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Biochem: Enzyme Regulation Part I

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Enzymes that effect the overall rate of a series of metabolic reactions

a)

regulatory enzymes

b)

proenzyme

c)

coenzyme

d)

allosteric site

2.

Rates of enzyme-catalyzed reactions in the body are controlled by these principles: When more of a particular substance is needed, reaction rates _________; When a substance is not needed anymore, reaction rate _______.

a)

stay the same;increase

b)

Increase;decrease

c)

decrease;increase

d)

decrease; stay the same

3.

The ability to control the rate of the overall metabolic pathway allows the cell to _____.

a)

use up all of its enzymes

b)

keep a set amount of enzymes at all times

c)

adapt to its changing needs

d)

maintain the same amounts of enzymes

4.

Catalyze the rate-limiting or slowest step in a pathway.

a)

coenzyme

b)

Regulatory enzymes

c)

coefficient partition

d)

substrate

5.

Enzyme rate depends on...

a)

enzyme concentration

b)

water availibility

c)

heat

d)

substrate concentration

6.

Regulation of enzyme activity is mediated by two mechanisms:

a)

control of catalytic efficiency through protein modification

b)

tissue need

c)

blood flow

d)

bioavailability

7.

Select all of the following ways enzymes are regulated.

a)

amount of enzyme present

b)

Allosteric control

c)

reversible covalent modification

d)

isozymes

e)

proteolytic activation

8.

Effectors that non-covalently bind to an enzyme that cause conformational change.

a)

allosteric activators and inhibitors

b)

substrate

c)

ions only

d)

water molecules

9.

Allosteric site on an enzyme is

a)

within the active site

b)

separate from the active site

c)

the same at the active site

d)

can be in the active site or outside of the active site

10.

Enzymes that usually have interactive subunits and have quaternary structure.

a)

conformational change

b)

allosteric enzymes

c)

Isozymes

11.

When the enzyme's substrate serves as an effector

a)

inhibition

b)

homotropic effector

c)

heterotropic effector

d)

allosteric enzyme

12.

When allosteric effectors are different from the enzyme substrate.

a)

substrates

b)

inhibition

c)

homotropic effector

d)

heterotropic effector

13.

Homotropic effectors function mostly as

a)

activators

b)

inhibitors

14.

Presence of substrate in one active site enhances the catalytic properties at other substrate binding sites.

a)

inhibition

b)

activation

c)

negative cooperativity

d)

positive cooperativity

15.

What type of effector exhibits positive cooperativity?

a)

homotropic effector

b)

heterotropic effector

16.

This allosteric effector plays an important role in feedback mechanisms where products from downstream reactions feedback and affect enzyme activity.

a)

heterotropic effector

b)

homotropic effector

17.

Which type of effector typically serves as allosteric inhibitors?

a)

homotropic effectors

b)

heterotropic effectors

18.

Allosteric enzymes usually have ____ subunits

a)

5 to 7 subunits

b)

3 subunits

c)

one subunit

d)

2 or more subunits

19.

Which substrate will have the most difficulty binding to the enzyme?

a)

1st substrate

b)

2nd substrate

c)

3rd substrate

d)

4th substrate

20.

when the enzyme subunits are in a conformation with LOW affinity for the substrate

a)

S-> P

b)

T state

c)

R state

d)

E-S complex

21.

When an enzyme has a HIGH affinity confirmation for substrate.

a)

S -> P

b)

T state

c)

R state

d)

ES complex

22.

The image best represents...

a)

positive cooperativity

b)

isozymes

c)

negative feedback

d)

enzyme-substrate complex

23.

Where do activators bind on an allosteric enzyme?

a)

either an allosteric site or active site

b)

allosteric site

c)

active site

24.

An allosteric activator does what to an enzyme?

a)

breaks down the enzymes

b)

changes its confirmation and decreases its affinity for substrate

c)

changes its confirmation and increases affinity for substrate

25.

Allosteric activators bind at a site other than the active site.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which confirmation would cause allosteric activators to bind more tightly?

a)

R state

b)

T state

27.

Locks enzyme in the T state.

a)

allosteric inhibitor

b)

allosteric activator

c)

coenzyme

d)

substrate

28.

Allosteric inhibitors bind more tightly to

a)

R state

b)

the T state

29.

Which would make it MORE difficult for a substrate to its active site?

a)

allosteric activator

b)

allosteric inhibitor

30.

Which of the following would overcome the effects of an allosteric inhibitor?

a)

increasing substrate concentration

b)

increasing activator concentration

c)

decreasing substrate concentration

d)

increasing inhibitor concentration

31.

Serve as rate limiting enzymes in metabolic pathways.

a)

allosteric enzymes

b)

isozymes

c)

coenzymes

d)

all enzymes

32.

An allosteric effector needs to resemble the substrate or product of an enzyme.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Serve as allosteric activators of many enzymes involved in metabolic pathways.

a)

ADP and AMP

b)

ATP

c)

water

d)

electrons

34.

ADP and AMP indicate

a)

high energy

b)

low energy

c)

excess ATP

d)

loss of ATP

35.

The effect of an allosteric effector is very fast.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Which type of enzyme is usually tissue specific?

a)

isozymes

b)

allosteric enzymes

c)

coenzymes

37.

Enzymes that catalyze the same reaction but have different physical properties and AA sequence.

a)

regulatory enzyme

b)

allosteric enzyme

c)

isozyme

d)

coenzyme

38.

Which of the following is an isozyme to glucokinase?

a)

lipase

b)

protease

c)

hexokinase

d)

phosphatase

39.

Found in skeletal muscle

a)

hexokinase

b)

glucokinase

40.

found in the liver

a)

hexokinase

b)

glucokinase

41.

Has low affinity for glucose and found in the liver.

a)

hexokinase

b)

glucokinase

42.

has HIGH affinity for glucose and is found in RBCs, skeletal muscle, and most tissues.

a)

hexokinase

b)

glucokinase

43.

have different kinetics but catalyze the same reaction.

a)

isozymes

b)

allosteric enzymes

c)

coenzyme

44.

Have different subunits depending on what tissue they are found in.

a)

coenzyme

b)

allosteric enzyme

c)

isozyme

45.

Either adding a phosphate or removing a phosphate.

a)

phosphorylation

b)

kinase

c)

allosteric

46.

Carry out phosphorylation (adds a phosphate)

a)

kinase

b)

phosphatase

c)

protease

d)

lipase

47.

Carries out dephosphorylation (removes a phosphate)

a)

kinase

b)

phosphatase

c)

lipase

d)

protease

48.

Transfer a phosphate group to the hydroxyl group of a specific tyrosine residue.

a)

tyrosine phosphatase

b)

threonine kinase

c)

tyrosine kinase

d)

serine kinase

49.

Select all that accurately describes a phosphate group.

a)

Bulky

b)

small

c)

negatively charged

d)

neutral molecules

50.

Phosphorylation is irreversable.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Transfer a phosphate group from ATP to OH group of this amino acid on a target enzyme.

a)

serine

b)

glycine

c)

threonine

d)

tyrosine

52.

Phosphorylation and dephosphorylation is a slow process, often taking as long as 3 days.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

What do kinases use as a source of phosphate groups?

a)

ATP

b)

AMP

c)

Glucose

d)

Ribosomes

54.

Adding a phosphoryl group will....

a)

make the compound neutral

b)

make the molecule smaller

c)

make the molecule nonpolar

d)

alter electrostatic interactions

55.

Phosphoryl groups can form hydrogen bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

If an enzymatic process is "reversible" what does that mean?

a)

There is an inhibitor

b)

there is an enzyme that can add and remove that molecule

c)

we lack the enzyme to remove the molecule

d)

the product will be immediately broken down

57.

Which AA are commonly phosphorylated?

a)

Tyrosine

b)

serine

c)

threonine

d)

histadine

58.

How is glycogen phosphorylase activated?

a)

phosphorylation of Serine

b)

dephosphorylation of glutamate

c)

breakdown of glucose

d)

lack of ATP

59.

How is glycogen phosphorylase inactivated?

a)

lack of oxygen

b)

increase in AMP

c)

dephosphorylation of serine

d)

phosphorylation of serine

60.

What is the rate limiting enzyme in glycogen degradation?

a)

none of these

b)

lipase

c)

phosphorylase phosphatase

d)

glycogen phosphorylase

61.

Glycogen phosphorylase (rate limiting enzyme in glycogen degradation) can be summarized by: add phosphate to turn on, remove phosphate to turn off.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which best describes a zymogen?

a)

a neutral molecule

b)

inactive precursor of enzymes (proenzyme)

c)

overactive enzyme

d)

allosteric enzyme

63.

Proteolytic cleavage requires a lot of ATP.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

After an enzyme undergoes proteolytic cleavage to be activated, it cannot be reversed back into a proenzyme.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

The prefix "pro" and suffix "ogen" means...

a)

inactive zymogen

b)

active enzyme

c)

enzyme that contains serine

d)

nonpolar substrates

66.

Pepsinogen is the...

a)

active form of the enzyme

b)

inactive form of the enzyme

c)

proenzyme

67.

Zymogens are activated by

a)

adding a serine

b)

dephosphorylation

c)

proteolytic cleavage

d)

phosphorylation

68.

Which of the following is the active form?

a)

Proinsulin

b)

pepsin

c)

pepsinogen

d)

Insulin

69.

Which of the following is the inactive enzyme?

a)

chymotrypsinogen

b)

chymotrypsin

70.

How is chymotrypsinogen converted to a-chymotrypsin?

a)

increase AMP

b)

taking a phosphate off of serine

c)

adding a phosphate to serine

d)

by the proteolytic enzyme trypsin