criteria
20.
Features have to be delivered in within a PI
a)
true
b)
false
21.
If a story is not in team backlog
a)
It might be delivered
b)
It will not be delivered
22.
Enabler stories & user stores are the same
a)
false
b)
true
23.
Personnas do not impact user stories
a)
false
b)
true
24.
A user story should meet which of the following to be considered a good story
a)
Independent
b)
Valuable
c)
Large
d)
Testable<br />
25.
3Cs of a User story are
a)
Card
b)
Confirmation
c)
Conversation
d)
Conduction
26.
Spikes are _____ type of user stories
a)
Infrastructure
b)
Exploratory
c)
Compliance
d)
Business
27.
Stories can be split using
a)
Business rules
b)
Work flow steps
c)
Technology<br />
d)
Layer
28.
Story prioritization is done by
a)
PO alone
b)
SM alone
c)
PO & SM
d)
PO, SM and the team
29.
Story prioritization takes into account
a)
Feature Priorities
b)
Capacity allocation
c)
Dependencies
d)
Acceptance criteria
e)
EPIC success factors
30.
End result of iteration planning is
a)
Iteration Goals
b)
Prioritized Backlog
c)
Both of the above
d)
None of the above
31.
Capacity allocation takes into account
a)
User Stories
b)
Refactors
c)
Enablers
d)
Spikes
e)
Capabilities
32.
A Partial PO contributes to team's availabile capacity
a)
true
b)
false
33.
Story points assigned to a enabler story represents
a)
Volume
b)
Complexity
c)
Uncertainity
d)
Availability
e)
Priority
34.
User story estimation can be done only by the architect
a)
true
b)
false
35.
Iteration goals provide
a)
Alignment
b)
Clarity
c)
Commitment
36.

What is Scaled Agile ?

a)

Framework

b)

Methodology

c)

Guide

d)

Other

37.

The Customer is the ___ of your product strategy?

a)

Not part of

b)

Partial

c)

center

d)

Not Applicable

38.

What are the 4 pillars of SAFe House of Lean Leadership?

a)

Respect for People and Culture

b)

Flow

c)

Innovation

d)

Relentless Improvement© Scaled

e)

Responding to Change

39.

Which of the following is part of Agile Manifesto ?

a)

Process and tools over individuals and interactions

b)

Working software over comprehensive documentation

c)

Responding to change over following a plan

d)

Contract negotiation over customer collaboration

40.

Scrum is built on which of the following?

a)

Inspection, Adaptation, and Short learning cycles.

b)

Transparency, Inspection, Alignment, and short learning cycles.

c)

Transparency, Communication, Adaptation, and Short learning cycles.

d)

Transparency, Inspection, Adaptation, and short learning cycles.

41.
WIP Limits can be applied to a combination of stages in the Kanban board
a)
true
b)
false
42.
Architectural runway is extended by user stories
a)
true
b)
false
43.
SAFE approach for DevOps is
a)
Culture, Automation, Lean, Measure, Recover
b)
Culture, Lean, Measure, Automation, Recover
c)
Lean, Culture, Measure, Automation, Recover
44.

Three parts of Continuous Delivery pipeline are

a)

Continuous Exploration

b)

Continuous Integration

c)

Continuous Deployment

d)

Continuous Release

45.
Release is the same as deployment
a)
true
b)
false
46.
SAFe does not recommend use of toggles to release to a small set of users
a)
true
b)
false
47.

Tagline of SAFe when it comes to continuous delivery pipeline is

a)

Develop on cadence. Release on demand

b)

Release on cadence, develop on demand

c)

Release periodically

d)

Twice a year releases

48.
Daily Stand up is a meeting where everyone talks about the progress they made during the last week
a)
true
b)
false
49.
Daily Stand up is a ceremony to highlight the impediments
a)
true
b)
false
50.
Backlog refinement happens only before PI planning
a)
true
b)
false
51.

Teams cannot make changes to stories during backlog refinement

a)

true

b)

false

52.

Teams cannot change priorities during story grooming sessions

a)

true

b)

false

53.
Backlog refinement helps team identify dependencies
a)
true
b)
false
54.
In iteration review teams only demonstrate user stories
a)
true
b)
false
55.
A spike is a enabler story
a)
true
b)
false
56.
PI objectives are not reviewed at iteration review
a)
true
b)
false
57.
Team presents the metrics during the iteration retrospective
a)
true
b)
false
58.
Iteration retro output is sent to the Program backlog
a)
true
b)
false
59.
Separate Definition of Done can be for team & system increment
a)
true
b)
false
60.
Which statement is true about work in process (WIP) limits?
a)
Higher WIP limits provide richer feedback
b)
Higher WIP limits result in lower utilization
c)
Lower WIP limits result in fewer Stories being completed
d)
Lower WIP limits improve flow
61.
Why do Lean-Agile leaders try to connect the silos of business, system engineering, hardware, software, test, and quality assurance?
a)
To optimize vertical communication
b)
To align around value
c)
To enforce organizational boundaries between functions
d)
To allow friction between the teams
62.
What is the goal of the SAFe House of Lean model?
a)
Innovation
b)
Relentless Improvement
c)
Flow
d)
Value
63.
Which statement is true about the PI Planning event?
a)
It involves program Portfolio Management to prioritize the Stories presented by teams during the final plan review
b)
It involves everyone in the program over a two-day period
c)
It involves Product Management and Product Owners on the first day and the rest of the teams on the second day
d)
It involves only the team members who are most qualified to estimate the work
64.
Which activity is key to successfully implementing the Scaled Agile Framework?
a)
Remove blocks such as portfolio estimation
b)
Replace the PI Planning process with the Inspect and Adapt workshop when possible
c)
Use a cadence-based PI Planning process
d)
Use the Innovation and Planning Iteration instead of the PI Planning process
65.
What is the benefit of separating release elements from the Solution?
a)
It allows Agile Teams to launch untested Features
b)
It allows the release of different Solution elements at different times
c)
It allows the Systems Team to integrate with ease
d)
It allows the Agile Release Train to demo value every two weeks
66.
An Agile Team collects the Iteration Metrics they have agreed upon during which part of the team retrospective?
a)
During the quantitative part of the team retrospective
b)
During the Features agreement retrospective
c)
During the time and materials retrospective
d)
During the qualitative part of the team retrospective
67.
Which factor helps unlock the intrinsic motivation of knowledge workers?
a)
Team performance incentives
b)
Pay-for-performance
c)
Parallel development
d)
Autonomy
68.
How does relentless improvement support value in the SAFe House of Lean?
a)
It optimizes the whole
b)
It uses informed decision-making through fast feedback
c)
It builds long-term partnerships based on trust
d)
It allows teams to pivot without mercy or guilt
69.

Which two statements describe the responsibilities of the Product Owner? (Choose two.)

a)

To protect the team from external forces

b)

To own and manage the Team Backlog

c)

To be a single voice for the Customer and stakeholders

d)

To coach the team

e)

To ensure the team follows Agile principles and practices

70.

What are two reasons Agile development is more beneficial than waterfall development? (Choose two.)

a)

It allows management to track project progress based on steering committees and metrics

b)

It increases productivity and employee engagement

c)

It allows businesses to deliver value to the market more quickly

d)

It requires phase-gate approvals to ensure that everyone is moving together

e)

It relies on external provider dependencies

71.
What is critical to successfully implementing quality in a Lean-Agile environment?
a)
Separation of Dev and Ops
b)
Component teams
c)
Making quality everyone’s responsibility
d)
A phased-gate rollout
72.
What is one of the typical Kanban classes of service for Agile teams?
a)
Funnel
b)
Accepted
c)
Fixed-date
d)
Review
73.
The Inspect and Adapt event always starts with which activity?
a)
Retrospective and Problem Solving Workshop
b)
Agreement on the problems to solve
c)
Quantitative measurement
d)
The PI System Demo
74.
Which statement describes a cadence-based PI Planning event?
a)
It is very important and should be postponed until all participants can attend
b)
As many team members as possible should attend remotely to reduce travel costs
c)
It is an all-hands, two-day event with the goal to create alignment
d)
It is not a required event but tasks move forward at higher velocity when the meeting occurs
75.
What is typically included in the definition of done for the team increment?
a)
Customer documentation is ready
b)
Regression testing is done
c)
Stories are accepted by Product Management
d)
Stories are accepted by the Product Owner
76.
Why is the modified Fibonacci sequence used when estimating?
a)
It serves as a way to estimate large ranges
b)
It reflects the uncertainty in estimating larger items
c)
It can be used to predict unit test coverage
d)
It results in greater precision
77.
What are the three levels of the Scaled Agile Framework?
a)
Essential, Large Solution, Portfolio
b)
Epic, Capability, Feature
c)
Framework, Delivery, Iteration
d)
Value Stream, Program, Team
78.
What is the role of the Scrum Master?
a)
To coordinate Portfolio Epics through the Portfolio Kanban system
b)
To facilitate Agile Release Train processes and Solution Train execution
c)
To be a stakeholder who has the primary business and technical responsibility for fitness for use
d)
To act as a servant leader who helps teams self-organize, self-manage, and deliver using effective Agile practices
79.
James is a Product Owner. It is day seven of the Iteration and his team tells him that they may miss their Iteration commitment. What should James do?
a)
Support adding an Innovation and Planning Iteration directly after the current Iteration
b)
Ensure the Iteration backlog is accurately prioritized
c)
Support splitting a Story into a coding story and a testing story, and then moving the testing story into the next Iteration
d)
Agree to add a person from the System Team to complete the work
80.
Which responsibility belongs to the Product Owner in the team?
a)
To facilitate team meetings and drive Agile behavior
b)
To foster adoption of Agile technical practices
c)
To foster normalized estimating within the team
d)
To sequence backlog items to program priorities, events, and dependencies
81.
What are the SAFe Core Values?
a)
Built-in Quality, Program Execution, Alignment, Transparency
b)
Code Quality, Fast Feedback, Alignment, Trust
c)
Commitment, Competency, Collocation, Culture
d)
People and Culture, Transparency, Collaboration, Responding to Change
82.
Which practices are demonstrated during the Inspect and Adapt event?
a)
Forward focus, develop, cross-domain plan, and expedite execution
b)
Reflect, problem solve, and identify improvement actions
c)
Move forward, analyze future Stories, integrate, and iterate
d)
New start, job sequence, funnel, and enable
83.
What replaces detailed requirements documents?
a)
Stories
b)
Pair work
c)
Unit tests
d)
Task boards
84.
Iteration planning, Iteration review, and backlog refinement are examples of which type of event?
a)
Program event
b)
PI event
c)
Team event
d)
Sync event
85.
Quality is first and foremost a function of what in a Lean-Agile concept?
a)
Culture of shared responsibility
b)
Preserving options
c)
Empowered Solution authority
d)
Deployment on demand
86.

Which three questions should each team member answer during the daily stand-up? (Choose three.)

a)

Are there any impediments that will prevent the team from meeting the Iteration goals?

b)

What did I do yesterday to advance the Iteration goals?

c)

How am I splitting the Solutions into Capabilities and Enablers?

d)

What will I do today to advance the Iteration goals?

e)

How I am contributing to an environment of continuous change?

87.
What is the recommended size of an Agile Team?
a)
10 – 15 people
b)
8 – 12 people
c)
3 – 5 people
d)
5 – 11 people
88.

The "3 Cs" is a popular guideline for writing user stories. What does each of the three Cs represent? (Choose three.)

a)

Card

b)

Clarification

c)

Conversation

d)

Concept

e)

Confirmation

89.
What is the role of the System Architect/Engineer?
a)
To guide the teams and support the Architectural Runway
b)
To manage dependencies
c)
To define the design for the system
d)
To implement continuous improvement methods
90.
If the PI System Demo shows the current state of the Solution, then who is this demo intended for?
a)
The Business Owners
b)
The Product Owner
c)
The Scrum Masters
d)
The Agile Team
91.

Which two views does the Iteration review provide into the program? (Choose two.)

a)

How the team is responding to the stakeholders

b)

How the team is doing on the Program Increment

c)

How the team is demonstrating transparency of decision-making

d)

How the team is increasing empowerment

e)

How the team did on the Iteration

92.
What is an example of a program event?
a)
Innovation and Planning
b)
Daily stand-up
c)
Iteration review
d)
Scrum of scrums
93.
During Iteration execution, a team’s velocity tends to be most affected by what?
a)
Productivity changes, team location, and innovation measures
b)
Changing team size, team makeup, and technical context
c)
Changing financial planners, a new Scrum Master, and new testers
d)
Product Owner changes, changing estimations, and new Features
94.
What is an example of a modified Fibonacci sequence?
a)
...1, 1, 3, 5, 5...
b)
... 2, 4, 5, 9, 11...
c)
..5, 8, 13, 21, 34...
d)
..5, 8, 13, 20, 40...
95.
Which statement describes one element of the CALMR approach to DevOps?
a)
ld cross-functional Agile Release Trains around the flow of value to the Customer
b)
Decentralize decision making
c)
Keep everything under version control
d)
Establish a work environment of shared responsibility
96.
Which statement is true about Iteration planning for Kanban teams?
a)
Kanban teams estimate their velocity
b)
Kanban teams publish Iteration goals
c)
Kanban teams do not commit to service level agreements
d)
Kanban teams find high value in trying to plan the Iteration in detail
97.
What visibility should Scrum Masters provide during the Agile Release Train Sync?
a)
Visibility into system Solution Intent
b)
Visibility into collaboration deployment
c)
Visibility into progress and impediments
d)
Visibility into single source design decisions
98.
The Agile Release Train aligns teams to a common mission using a single Vision and what else?
a)
Release on Demand
b)
Weighted shortest job first
c)
Program Backlog
d)
Team Backlogs
99.
How can a technical exploration Enabler be demonstrated?
a)
Exploration Enablers do not need to be demonstrated
b)
Show the knowledge gained by the exploration
c)
Demonstrate working systems in the production environment
d)
Show the acceptance tests written for the exploration
100.
What is the role of the Release Train Engineer?
a)
To serve as the Scrum Master for the Agile Release Train
b)
To ensure the technical integrity of all development in the Agile Release Train
c)
To serve as the content authority at the Program Level
d)
To coach teams to improve their results
101.
What is the purpose of the Iteration review?
a)
To measure the team’s progress by showing working Stories to the stakeholders and getting feedback from them
b)
To serve as a forecasting meeting where the work is estimated for the Program Increments
c)
To identify where there is too much work in the system and where the teams are being overloaded
d)
To show the backlog items and work on possible Solutions for the backlog items
102.
A cumulative flow diagram focuses on which curves?
a)
Arrival curve (“to-do”) and departure curve (“done”)
b)
Backlog curve ("work") and departure curve ("done")
c)
Arrival curve ("to do") and evolution curve ("change")
d)
Implementation curve ("movement") and departure curve ("done")
103.
When should a component team be used?
a)
To create each replaceable component with minimized dependencies
b)
To gain the fastest velocity with well defined interfaces
c)
To develop T-shaped skills together with Continuous Integration
d)
To obtain high reuse and technical specialization with a focus on nonfunctional requirements
104.
Which statement reflects one of the steps for setting initial velocity?
a)
Identify work on technical infrastructure, tooling, and other systemic impediments
b)
Maintenance tasks do not need to be included in velocity; maintenance tasks fall outside this scope
c)
The team members assess their availability, acknowledging time off and other potential duties
d)
Determining velocity is a new function in each Iteration; previous Iterations should not be transferred to a new Iteration
105.
What are the operational competencies of SAFe
a)
Team and Technical Agility
b)
Agile Product Delivery
c)
Enterprise Solution Delivery
d)
Lean Portfolio Management
106.
What are the strategic competencies of SAFe
a)
Lean Portfolio Management
b)
Agile Product Delivery
c)
Organizational Agility
d)
Continouos Learning Culture
107.
Number of Dimensions in SAFe
a)
7
b)
14
c)
21
d)
24
108.
Configurations in SAFe
a)
Essential Configuration
b)
Portfolio Configuration
c)
Full Configuration
d)
Lean Configuration
109.
Value(in safe house of lean) is supported by
a)
Flow
b)
Innovation
c)
Continous Improvement
d)
Agile Principles
110.
Agile Manifesto has ____ Values & ____ principles
a)
12 & 4
b)
4 & 12
c)
12 & 12
d)
4 & 4
111.
For a 10 week project executed in waterfall vs SAFe how many learning cycles will be there? (assuming a 2 week iteration in SAFe)
a)
1
b)
5
c)
10
d)
20
112.
Waterfall can create false positivity even though you have stage gates
a)
true
b)
false
113.
Wait time for a queue is directly propotional to the average processing rate
a)
true
b)
false
114.
Batch size impacts
a)
Holding cost
b)
Transaction cost
c)
Direct cost
d)
Assumed Cost
115.
Roles in a Agile Team
a)
Scrum Master
b)
Product Cost
c)
Development team
d)
RTE
116.
Teams in SAFe are part of an Agile Release Train
a)
true
b)
false
117.
What does flow load measure?
a)
Batch
b)
Work in progress
c)
VIP
d)
Wait time
118.

Agile quality practices apply to?

a)

Every team

b)

Agile Team

c)

Product Owner

d)

Scrum Master

119.
A CALMR approach applicable to
a)
Dev team
b)
RTE team
c)
DevOp
d)
Product owner
120.

Purpose of the backlog refinement is

a)

Preview and elaboration of upcoming Stories

b)

Preview of Sprint

c)

Review of defects

121.
The Iteration Review provides
a)

Showing incomplete functionality

b)

Showing improvement

c)

Showing velocity

d)

showing working software functionality

122.
Agile Teams are cross functional
a)
true
b)
false
123.
Agile teams deliver value every
a)
Iteration
b)
PI
c)
Month
d)
Year
124.
Colocation is mandatory for Agile teams to succeed
a)
false
b)
true
125.
Teams can be organized around<br />
a)
Feature
b)
Component
c)
Technology<br />
126.
Feature teams can be used for
a)
Increase velocity
b)
Deliver business features
c)
NFR development
127.
A good scrum master
a)
Removes impediments
b)
Creates Stories
c)
Is the team representative in ART level meetings
128.
Product Owner owns the team backlog
a)
true
b)
false
129.
Team can create user stories<br />
a)
false
b)
true
130.
No of teams in an ART
a)
5 - 12 Teams
b)
up to 12 teams
c)
50 teams
d)
125 teams
131.
No of people in an ART
a)
up to 50 people
b)
50 - 125 people
c)
more than 125 people
d)
Less than 200 people
132.
Each ART has its own vision
a)
true
b)
false
133.
RTE is the chief scrum master
a)
false
b)
true
134.
Product management is a role
a)
false
b)
true
135.
UI/UX is part of a feature team
a)
true
b)
false
136.
What is PI Planning?
a)
Sprint event
b)
Agile Event
c)
cadence-based event
d)
Retro Event
137.

What is the Purpose of Program board ?

a)
DOD, dependencies, and Milestones
b)
drive, dependencies, and Milestones
c)
define, dependencies, and Milestones
d)
delivery, dependencies, and Milestones
138.

ROAMing means?

a)
Resolved,Owned,Accespted, mitigated
b)
Resolved,Owned,Accespted, measured
c)
Resolved,Owned,Accespted, monitered
d)
Resolved,Owned,Accespted, managed
139.

Confidence vote - who needs to participate?

a)
Program & PO
b)
Team & RTE
c)
Team & Program
d)
RTE & PO
140.

What is the Purpose of Scale Agile Framework ?

a)
Better than other frameworks
b)
Business Agility
c)
Better suits all types of programs
d)
all the options
141.

What are the top two reasons for adopting Agile in an organization? (Choose two)

a)

Increase predictability by reducing changes

b)

Reduce project cost

c)

Accelerate product delivery

d)

Reduce risk by centralizing decision making

e)

Enhance ability to manage changing priorities

142.

Which two areas are part of the Scaled Agile Framework Core Values? (Choose Two)

a)

System Thinking

b)

Collaboration

c)

Built-in Quality

d)

Decentralize decision making

e)

Alignment

143.

The Agile Release Train uses which type of teams to get work done?

a)

Management Teams

b)

Solution Teams

c)

System Teams

d)

Cross Functional Teams

144.

Who has content authority to make decisions at the user story level during PI Planning?

a)

Scrum Team

b)

Solution Management

c)

Scrum Masters

d)

Release Train Engineer

e)

Product Owner

145.

What is the focus of the Daily stand up meeting?

a)

PI Objectives versus Outcomes

b)

Iteration Goals versus what got done

c)

Plan objectives versus Program Owner objectives

d)

Scrum Master goals versus Development Team Goals

146.

What is one benefit of unlocking the intrinsic motivation of knowledge workers?

a)

To achieve the best Value and Quality to people and society

b)

To strive to achieve a state of continuous flow

c)

To provide autonomy with purpose, mission, and minimum constraints

d)

To decentralize decision making

147.

Which Statement is a value from the Agile Manifesto?

a)

Responding to a plan over responding to change

b)

Responding to change over following a system

c)

Responding to change over following a plan

d)

Responding to a plan over responding to customer collaboration

148.

What are the three components of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline? (Choose Three)

a)

Continuous Planning

b)

Continuous Integration

c)

Continuous Cadence

d)

Continuous Exploration

e)

Continuous Deployment

149.

What are two of the Agile Release Train Sync meetings? (Choose Two)

a)

System demo

b)

Scrum of Scrums

c)

Inspect and Adapt

d)

Product Owner Sync

e)

Solution Demo

150.

Which three items are found on a Program Board? (Choose three)

a)

Significant Dependencies

b)

User Stories

c)

Milestones

d)

Features

e)

Backlog Items

151.

When is the best time to release software in SAFe?

a)

After every PI

b)

After every Iteration

c)

As soon as the software meets the Solution Definition of Done

d)

Whenever the Business needs it

152.

A team observed that they have to finish all the functionality in a PI as per the organization regulatory compliance. As a result, the team has not identified any stretch objective on Day Two of PI planning.

Which one of the following could be the next step for action?

a)

Ask team to collaborate with system architect to rework on plan

b)

A team always need to add few stretch objective, ask them to add the same

c)

Split the team's scope into committed and stretch objectives based on implementation risk

d)

Consider team is becoming flexible in defining scope of work

153.

SAFe first Lean agile Principle includes "Deliver early and often" and what else?

a)

Apply Cadence

b)

Use System Thinking

c)

Deliver Value incrementally

d)

Decentralize decision making

154.

Why do Business Owners assign business value to Teams' PI Objective?

a)

To determine the highest value using WSJF

b)

To ensure high return on investment

c)

To provide the teams with guidance value to the business

d)

To provide an economic view on Solutions

155.

What is the ultimate goal of SAFe?

a)

Faster Delivery

b)

Servant Leadership

c)

Delivering Value

d)

Functional Teams

156.

How does Decentralized decision making Help?

a)

Limiting WIP

b)

Reducing risks

c)

Getting better Economic Value

d)

Reducing Defects

157.

Which Pillar in the House of Lean encourages Learning and Growth?

a)

Innovation

b)

Flow

c)

Relentless Improvement

d)

Respect for People and Culture

158.

Which Core value talks about Visualizing all relevant work, take ownership and responsibility for error and mistakes

a)

Alignment

b)

Built-Quality

c)

Lean Leadership

d)

Transparency

e)

Program Execution

159.

What is the First Part of the I&A?

a)

PI Kickoff

b)

Final Draft Readings

c)

Quantitative Measurement

d)

Retrospective and Problem Solving

e)

System Demo

160.

Which was the latest Pillar introduced in SAFe House of Lean?

a)

Flow

b)

Relentless Improvement

c)

Innovation

d)

Respect for People and Culture

161.

An old man said to a young man, "I have a daughter. She has as many brothers as she has sisters. Each one of her brothers has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How many sons and daughters do I have?

a)

4 sons and 5 daughters

b)

4 sons and 3 daughters

c)

3 sons and 4 daughters

162.

We need a safe environment for learning, growth, and mutual influence. Which one of the following leadership style supports the same?

a)

Leader as the Developer of People

b)

Leader as conductor

c)

Leader as influencer

d)

Leader as Servant

163.

1) What SAFe practice best supports capacity-based planning?

a)

Updating the Roadmap before each Release planning meeting

b)

Implementing Test-First code quality practices

c)

Conducting the System Demo at the end of each sprint

d)

Using common story point estimating across teams

164.

What are the top two reasons for adopting Agile in an organization? (Choose two)

a)

Increase predictability by reducing changes

b)

Reduce project cost

c)

Accelerate product delivery

d)

Reduce risk by centralizing decision making

e)

Enhance ability to manage changing priorities

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